Immunology Flashcards
(324 cards)
1
Q
What part of a lymph node would enlarge during a viral infection?
A
Paracortex
2
Q
What cell is found in the PALS of the white pulp of the spleen?
A
Tcells
3
Q
What happens in the marginal zone?
A
where APCs present blood borne antigen
4
Q
What immunoglobulin is decreased post-splenectomy?
A
IgM
5
Q
Which two additonal bacteria are encapsulated and arent in your mnemonic?
A
E. coli
GBS
6
Q
Which pharyngeal pouch does the thymus develop from?
A
3rd
7
Q
What type of Tcells are in the cortex?
A
Immature T cells
8
Q
What type of Tcells are in the medulla?
A
mature T cells
9
Q
What type of viral nucleic acid do innate immune cells respond to?
A
ssRNA
10
Q
Which HLA loci correspond to MHC One?
A
A/B/C
11
Q
Which HLA loci correspond to MHC Two?
A
DP/DQ/DR
12
Q
What MHC event activates NK Cells?
A
loss of MHC One
13
Q
In what organelle is antigen loaded onto MHC One? Via what protein?
A
rER
TAP transporter
14
Q
In what organelle is antigen loaded onto MHC Two?
A
acidified endosome
15
Q
Which HLA-Haplotype is associated with hemochromatosis?
A
HLA-A3
16
Q
What condition is associated with HLA-B27?
A
PAIR
17
Q
What HLA haplotype is associated with Pernicious anemia?
A
HLA-DR5
18
Q
Which HLA haplotype is associated with Graves?
A
DR3
19
Q
Which four cytokines activate NK cells?
A
IL2
IL12
IFN-α
IFN-β
20
Q
Which CD molecule on NK cells mediates ADCC?
A
CD16
21
Q
What is the function of CD16?
A
binds Fc of IgG
22
Q
Where does positive Tcell selection occur?
A
cortex
23
Q
Where does negative Tcell selection occur?
A
medulla
24
Q
What is positive selection?
A
Capable of interacting with MHC
25
What is negative selection?
removes cells that bind MHC too much
26
Which CD molecules does an immature Tcell express?
CD4 and CD8
27
Which interleukin induces a TH1 response?
IL-12
28
Which interleukin induces a TH2 response?
IL-4
29
Which two cytokines induce a TH17 cell?
TGF-β
IL-6
30
What the the costimulatory molecules for Tcells?
B7 and CD28
31
What is the costimulatory molecule for Bcells?
CD40L
32
Do Tcells contain B7 or CD28?
CD28
33
Which cell secretes CD40L?
CD4
34
Which two interleukins inhibit a TH1 response?
IL4 and IL10
35
Which cell secretes IL12?
macrophages
36
Which CD molecule is unique to Tregs? What is this?
CD25
α-chain of IL2R
37
What is the txn factor for Tregs?
FOXP3
38
Which two cytokines do Tregs produce? What is the function of these cytokines?
IL10 and TGFβ
anti-inflammatory
39
What part of an antibody fixes complement?
Fc
40
Does the heavy or light chain contribute to both the Fab and Fc portion of an antibody?
Heavy
41
Does the Fc or Fab part of an antibody has carbohydrate side chains?
Fc
42
Which portion of the antibody determines its isotype?
Fc
43
What is the function of Tdt?
addition of nucleotides to DNA during recombination
44
What type of lymphocytes express IgM and IgD on their surface?
Mature Bcells
45
What is the most abundant immunoglobulin isotype in serum?
IgG
46
When is IgA a monomer?
circulation
47
When is IgA a dimer?
secreted
48
Which immunoglobulin isotype picks up a secretory component?
IgA
49
Is IgM a monomer when secreted or when on Mature Bcell?
Mature Bcell
50
Is IgM a pentamer when secreted or when on Mature Bcell?
secreted
51
Which two cell types can IgE bind?
basophils and mast cells
52
Which immunoglobulin is found in the lowest concentration in the serum?
IgE
53
What type of component must antigens have in order to be presented by MHC?
peptide
54
What are the two major functions of CRP?
opsonin
fix complement
55
Which two acute phase reactants are down-regulated during an immune response?
