Pharmacology Flashcards

(192 cards)

1
Q

Enzyme kinetics that follow a sigmoidal curve follow what type of kinetics?

A

Cooperative kinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

On a Lineweaver-Burk plot, what point is on the X-axis less than zero?

A

-1/K_M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

On a Lineweaver-Burk plot, what point is on the Y-axis

A

1/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

On a Lineweaver-Burk plot, what is the Y-intercept?

A

1/Vmax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

On a Lineweaver-Burk plot, what equation represents the slope?

A

Km/Vmax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which type of inhibitors intercept the Y-axis with the natural agonist?

A

competitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which type of inhibitors do not intercept the Y-axis with the natural agonist?

A

noncompetitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many half lives does it take to reach 90% of steady state concentration?

A

3.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Failure of what three organs can lead to decreased drug clearance?

A

heart, liver, kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the equation for maintenance dose?

A

(desired concentration)(clearance)(interval)/F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is zero order elimination?

A

clearance is constant regardless of drug concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What class of drugs are weak bases?

A

amphetamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What drug is given to treat an amphetamine OD?

A

ammonium chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What three modifications are made during Phase I drug metabolism?

A

oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Do the CYP enzymes function during Phase I or Phase II clearance?

A

phase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Do elderly patiets lose phase I or Phase II metabolism first?

A

Phase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What three modifications are done during Phase II metabolism?

A

Glucoronidation, Acetylation, Sulfation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Are drugs still often active after Phase I metabolism? Phase II?

A

Phase I = yes

Phase II = no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the equation for therapeutic index?

A

TD50/ED50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where are most D2 receptors found?

A

brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where are H1 receptors located?

A

nasal and bronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do H1 receptors do to the bronchioles?

A

increase contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where are the V1 receptors? What is their action?

A

smooth muscle

contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What class of drug blocks choline entry into the nerve terminal? What ion is used for this transport?

