Cardiovascular Flashcards
(392 cards)
1
Q
What two structures does the truncus arteriosus give rise to?
A
ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk
2
Q
What does the bulbus cordis give rise to?
A
smooth muscle outflow tract of left and right ventricles
3
Q
What does the primitive atria give rise to?
A
trabeculated part of left and right atria
4
Q
What does the primitive ventricle give rise to?
A
trabeculated part of left and right ventricle
5
Q
What does the primitive pulmonary vein give rise to?
A
smooth muscle part of left atrium
6
Q
What does the left horn of the sinus venosus give rise to?
A
coronary sinus
7
Q
What does the right horn of the sinus venosus give rise to?
A
smooth muscle part of right atria
8
Q
What two structures make up the superior vena cava?
A
right common cardinal vein
right anterior cardinal vein
9
Q
By how many weeks into embryological development does the heart begin beating?
A
4 weeks
10
Q
What protein is defective in Kartagener Syndrome?
A
Dynein
11
Q
What is the name of the structure that embryologically connects the left and right atria?
A
foramen primum
12
Q
What structure originally separates the left from the right atria?
A
foramen primum
13
Q
What structure forms in the septum primum?
A
foramen secundum
14
Q
What develops as the foramen secundum maintains the left to right shunt?
A
septum secundum
15
Q
What structure is left over after the septum secundum covers the foramen secundum?
A
foramen ovale
16
Q
What structure forms the valve of the foramen ovale?
A
septum primum
17
Q
What two structures fuse to form the atrial septum?
A
septum primum and septum secundum
18
Q
What causes a patent foramen ovale?
A
failure of septum primum and septum secundum to fuse
19
Q
What can a patent foramen ovale lead to?
A
paradoxical emboli
20
Q
Does a VSD most commonly occur in the muscular or membranus septum?
A
membranus
21
Q
What two ridges fuse to form the aorticopulmonary septum?
A
bulbar ridges and truncal ridges
22
Q
What are the aortic and pulmonary valves derived from?
A
endocardial cushions of the outflow tract
23
Q
What are the mitral and tricuspid valves derived from?
A
fused endocardial cushions of the AV canal
24
Q
What is Ebsteins Anamoly?
A
tricuspid valve leaflets are attached to RV
25
What weeks does hematopoiesis occur in the yolk sac?
3-8 week
26
What weeks does hematopoiesis occur in the liver?
6th week to birth
27
What weeks does hematopoiesis take place in the spleen?
10th - 28 weeks
28
What weeks does hematopoiesis occur in the bone marrow?
18 weeks to adult
29
What is the PO2 of blood in the umbilical vein?
30 mm Hg
30
What would a pulse oximeter of fetal blood read?
80%
31
What vessel supplies oxygenated blood to the fetus? What vessel does it join?
ductus venosus
IVC
32
Upon reaching fetal circulation, where does most of the oxygenated blood go? Via what structure?
head
foramen oale
33
Upon reaching fetal circulation, where does most of the de-oxygenated blood go?
RA --> RV --> patent Ductus arteriosus
34
Why does blood preferentially flow through the PDA rather than pulmonary vein?
fetal lungs are high pressure
35
What is a closed foramen ovale called?
fossa ovalis
36
What drug is used to keep the PDA open?
Indomethacin
37
What prostaglandins keep the PDA open?
E1 and E2
38
What does the umbilical vein become?
ligamentum teres hepatis
39
What does the umbilical artery become?
medial umbilical ligaments
40
What does the ductus arteriosus become?
ligamentum arteriosum
41
What does the ductus venosum become?
ligamentum venosum
42
What does the allantois become?
urachus/median umbilical ligament
43
What does the notochord become?
nucleus pulposus
44
Would coronary blood flow peak during early or late diastole?
early
45
Enlargement of the left atria can cause what two mediastinal symptoms?
dysphagia
hoarseness of voice
46
What is Ficks equation?