Albumin
Transferrin
56
Which complement protein is the main opsonin?
C3b
57
Which complement proteins mediate anaphylaxis?
C3a/C4a/C5a
58
Which complement protein is a chemoattractant for netrophils?
C5a
59
What are the two main opsonins?
IgG and C3b
60
Which complement protein can help clear immune complexes?
C3b
61
Which CD molecule is DAF?
CD55
62
What activates the alternative complement pathway?
spontaneous
microbial surfaces
63
What complement protein is activated by the alternative complement pathway?
C3b
64
What activates the lectin pathway of complement? Specifically?
microbial surfaces
mannose
65
What activates the classic complement pathway?
antigen-antibody complexes
66
Which version of C5 joins the MAC?
C5b
67
What condition causes Hereditary Angioedema?
C1 Esterase Inhibitor
68
C3 deficiency would predispose one to what type of infections?
severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory
69
A deficiency in what complement protein would predispose one to immune complex diseases?
C3
70
Which interleukin is an osteoclast activating factor?
IL1
71
Which cytokine mediates septic shock?
TNF-α
72
Which interleukin functions like GM-CSF?
IL-3
73
Which cytokine activates NK cells to kill virus infected cells?
IFN-gamma
74
Which cytokine increases MHC expression?
IFN-gamma
75
IL4 induces the class switching of what two immunoglobulins?
IgE and IgG
76
Which interleukin induces the growth of Bcells?
IL4
77
Which interleukin promotes the class switching to IgA?
IL-5
78
Which interleukin promotes the differentiation of eosinophils?
IL5
79
Which interleukin inhibits TH1 responses?
IL-10
80
Which type of nucleic acid can activate interferon?
dsRNA
81
What enzyme is produced in response to interferon?
RNaseL
82
What is the receptor for EBV?
CD21
83
What cell synthesizes and secretes B7?
Antigen presenting cells
84
Which three CD molecules are expressed on Bcells?
CD19/CD20/CD21
85
What is the unique marker for NK cells?
CD56
86
What two proteins are linked by superantigens?
β-region of TCR to class two MHC
87
What does CD14 bind?
LPS
88
What is the antigenic variation component of salmonella?
flagella
89
What does antigenic variation do for Borrelia?
relapsing fever
90
What is the antigenic variation component of Neisseria?
pillus
91
What causes major antigenic variation in influenza?
shift
92
What causes minor antigenic variation in influenza?
drift
93
Which four exposures can one receive pre-formed antibodies?
Tetanus
Botulism
HBV
Rabies
94
What are the live attenuated vaccines?
measles/mumps/rubella
polio (saban)
flu (intranasal)
varicella
yellow fever
95
What are the five inactivated vaccines?
Polio (salk)
Hepatitis A
Cholera
Rabies
Influenza (IM)
96
Which antibodies mediate Type Two Hypersensitivity Rxns?
IgM/IgG
97
What two things are attracted during a Type Three reaction?
complement and neutrophils
98
How long does it take for serum sickness to set in?
five days
99
What is the stain for an Arthus reaction?
fluorescence
100
What are the three main Type Four Hypersensitivity Rxns?
Transplant rejection
TB skin tests
Contact dermatitis
101
What type of immune reaction is Bullous Pemphigoid?
two
102
What type of immune reaction is Pemphigus Vulgaris?
two
103
What type of immune reaction is Guillain Barrie?
four
104
What type of immune reaction is MS?
four
105
An allergic Blood Transfusion Reaction is against what antigen?
plasma proteins in blood
106
What is the treatment for an allergic Blood Transfusion Reaction?
anti-histamines
107
What is the antigen for an anaphylactic Blood Transfusion Reaction?
IgA
108
What is the antigen during a Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction?
HLA
109
What is the antigen during an Acute Hemolytic transfusion reaction?