A

hemicholiniums

sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What drug blocks acetylcholine transport into the vesicle? What ion?
vesamicol H+
26
What class of drug prevents vesicular discharge of acetylcholine?
Botulinum
27
What drug blocks Tyrosine Hydroxylase? What is the normal product of this enzyme?
Metyrosine DOPA
28
What drug blocks the incorporation of dopamine into adrenergic vesicles?
reserpine
29
What are the two drugs that block adrenergic vesicular fusion with the presynaptic cell membrane?
bretylium Guanethidine
30
What hormone can increase norepinephrine discharge from adrenergic nerve terminals?
AT II
31
What are the two uses of bethanechol?
ileus urinary retention
32
What is the main use of carbachol?
glaucoma
33
Which two choline esters are resistant to AchE?
carbachol and bethanechol
34
Which choline ester has no effect on nicotinic synapses?
bethanechol
35
Is pilocarpine subject to AchE activity?
No
36
What are the three uses of neostigmine?
ileus urinary retention Myasthenia
37
Does neostigmine penetrate the CNS?
no
38
What AchE Inhibitor can cross the BBB?
physostigmine
39
What is the clinical use of pyridostigmine?
Long-term Tx of Myasthenia
40
What are the three AchE inhibitors for Alzheimers?
Donepezil RIvastigmine Galantamine
41
What is the clinical use of edrophoniium?
Tx of Myasthenia
42
What three diseases can be exacerbated by choline esters?
COPD asthma peptic ulcers
43
What are the three ocular muscarinic antagonists? Two effects?
Atropine/Hometropine/Tropicamide mydriasis and cycloplegia
44
What disease is Benztropine used to Tx?
Parkinsons
45
What is scopolamine used to Tx?
motion sickness
46
What is Ipratropium used to treat?
COPD
47
What type of glaucoma would excessive mydriasis cause?
closed angle
48
What receptor does epinephrine activate at high doses?
α
49
What three receptors, in decreasing order, does norepinephrine activate?
α1 > α2 > β1
50
What two receptors does isoproterenol activate?
β1 = β2
51
What three receptors, in dose order, can dopamine activate?
D1 = D2 > β1
52
What is albuterol used for?
acute asthma
53
What are the two mechanisms of amphetamines?
inhibit reuptake displace adrenergic catecholamines
54
Wat drug is used to treat HTN in pregnancy?
α-methyldopa
55
What anti-HTN drug can cause a Warm Agglutinin test?
α-methyldopa
56
What is the drug of choice for a pheochromocytoma?
Phenoxybenzamine
57
What drug is given to pt's on MAOIs who eat fermented cheese?
phentolamine
58
Which β-blocker is used for glaucoma?
Timolol
59
Which β-blocker can cause dyslipidemias?
Metoprolol
60
Which three β-blockers are used in the event of an acute MI?
metoprolol, carvedilol, bisoprolol
61
Which β-blocker can β1 and stimulate β3? What does stimulation of β3 do?
Nebivolol production of NO
62
Why does atropie cause hyperthermia?
inhibits sweating
63
What molecule does acetominophen overdose destroy?
glutathione
64
What is the antidote for acetominophen overdose?
N-acetylcysteine
65
What is antidote for amphetamine OD?
NH4Cl
66
What is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?
Flumazenil
67
What is the antidote for β-blocker OD?
glucagon
68
What is the treatment for Carbon Monoxide poisoning?
100% O2
69
What metals can penicillamine chelate?
copper, arsenic and gold
70
What are the three treatments, in order, for an overdose of cyanide?
nitrite + thiosulfate then hydroxycobalamin
71
What are the two chelators for iron?
DeFERoxamine and deFERasirox
72
What are the four chelators for lead?
EDTA, Dimercaprol, Succimer, Penicillamine
73
What metals can dimercaprole chelate?
mercury, arsenic, gold
74
What drug is used to treat methylene or ethylene glycol poisoning?
Fomepizole
75
What are the two antidotes for methemoglobin?
methylene blue and Vitamin C
76
What is the antidote for opioids?
Naloxone
77
What is the treatment for salicyclates?
NaHCO3
78
What is the treatment for tPA, streptokinase or urokinase?
aminocaproic acid
79
What is the treatment for warfarin OD?
vitamin K
80
What three drugs can cause coronary vasospasm?
Cocaine, Sumatriptan, Ergot alkaloids
81
What four drugs are known to cause cutaneous flushing?
vancomycin, Adenosine, Niacin, calcium channel blockers
82
What two drugs are known to cause dilated cardiomyopathy?
doxorubicin, daunorubicin
83
What two classes of antiarrythmics are known to cause TdP?
Class III Class Ia
84
What family of antibiotics are known to cause TdP?
Macrolide
85
What two drugs cause hot flashes?
Tamoxifen Clomiphene
86
What are the six drugs that can cause hyperglycemia?