CO = O2 consumption/arterial O2 - venous O2
47
What is the equation for MAP?
(2/3 diastolic)(1/3 systolic)
48
Would hyperthyroidism increase or decrease pulse pressure?
increase
49
Would aortic regurgitation increase or decrease pulse pressure?
decrease
50
Would aortic stenosis increase or decrease pulse pressure?
decrease
51
Would obstructive sleep apnea increase or decrease pulse pressure?
increase
52
Would cardiogenic shock increase or decrease pulse pressure?
decrease
53
Would tamponade increase or decrease pulse pressure?
decrease
54
What would decreased extracellular sodium do to contractility?
increase contractility
55
What would acidosis do to contractility? By what mechanism?
decrease
protons inhibit ca2+ influx
56
What would hypoxia do to contractiltiy?
decrease
57
What would hypercapnia do to contractiltiy?
decrease
58
What is the equation for LaPlace's Law on wall tension?
(pressure)(radius)/(two)(wall thickness)
59
What is the Y-axis on Starlings Curve?
cardiac output
60
What is the X-axis on Starlings Curve?
preload/EDV
61
What is the Y-axis of the cardiac/vascular function curve?
CO/venous return
62
What is the X-axis of the cardiac/vascular function curve?
Right atrial pressure/EDV
63
What does the intersecting point of the cardiac/vascular curve mean?
CO = Venous return
64
Would a positive inotrope produce a left-shift or right-shift of the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?
left shift
65
Would HFor Digoxin OD produce a left-shift or right-shift of the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?
right shift
66
What would fluid infusion do to venous return? Would this produce a left-shift or right-shift on the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?
increase venous return
left-shift
67
What would fluid loss do to venous return? Would this produce a left-shift or right-shift on the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?
decrease
left-shift
68
What would spinal anesthesia do to venous return? Would this produce a left-shift or right-shift on the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?
decrease
left-shift
69
Do changes in TPR change RA pressure on a Cardiac/Vascular function curve? What does this mean?
no
X-intercept doesnt change
70
Would vasopressors produce an upward or downward shift of the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?
downward
71
Would vasodilators produce an upward or downward shift of the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?
upward
72
What valve closes before isovolumic contraction?
mitral
73
What valve opens as the end of isovolumic contraction?
aortic
74
What is the Y-axis on the pressure/volume curve?
LV pressure
75
What is the X-axis on the pressure/volume curve?
LV volume
76
In the left heart, what action produces an S1?
mitral valve closing
77
In the left heart, what action produces an S2?
aortic valve closing
78
In the left heart, what action produces an S3? When does an S3 occur?
mitral valve opening
beginning of diastole
79
What makes an S1 heart sound?
mitral and tricuspid valve closing
80
What makes an S2 heart sound?
aortic and pulmonic valve closing
81
What is an S3 heart sound associated with?
increased filling pressures
82
In what two patient populations is an S3 heart sound normal?
pregnant women and children
83
What makes an S4 heart sound?
atrial kick
84
What is an S4 associated with?
ventricular hypertrophy
85
What is the a-wave of the JVP?
atrial contraction
86
What causes a c-wave?
RV pushing into tricuspid valve
87
What causes the x--wave?
atrial relaxation
88
In what disease state is the X-wave present?
tricuspid regurgitation
89
What causes a v-wave?
RA filling with blood
90
What causes a y-wave?
blood filling RV from RA
91
Delayed closure of what valve occurs during splitting of S2 sounds?
pulmonic
92
What causes a wide splitting of S2?
anything that delays RV emptying
93
What causes a paradoxical splitting? What is the order of valve closing?
anything that delays LV emptying
pulmonic closes before aortic in this situation
94
Inspiration would increase the intensity of sounds from what side of the heart?
right side
95
What does the hand grip manuever accomplish?
increases vascular resistance
96
Does the hand grip manuever increase or decrease the intensity of left-sided heart pathologies?
increase
97
Would the hand grip manuever make a MVP occur earlier or later?
later
98
What does standing do to venous return?
decrease it
99
What does the valsalva manuever do to venous return?
decrease it
100
What does standing/valsalva manuever do to most murmurs?
weaken their intensity
101
What murmur can standing/valsalva manuever increase the intensity of?