ABO
110
What is the antigen during anti-phospholipid syndrome of Lupus?
cardiolipin
111
What is the antigen during Limited Scleroderma?
anticentromere
112
What are the two specific antibodies found in SLE?
anti-dsDNA
anti-smith
113
What is the antigen for anti-smith antibodies?
ribonuclear protein
114
What is the auto-antibody during T1DM?
anti-glutamate decarboxylase
115
What are the three main autoantibody during polymyositis and dermatomyositis?
anti-Jo
anti-SRP
anti-Mi-2
116
What are the two autoantibodies during Hashimoto?
anti-microsomal
anti-thyroglobulin
117
What is the autoantibody during Diffuse Scleroderma? Against what?
anti-SCL-70
DNA topoisomerase
118
What is the autoantibody during Mixed Connective Tissue Disease?
anti-U1-RNP
119
What are the two autoantibodies during Rheumatoid?
IgM to Fc of IgG
anti-citrullinated
120
Agranulocytosis predisposes a person to infection with which four bacteria?
Staph
Burkholderia cepacia
Nocardia
Serratia
121
What two fungi arise when a patient lacks Tcells?
Candida and PCP
122
IgA deficiency could lead to what bug?
Giardia
123
No granulocytes could predispose a person to infection by what two fungi?
Candida and aspergillus
124
Are recurrent bacterial infections indicative of Tcell or Bcell deficiency?
Bcell
125
Are recurrent fungal infections indicative of Tcell or Bcell deficiency?
Tcell
126
What is the inheritance pattern for Brutons agammaglobulinemia?
X-linked recessive
127
What is absent during Brutons agammaglobulinemia?
CD19 Bcell count
128
What two structures are missing during Brutons?
tonsils and lymph nodes
129
Which immunoglobulins are decreased during Brutons agammaglobulinemia?
all classes
130
What are IgA levels during selective IgA deficiency?
less than 7
131
What is defective during Common Variable Immunodeficiency?
Bcell maturation into plasma cells
132
What is a patient with Common Variable Immunodeficiency at an increased risk of?
autoimmune disease
133
What three infections are patients with Common Variable Immunodeficiency susceptible to?
lymphoma
bronchiectasis
sinopulmonary infections
134
What cell is decreased during Common Variable Immunodeficiency? What does this result in?
plasma
decreased all classes of immunoglobulin
135
What pharyngeal structure is disrupted during DiGeorge?
pouch
136
How is the gene deletion detected in DiGeorge?
FISH
137
What type of cell response is defective during IL12 Receptor Deficiency?
decrease TH1
138
What cytokine is decreased during IL12 Receptor Deficiency?
IFN-gamma
139
What two bugs is a person with IL-12 deficiency susceptible to?
mycobacterial
fungal
140
What disease may present after BCG vaccination?
IL12 receptor deficiency
141
What is the mode of inheritance of Job Syndrome?
Autosomal Dominant
142
What cell type is deficient in Job Syndrome?
TH17
143
What protein is mutated during Job Syndrome?
STAT3
144
A recruitment of which immune cell fails during Job Syndrome?
neutrophil
145
Which immunodeficiency can result in cold abscesses?
Job Syndrome
146
What bacteria is a person with Job Syndrome particularly susceptible at forming an abscess full of?
Staph
147
Which immune syndrome can result with retained primary teeth?
Job
148
Which immunoglobulin is high during Job Syndrome?
IgE
149
Which cytokine is low during Job Syndrome?
IFN-gamma
150
What is the mode of inheritance for IL2R Deficiency?
X-linked
151
What is the mode of inheritance for ADA Deficiency?
Autosomal Recessive
152
What is the cure for SCID?
Bone marrow transplant
153
What is the function of the ATM Gene?
repair DNA double stranded breaks
154
What is the triad of Ataxia Telangiectasia?
Ataxia
spider Angiomas
IgA deficiency
155
What is the marker for Ataxia Telangiectasia?
AFP
156
What are the immunoglobulin levels during Ataxia Telangiectasia?
↓ IgG/ ↓ IgA / ↓ IgE
157
What atrophies during Ataxia Telangiectasia?
Cerebellum
158
What hematological abnormality is present during Ataxia Telangiectasia?
Lymphopenia
159
What is the mode of inheritance for Hyper IgM?
X-linked
160
What is defective during Hyper IgM?
CD40L
161
Which two parasites can be found during Hyper IgM? Virus?
Cryptosporidium Parvum
Pneumocystis
CMV
162
What are immunoglobulins are decreased during Hyper IgM?