tacrolimus protease inhibitors Niacin HCTZ Beta-blockers corticosteroids
87
What is the Mnemonic to remember the six drugs that can cause hyperglycemia?
Taking Pills Necessitates Having Blood Checked
88
What drugs can cause hypothyroidism?
Lithium, Amiodarone, Sulfonamides
89
What drug can cause acute cholestatic hepatitis?
erythromycin
90
What is the Mnenomic for the drugs that may cause diarrhea?
Might Excite Colon On Accident
91
What are the five drugs that may cause diarrhea?
Metformin, Erythromycin, Colchicine, Orlistat, Acarbose
92
What is the mnemonic to remeber the drugs that cause cause focal to massive hepatic necrosis?
Liver 'HAVAc'
93
What four drugs can cause massive hepatic necrosis?
Halothane, Amanita, Valproic Acid, Acetominophin
94
What is the mnenomic to remember the drugs that cause pancreatitis?
Drugs Causing A Violent Abdominal Distress
95
What are the six drugs that can cause pancreatitis?
Didanosine, Corticosteroids, Alcohol, Valproic Acid, Azathioprine, Diuretics
96
What are the three drugs known to cause pseudomembrane colitis?
Clindamycin, Ampicillin, Cephalosporin
97
What is the Mnemonic to remember drugs that can cause agranulocytosis?
Drugs CCCrush Myeblasts and Promyelocytes
98
What is the drug of Drugs CCCrush Myeblasts and Promyelocytes?
dapsone
99
What are the three C's of Drugs CCCrush Myeblasts and Promyelocytes?
Clozapine Carbamezapine Colchicine
100
What is the M of Drugs CCCrush Myeblasts and Promyelocytes? What is the MOA of this drug?
Methimazole inhibits thyroid peroxidase
101
What is the P of Drugs CCCrush Myeblasts and Promyelocytes? What is the MOA of this drug?
Propylthiouracil inhibits thyroid peroxidase
102
What is the mnemonic for drugs that cause aplastic anemia?
Cant Make New Blood Cells Properly
103
What is the C of Cant Make New Blood Cells Properly?
Carbamazepine
104
What is the M of Cant Make New Blood Cells Properly?
Methimazole
105
What is the N of Cant Make New Blood Cells Properly?
NSAIDs
106
What is the B of Cant Make New Blood Cells Properly?
benzene
107
What is the C of Cant Make New Blood Cells Properly?
chloramphenicol
108
What is the P of Cant Make New Blood Cells Properly?
propylthiouracil
109
What two drugs can give a positive coombs test?
methyldopa and penicillin
110
What drug causes Gray baby syndrome?
chloramphenicol
111
What three drugs can cause a megaloblastic anemia?
Phenytoin, Methotrexate, Sulfa
112
What two drugs can cause thrombocytopenia?
heparin and cimetidine
113
What is the mnemonic to remember the drugs that can exacerbate G6PDase deficiency?
IS D PAIN
114
What is the I of IS D PAIN?
isoniazid
115
What is the S of IS D PAIN?
Sulfonamides
116
What is the D of IS D PAIN?
dapsone
117
What is the P of IS D PAIN?
primaquine
118
What is the A of IS D PAIN?
Aspirin
119
What is the I of IS D PAIN?
Ibuprofen
120
What is the N of IS D PAIN?
Nitrofurantoin
121
What two drugs can cause fat redistribution?
Protease Inhibitors Glucocorticoids
122
What four drugs can cause gingival hyperplasia?
phenytoin, verapamil, cyclosporine, nifedipine
123
What is the Mnemonic to remember the drugs that can cause hyperuricemia?
Painful Tophi Need Foot Care
124
What five drugs can cause hyperuricemia?
Pyrazinamide Thiazides Niacin Furesomide Cyclosporine
125
What two drugs are known to cause osteoporosis?
corticosteroids and heparin
126
What is the Mnemonic to remember the drugs that can cause photosensitivity?
SAT for Photo
127
Which five drugs cause photosensitivity?
Sulfonamides Amiodarone Tetracyclines 5-FU
128
What four types of drugs can cause Steven Johnsons Syndrome?
anti-Epileptics Allopurinol Sulfa drugs Penicillin
129
What is the Mnemonic to remember the drugs that can cause SLE-like symptoms?
SHIPP-E
130
What are the six drugs that can cause lupus like syndromes?
Sulfa hydralazine Isoniazid Procainamide Phenytoin Etanercept
131
What drug can discolor teeth?
tetracyclines
132
What drug can cause tendonitis, tendon rupture or cartilage damage?
Fluroquinolones
133
What two drugs cause Cinchoism?
Quinidie and quinine
134
What three drugs can produce Parkinsons like symptoms?
Anti-psychotics, Reserpine, Metoclopromide
135
What is the Mnenomic to remember the drugs that cause seizures?
I BITE My (tongue)
136
What six drugs cause seizures?
Isoniazid Bupropion Imipenem/Cilastatin Tramadol Enflurane Metoclopromide
137
What two drugs are known to cause diabetes insipidus?
lithium and demeclocycline
138
What specific drug is known to cause Fanconi Syndrome?
expired tetracyclines
139