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
102
What does rapid squatting do to preload?
increase
103
What does rapid squatting do to venous return?
increase
104
What murmur can rapid squatting increase the intensity of?
aortic stenosis
105
Would rapid squatting increase or decrease the intensity of an MVP?
increase
106
What are the three presentations of aortic stenosis upon exertion?
syncope
Angina
Dyspnea
107
Woud mitral/tricuspid regurgitation be a systolic or diastolic murmur?
systolic murmur
108
Where does an aortic stenosis murmur radiate?
carotids
109
Where is a VSD murmur the loudest?
at the tricuspid valve
110
Would an MVP occur during diastole or systole? Early or late?
systole
late
111
Name three conditions that may cause an MVP?
myxomatous degeneration
rheumatic fever
papillary muscle rupture
112
Would an aortic regurgitation murmur be heard in diastole or systole? Early or late?
diastole
early
113
What are two presentations of aortic regurgitation that could be seen on physical exam?
head bobbing
bounding pulses
114
What murmur produces an opening snap?
mitral stenosis
115
What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?
chronic rheumatic fever
116
What is the most common cause of a PDA?
congenital rubella
117
Where is a PDA best heard?
left infraclavicular area
118
What voltage is the action potential for a cardiac myocyte?
-85 mV
119
What voltage is the action potential for a cardiac nodal cell?
-40 mV
120
Why dont nodal cells have a Phase 0 similar to myocytes? Results in?
high RMP permanently inactivates fast sodium channels
slower conduction times
121
How does sympathetic stimulation speed HR?
increases opening of funny channels
122
What is the Mnemonic to remember the drugs that can increase QT?
Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT
123
What is the S of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?
Sotalol
124
What is the R of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?
Risperidone
125
What is the M of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?
Macrolides
126
What is the C of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?
Chloroquine
127
What is the P of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?
Protease Inhibitors (-navir)
128
What is the Q of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?
quinidine
129
What is the T of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?
Thiazides
130
Which Arrhythmia can kill a person with Long QT Syndrome?
Torsades
131
What are the two syndromes that can produce congenital long QT syndrome?
Romano-Ward
Jervell and Lange-Nielsen
132
Which congential long QT syndrome only produces cardiac defects? What is the inheritance pattern of this disease?
Romano-ward
autosomal dominant
133
Which congential long QT syndrome produces deafness in addition to cardiac defects? What is the inheritance pattern of this disease?
Jervall and Lange-Nielsen
autosomal recessive
134
What is the bypass pathway of WPW called?
bundle of Kent
135
What type of heart pathology can lyme disease create?
3rd degree
136
What 2nd messenger is activated by ANP?
cGMP
137
Where is BNP released from? When?
ventricular myocytes
increased stretch
138
What can BNP be used to rule out?
acute heart failure
139
What is synthetic BNP? What is it used to treat?
Nesiritide
acute heart failure
140
What does the aortic baroreceptor project to?
nucleus tractus solitarius
141
What does the aortic baroreceptor respond to?
increased pressure only
142
What nerve does the aortic baroreceptor respond to?
vagus
143
What nerve does the carotid receptor use?
glossopharyngeal
144
What does the carotid baroreceptor respond to?
increases and decreases in blood pressure
145
What is the normal pressure in the right atria?
less than 5 mm Hg
146
What is the normal pressure in the right ventricle?
25/5
147
What is the normal pressure in the left atria?
less than 12 mm Hg
148
What is the normal pressure in the LV?
130/10
149
What is the normal pressure in the pulmonary artery?