↓IgG/ ↓ IgA / ↓ IgE
163
What is the mode of inheritance for Wiskott-Aldrich?
X-linked recessive
164
What process is defective during Wiskott-Aldrich?
Tcells are unable to rearrange cytoskeleton
165
Which immunoglobulins are decreased during Wiskott-Aldrich?
↓ to normal IgM and IgG
166
Which immunoglobulins are increased during Wiskott-Aldrich?
↑ IgA/ ↑ IgE
167
Which cells are defective during Wiskott Aldrich?
Tcells
168
Which two types of diseases is a person with Wiskott-Aldrich at an increased risk of inheriting?
Autoimmune and Malignancy
169
What is another name for CD18?
Lymphocyte Function Associated Antigen-1
170
What is the mode of inheritance for Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency-1?
autosomal recessive
171
What hematological abnormality would be present during LAD1?
neutrophilia
172
What is the Mode of Inheritance for Chediak Higashi?
Autosomal recessive
173
What protein is defective during Chediak Higashi?
LYST
174
What is the word-for-word function of LYST?
microtubule dysfunction in phagosome-lysosome fusion
175
Which two bacteria would a person with Chediak Higashi be susceptible to?
Staph and Strep
176
What would be seen on a blood smear during Chediak-Higashi?
giant granules in neutrophils and platelets
177
What immunodeficiency would present with partial albinism?
Chediak Higashi
178
What immunodeficiency would present with peripheral neuropathy?
Chediak Higashi
179
What immunodeficiency would present with pancytopenia?
Chediak Higashi
180
What immunodeficiency would present with mild coagulation defects?
Chediak-Higashi
181
What is the mode of inheritance for CGD?
X-linked recessive
182
Which seven organisms is a person with CGD susceptible to?
Pseudomonas
Listeria
Aspergillus
Candidia
E. coli
S. aureus
Serratia
183
What common characteristic do bacteria a person with CGD is susceptible to have in common?
catalase positive
184
What does a negative tetrazolium blue test indicate?
NADPH is absent
185
What other test can be used for CGD other than Nitroblue Tetrazolium?
Dihydrorhodamine
186
Where is an autograft from?
yourself
187
Where is an allograft from?
different individual of same species
188
Where is a xenograft from?
different species
189
What mediates a hyperactue graft rejection?
pre-formed antibody
190
What type of immune reaction with hyperactue graft rejection be?
Type Two
191
What type of Hypersensitivity is cellular acute graft rejection?
Type four
192
What is the antigen during cellular Acute Graft Rejection?
donor MHCs
193
What type of inflammation takes place during acute graft rejection?
vasculitis
194
What immune cell invades during acute graft rejection?
lymphocytic
195
Is chronic graft rejection mediated by Tcells or Bcells?
both
196
What happens to the heart during Chronic Graft Rejection?
atherosclerosis
197
What happens to the Lungs during Chronic Graft Rejection?
bronchiolitis obliterans
198
What happens to the Liver during Chronic Graft Rejection?
vanishing bile ducts
199
What two things happen to the kidney during Chronic Graft Rejection?
vascular fibrosis
glomerulopathy
200
Which cells mediate GVHD?
grafted Tcells
201
WHat are four symptoms of GVHD?
Rash
Jaundice
Diarrhea
Hepatosplenomegaly
202
Which two transplants most often have GVHD?
bone marrow and liver
203
Chronic Immune Suppression can result in which two abnormalaties?
infection and cancer
204
What two proteins does cyclosporine inhibit?
Calcineurin and cyclophilin
205
What is the MOA of cyclosporin?
blocks IL2 txn
206
What is the main toxicity of cyclosporin?
nephrotoxic
207
Which immunosuppressive can cause poor BMP findings?
cyclosporine
208
What are the two odd toxicities of cyclosporine?
hirsutism and gingival hyperplasia
209
What are the two immunosuppressants that inhibit calcineurin?
Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus
210
Drugs ending in what suffix inhibit FKBP?
-limus
211
What does FKBP stand for?
FK Binding Protein 506
212
What does tacrolimus inhibit?