What two drugs are known to cause hemorrhagic cystitis?
cyclophosphamide ifosfamide
140
What three drugs are known to cause interstitial nephritis?
Methicillin NSAIDs Furesomide
141
What three drugs are known to cause SIADH?
Carbamazepine Cyclophosphamide SSRI
142
What four drugs are known to cause pulmonary fibrosis?
bleomycin busulfan amiodarone methotrexate
143
What four drugs are known to exert anti-muscarinic properties?
Atropine tricyclics H1 antagonists antipsychotics
144
What four drugs are known to cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?
Aminoglycosides Cisplatin Vancomycin Loop diuretics
145
What drugs act as p450 inducers?
chronic alcohol modafinil St. johns wort Phenobarbital Phenytoin Nevirapine Rifampin Griseofulvin Carbamezapine
146
What are the p450 inducers?
anti-epileptics anti-psychotics antidepressants anesthetics theophylline warfarin statins OCPs
147
What are the p450 inhibitors?
Acute alcohol Gemfibrozil Ciprofloxacin isoniazid grapefruit juice quinidine amiodarone ketaconazole macrolides Sulonamides Cimetidine Ritonavir
148
What are the eight sulfa drugs?
Probenicid fureosomide acetlzolamide Celecoxbin thiazides sulfonamide sulfasalazine sulfonylureas
149
What are the drugs of Peas and WHEATS?
phenyton/phenylbutazone Warfarin heparin ethanol aspirin theophylline/tolbutamide salicyclates
150
What drug is used pre-op to reduce airway secretions?
Glycopyrrolate
151
What plant can atropine be isolated from?
Jimson
152
What is the use of salmeterol? Which receptor?
long-term treatment of COPD β2
153
What is the MOA of Mirtazapine? What is the clinical use of mirtazapine?
α2 blocker depression
154
What are the three genitourinary muscarinic antagonists
oxybutynin darifenacin solifenacin
155
Name a plant that has muscarine in it?
Jimson weed
156
What is the biggest difference between amphetamine and ephedrine?
ephedrine isnt a reuptake inhibitor
157
What drug is used to treat antimuscarinic overdose?
physostigmine
158
What are two locations where scombroid toxin may be found?
tuna and mackerel
159
What fish toxin is histamine associated with?
Scombroid
160
What drug can produce ovulation?
clomiphene
161
What does the permissive effect mean?
one drug is needed for the other drug to achieve maximum effect
162
In liver and renal disease, what happens to the loading dose?
stays the same
163
In liver and renal disease, what happens to the maintenance dose?
decreases
164
Which adrenergic receptor does cortisol up-regulate?
alpha-one
165
What does the blood/gas partition coefficient measure?
solubility in blood
166
What receptor is present on sweat glands?
muscarinic acetylcholine
167
What substance does capsacin deplete?
Substance P
168
What two senses is Neuropeptide Y implicated in?
pain and appetite
169
Which adrenergic receptor decreases insulin release?
alpha-two
170
Which adrenergic receptor increases platelet aggregation?
alpha-two
171
Which adrenergic receptor increases aqueous humor synthesis?
beta-two
172
Which three ions are nicotonic acetylcholine receptors permeable to?
sodium potassium calcium
173
What two tissues does bethanechol activate?
bladder and bowel
174
Which cholinomimetic can be used for both types of glaucoma?
Pilocarpine
175
What is the toxicity of the mnemonic PQRST?
phototoxicity
176
What does PQRST stand for?
Psoralen/phenothiazine Quinolones Retinoids Sulfonamides tetracyclines
177
What type of drug is tolterodine?
muscarinic antagonist
178
What is tolterodine used to treat?
neurogenic bladder
179
What will a lesion above the sacrum to do the bladder?
over-active bladder
180
What will a lesion at the sacrum to do the bladder?
areflexic bladder
181
What are the two anti-spasmodics for IBS?
hyoscyamine dicyclomine
182
Does dobutamine have a higher inotropic or chronotropic effect?
inotropic
183
How does latanoprost aid in the Tx of glaucoma?
increase outflow
184
Does clonidine decrease renal blood flow?
no
185
What does the Spare Receptor Theory say?
irreversible antagonist will produce a right shift
186
What is the MOA of Ciguatoxin? Tx?
opens sodium channels supportive
187
What do alpha-agonists do to venous return?
increase
188
What enzymatic ativity does scombroid have?
histadine decarboxylase
189
What reaction does scombroid toxin catalyze?
histidine to histamine
190
Name six drugs that cause Gynecomastia?
Spironolactone Digitalis Cimetidine Risperidone Alcohol Ketoconazole
191
Which Hepatic Zone does acetominophen affect?
three
192
What is the MOA of Black Widow Spider toxin?
increase presynaptic release of Ach