25/10
150
What is the only organ where CO2 causes vasoconstriction?
lung
151
What two ions cause vasodilation in skeletal muscle?
potassium and hydrogen ions
152
What chamber does pulmonary capillary wedge pressure measure?
left atria
153
What is the Starling Equation?
(Pc-Pi) - (πc-πi)
154
What does Pc represent?
capillary hydrostatic pressure
155
What does Pi represent?
capillary oncotic pressure
156
What does πc represent?
capillary oncotic
157
What does πi represent?
interstitial osmotic
158
What does TAPVR stand for?
total anamolous pulmonary venous return
159
What is the defect in TAPVR? What other two defects are often seen during TAPVR?
pulmonary veins drain into right heart
ASD and PDA
160
What are the five causes of a right to left shunt?
Truncus Arteriosus
Transposition
Tricuspid atresia
tetralogy of fallot
TAPVR
161
What defect often accompanies a Persistent Truncus Arteriosus?
VSD
162
What causes Transposition of the Great Vessels?
Failure of aortico-pulmonary septum to spiral
163
What three conditions does Eisenmenger Syndrome produce?
cyanosis
clubbing
Polycythemia
164
A non-mitral bicuspid valve is associated with what disease?
Aortic stenosis
165
Where does an infantile coarctation of the aorta connect?
proximal to PDA
166
Where does an adult coarctation of the aorta connect?
distal to ligamentum arteriosum
167
What is infantile coarctation of the aorta associated with ?
Turner syndrome
168
What are three findings of adult coarctation of the aorta?
notching of ribs
strong UE pulses
weak LE pulses
169
What conditions of the heart is 22q11 associated with?
truncus arteriosus
tetralogy of fallot
170
What three heart conditions are associated with Down Syndrome?
ASD
VSD
atrial septal defect
171
What two heart conditions are associated with Turner Syndrome?
coarctation of aorta
bicuspid aortic valve
172
What four heart conditions are associated with Marfan Syndrome?
MVP
thoracic aorta aneurysm/dissection
aortic regurgitation
173
Infant of diabetic mother is associated with what heat issue?
Transposition of Great Arteries
174
What is the main cause of HTN in young patients?
fibromuscular dysplasia
175
What specific cell type are Xanthomas made of?
Lipid Laden Histiocytes
176
What is the most common tendon for a xanthoma to lodge?
achilles
177
What part of the vessel does Monckeberg Arteriosclerosis effect? What process? Which vessels?
media
calcification
radial and ulnar
178
What are the two types of arteriolosclerosis?
hyaline and hyperplastic
179
What are the two causes of hyaline arteriolosclerosis?
chronic benign HTN and diabetes
180
What causes hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis? What appearance takes place?
severe HTN
onion skinning
181
What are the two growth cytokines for atherosclerosis?
PDGF and FGF
182
What three disease processes can cause a thoracic aortic aneurysm?
cystic medial degeneration
Marfan
syphillis
183
Why can syphillis cause a thoracic aortic aneurysm?
endarteritis of vasovasorum
184
What valvular pathology is aortic dissection associated with?
bicuspid aortic valve
185
What are two presenting symptoms of aortic dissection?
chest pain that radiates to back
unequal BP in UEs
186
Does prinzmetal angina cause ST elevation or ST depression?
ST elevation
187
What two drugs are used to treat Prinzmetal Angina?
CCBs and nitrates
188
Where in the vessel does coronary steal take place?
distal to a stenosis
189
What happens to a person experiencing coronary steal when they are given vasodilators?
coronary vessels are dilated and blood is shunted towards well perfused areas
190
What pathological process can neutrophil invasion into an MI produce?
fibrinous pericarditis
191
What pathological process can macrophage invasion produce post-MI?
wall rupture
192
What three symptoms does Dressler syndrome usually present with?
pericarditis
fever
chest-pain
193
What type of collagen is found in an MI scar?
Type one
194
What is the most sensitive troponin?