IL2 txn
213
What are two toxicities of cyclosporine that tacrolimus lacks?
gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism
214
What are two additional toxicities of tacrolimus that cyclosporine does not have?
diabetes and neurotoxicity
215
What does sirolimus inhibit?
mTor
216
What is the MOA of sirolimus?
inhibit IL2 signaling
217
Which immunosuppressant has poor hematological toxicities?
Sirolimus
218
Is sirolimus nephrotoxic?
no
219
What are the three toxicities of Basiliximab?
edema
HTN
tremor
220
Which immune cell does azathioprine inhibit?
lymphocytes
221
What is the main toxicity of azathioprine?
myelosuppression
222
What drug can increase the toxicity of azathioprine?
allopurinol
223
Which immune protein is inhibited by glucocorticoids?
NFKB
224
What enzyme does Mycophenolate Mofetil inhibit?
IMP Dehydrogenase
225
What nucleotide does Mycophenolate Mofetil inhibit the synthesis of?
GMP
226
Which interleukin is Oprevelkin an analogue of?
IL-11
227
What condition is Oprevelkin used to treat?
thrombocytopenia
228
Which drug is a G-CSF?
Filgrastim
229
What drug is a GM-CSF?
Sargramostim
230
Which interleukin molecule is Aldesleukin an analogue of?
IL2
231
What two conditions is Aldesleukin used to treat?
renal cell carcinoma
metastatic melanoma
232
What CD molecule is targeted by Alemtuzumab?
CD52
233
What disease is treated with Alemtuzumab?
CLL
234
What is the VEGF antibody?
Bevacizumab
235
What two diseases for Bevacizumab treat?
colorectal cancer
renal cell carcinoma
236
What does Cetuximab target?
EGFR
237
What two diseases are treated with Cituximab?
stage four colon cancer
head/neck cancer
238
What is treated with Rituximab?
NHL
Rheumatoid
ITP
239
Which two cancers are treated with Trastuzumab?
breast and gastric
240
What diseases are treated with Infliximab/Adalimumab?
PAIR
241
Which two diseases is Natalizumab used to treat?
MS
Crohns
242
Which disease could Natalizumab cause?
PML
243
What antibody targets RANKL?
Denosumab
244
What antibody targets IgE?
Omalizumab
245
Which antibody targets RSV Fusion protein?
Palivizumab
246
What does Muromonab target?
CD3
247
What antibody targets C5 Convertase?
Eculizumab
248
Which four areas drain into the para-aortic lymph nodes?
Kidney
Ovary
Ureter
Testicles
249
What part of the foot drains into the popliteal nodes?
dorso-lateral
250
Where nodes does the prostate lymph drain into?
internal iliac
251
Between what two vessels does the thoracic duct drain?
subclavian and internal jugular
252
What embryonic layer are lymphocytes derived from?
mesenchyme
253
What two blood cell abnormalities can be seen post-splenectomy?
thrombocytosis
lymphocytosis
254
Would endogenous or exogenous antigens be presented on MHC One?
endogenous
255
Would endogenous or exogenous antigens be presented on MHC Two?
exogenous
256
What haplotypes are found with SLE?
DR2 and DR3
257
What is the function of Tdt?
VDJ rearrangement
258
Which virus is notorious for appearing after a kidney transplant?
BK Virus
259
What type of hypersensitivity could TH17 cells contribute to?
type three
260
What cytokine do TH1 cells secrete?
IFN-gamma
261
Which immunoglobulin is the antigen receptor on the surface of Bcells?
IgM
262
What are thymus dependent antigens?
peptides
263
What are thymus independent antigens?
non-peptides
264
Which Acute Phase Reactant promotes endothelial cell repair?
Fibrinogen
265
Which two CD molecules inhibit complement activation?
CD55
C1 Esterase Inhibitor
266
Which two interleukins are the endogenous pyrogens?
IL1 and IL6
267
What is the F of FACES regarding Job Syndrome?
coarse Facies
268
What is the A of FACES regarding Job Syndrome?
cold Abscess
269
What is the T of FACES regarding Job Syndrome?
retained Teeth
270
What is the E of FACES regarding Job Syndrome?
IgE
271
What is the D of FACES regarding Job Syndrome?