Troponin I
195
How long does it take Troponin I levels to rise?
4 hours
196
How long do Troponin I levels remain elevated?
7-10 days
197
What is CK-MB useful for?
diagnosing reinfarction
198
How long does it take CK-MB levels to return to normal?
48 hours
199
What is the mnemonic to remember the differing causes of a dilative cardiomyopathy?
ABCCCD
200
What is the A of ABCCCD?
chronic alcohol abuse
201
What is the B of ABCCCD?
wet beri beri
202
What is the C's of ABCCCD?
cocaine
chagas
coxsackie
203
What is the D of ABCCCD?
doxorubicin
204
If a hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is found to be genetic, what is the most likely mode of inheritance?
autosomal dominant
205
What protein is found to be defective in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
β-myosin heavy chain
206
What two drugs are used to treat a hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
β-blocker
ND CCBs
207
Which heart pathology would sarcoidosis produce?
restrictive cardiomyopathy
208
Which heart pathology would amyloidosis produce?
restrictive cardiomyopathy
209
In what patient population does endocardial fibroelastosis occur?
children
210
What are two characteristics of Loeffler Syndrome? What cell infiltrates?
endocardial fibroelastosis
Eosinophilc infiltrate
211
What type of cardiac pathology would hemochromatosis produce?
restrictive cardiomyopathy
212
What is orthopnea?
shortness of breath when lying flat
213
What is the most common sign of endocarditis?
fever
214
Does S. aureus affect healthy or damaged valves? Quick onset or slow onset?
healthy
quick
215
Does S. viridans affect healthy or damaged valves? Quick onset or slow onset?
damaged
slow
216
According to First Aid, which two bacteria are most likely to cause a blood culture negative endocarditis?
Coxiella burneti
Bartonella species
217
Which bacteria infects prosthetic heart valves?
S. epidermidis
218
What valve is most often affected during endocaditis?
mitral
219
What valve is most often affected during IV induced endocarditis?
tricuspid
220
What specific group of bacteria causes Rheumatic Fever?
Group A β-hemolytic
221
In order, what heart valves are affected by Rheumatic Fever?
mitral > aortic >> tricuspid
222
What type of pathology occurs on the mitral valve early in the progression of Rheumatic Fever?
Mitral regurgitation
223
What type of pathology occurs on the mitral valve late in the progression of Rheumatic Fever?
mitral stenosis
224
What two cell types is rheumatic fever associated with?
Aschoff bodies
Anitschow cells
225
What is an Aschoff Body?
granulomas with giant cells
226
What is an Anitschkow cells? What kind of chromatin in the nucleus?
enlarged macrophages
caterpillar
227
The titer of what antibody can increase during Rheumatic Fever?
ASO
228
What type of pericarditis is caused by Dressler Syndrome?
fibrinous
229
What type of pericarditis is caused by Viral pericarditis?
Serous pericarditis
230
What type of pericarditis is caused by uremia?
fibrinous pericarditis
231
What type of pericarditis is caused by radiation?
fibrinous
232
What type of pericarditis is caused by non-infectious inflammatory diseases?
serous
233
What causes a purulent endocarditis?
bacterial infections
234
What is pulsus paradoxus?
abnormally large decrease in systolic pressure upon inhalation
235
What is Kussmauls Sign?
large increase in JVD upon inspiration
236
What two parts of the aorta are most effected by Syphillis?
aortic root
ascending aortic arch
237
What is aortic insufficiency?
when aortic valve doesnt close tightly
238
What two cancers are known to metastasize to the heart?
lymphoma and melanoma
239
What is the most common cardiac tumor in adults?
myxoma
240
Where is the heart are myxomas most often located?
left atria
241
How do myxomas most often present?
syncope
242
What is the most common cardiac tumor in children?