Dermatological
272
What is a syngenic graft?
from identical twin or clone
273
What does Palivizumab block?
RSV fusion protein
274
Early complement deficiencies predispose to what type of bacteria?
encapsulated
275
What two types of immune cells are located in the medulla of a lymph node?
plasma cells and lymphocytes
276
What type of immune cells are located in the medullary sinus of a lymph node?
macrophages
277
A spleenectomy can cause what myeloid cell to become more numerous?
thrombocytosis
278
Which cytokine is involved in cachexia?
TNF
279
Which three substances can result in IgE Independent Mast Cell Degranulation?
opioids
vancomycin
radiocontrast dyes
280
A large population of CD4/CD8 containing Tcells can be indicative of what disease?
Hodgkiins lymphoma
281
Where does Bcell somatic hypermutation occur?
Bcell germinal centers
282
By what mechanism does IgA cross epithelial cell membranes?
Transcytosis
283
The spleen synthesizes what specific isotype of immunoglobulin?
IgM
284
Which Acute Phase Reactant is a coagulation factor?
fibrinogen
285
Which Acute Phase Reactant correlates with ESR?
fibrinogen
286
What starts the Alternative Complement pathway?
bacteria
287
What starts the Lectin Complement pathway?
mannose
288
Which two proteins help prevent complement mediated destruction of self cells?
DAF/CD55
C1 Esterase Inhibitor
289
Which interleukin activates NK cells?
IL12
290
Which complement protein does EBV bind?
C3d
291
Which innate immune cell possessed Fc and C3b receptors?
macrophages
292
Which two viruses have active and passive immunity?
HBV and rabies
293
Antibodies to what antigen of influenza are created?
Hemagglutinin
294
Which two immunoglobulin do macrophages have a receptor for? Not for?
IgG
not for = IgM
295
What enzyme does Protein Kinase R inactivate?
EF2
296
What is the function of CTLA4?
down-regulate immune system
297
Which live vaccine is the only one that can be given to a HIV positive person?
MMR
298
How many days after insult does serum sickness take place?
5--10 days
299
What are three symptoms of Serum Sickness?
Fever
Arthralgias
Urticaria
300
What is another name for a desmosome?
desmoglein
301
What genes for SCID?
Rag genes
302
Delay Accelerating Factor inhibits what two complement proteins?
C3 and C5 convertase
303
Mixed connective tissue disease has manifestations of what three other autoimmune diseases?
Lupus
Polymyositis
Systemic sclerosis
304
Not having Bcells predisposes to what two viruses?
Polio
enteroviruses
305
Which stage of maturation of Bcells is stopped during Brutons Agammaglobulinemia?
pro-Bcells
306
Patients with Selective IgA Deficiency can have anaphylactic reactions to what?
blood products
307
Which immune disease can predispose to fungal/viral/bacterial and protozoan infection?
SCID
308
What rxn does ADA Catalyze?
adenosine into inosine
309
What disease is indicative of decreased Tcell Receptor Excision Circles?
SCID
310
What are the two characteristics of platelets during Wiskott Aldrich?
smaller and fewer
311
Which specific subunit is defective during LFA1?
beta-two-integrin
312
What specific gene is defective during Chediak Higashi?
Lysosomal Trafficking Regulator Gene
313
Do integrins mediate tight or loose adherment?
tight
314
Which immunosuppressant can cause hyperlipidemia?
sirolimus
315
Which immunosuppressant can cause insulin resistance?
sirolimus
316
Which immunosuppressant is sirolimus synergistic with?
cyclosporine
317
What organelle does bortezimib inhibit? What disease?
Proteasome
Multiple Myeloma
318
What txn factor is normally activated by Calcineurin?
NFAT
319
Which six diseases can be treated with IFN-alpha?
Hep B and C
Kaposi
Hairy/Renal/Melanoma
320
What are two side effects of EPO agents?
HTN and thromboembolic events
321
Which gene functions as an 'Off-Switch' for Tcell responses?
CTLA4
322
What is the target of Natalizumab? What does this target inhibit?
alpha-4-integrin
leukocyte migration
323
What are the two functions of CRP?
fix complement
opsonin
324
What is the function of DAF?
decay C3 and C5