Rhabdomyoma
243
What is a Rhabdomyoma associated with?
tuberous sclerosis
244
What is the broad reason as to my a patient can present with Kussmauls Sign seen?
negative intrathoracic pressure cant be transmitted to the heart
245
What two conditions can produce Reynaud Syndrome?
SLE or CREST
246
In what population does a strawberry hemangioma arise? What is their pattern of growth?
infant
grow and then regress
247
In what population does a cherry hemangioma arise? Do these regress?
eldery
no
248
In what two conditions can a pyogenic granuloma arise?
trauma
pregnancy
249
What is a cystic hygroma?
lymphangioma of neck
250
What disease is a cystic hygroma associated with?
Turner Syndrome
251
Where does a glomus tumor present?
in the fingers
252
What type of cells does a glomus tumor originate from?
modified smooth muscle cells
253
What is an angioma?
benign tumor of lymphatic or vascular walls
254
What is angiomatosis?
non-neoplastic proliferation of blood vessels in various organs
255
What bacteria causes Bacillary Angiomatosis? Mimmicks what disease?
Bartonella heneslae
Kaposi Sarcoma
256
In what patient group is Bacillary Angiomatosis most commonly seen?
AIDS patients
257
Where on the body does an angiosarcoma often present/
sun exposed areas
258
What causes a lymphangiosarcoma?
persistent lymph drainage
259
What type of cell is malignant in Kaposi Sarcoma?
endothelial
260
What virus causes Kaposi's?
HHV-8
261
What sex and age is most likely to present with Temporal (Giant Cell) Arteritis?
elderly, female
262
What would be two common clinical complaints of Temporal Arteritis?
unilateral headache
jaw claudication
263
What is the main risk during Temporal Arteritis?
blindness
264
How is Temporal Arteritis treated?
high-dose corticosteroids
265
What sex and age is most likely to present with Takayasu Arteritis?
female, asian, under 40
266
What is Takayasu Arteritis? What type of inflammation?
intimal thickeing of aortic arch and brances
granulomatous
267
How is Takayasu Arteritis treated?
corticosteroids
268
What specific virus has seropositivity in a select few cases of polyarteritis nodosa?
HBV
269
What two vessels are most commonly involved during Polyarteritis Nodosa?
renal and visceral vessels
270
What vessel is generally spared during Polyarteritis Nodosa?
pulmonary vessels
271
What type of hypersensitivity of Polyarteritis Nodosa?
Type three
272
What type of necrosis takes place during Polyarteritis Nodosa?
fibrinoid necrosis
273
What two drugs are used to treat Polyarteritis Nodosa?
corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide
274
Where would a child with Kawasaki have enlarged lymph nodes?
Cervical lymphadenitis
275
What would be most noticeable on physical exam of a child with Kawasaki Disease?
ulcerated oral mucosa or lips
276
What viral infection could Kawasaki Disease be mistaken for?
Coxsackie B!
277
What are the two treatments for Kawasaki disease?
IVIG and aspirin
278
What disease is often present with Buerger Disease?
Raynaud phenomenon
279
What is another name for Wegener Granulomatosis?
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
280
What three locations does Wegener present?
Nasopharynx
lungs
renal
281
What type of Ab is present during Microscopic Polyangiitis?
p-ANCA
282
During Wegener granulomatosis, what takes place in the nasopharynx?
necrotizing vasculitis
283
During Wegener granulomatosis, what type of granuloma is found in the lung?
necrotizing granulomas
284
During Wegener granulomatosis, what process takes place in the kidney?
necrotizing glomerulonephritis
285
During Wegener granulomatosis, what specific proetin does p-ANCA target?
proteinase 3
286
How is Wegener Granulomatosis treated?
cyclophosphamide and corticosteroids
287
What are the two main differences between Wegener Granulomatosis and Microscopic Polyangiitis?
microscopic polyangiitis does not involve the nasopharynx
microscopic polyangiitis has no granulomas
288
Does Microscopic Polyangiitis have granulomas?
no
289
What type of pathology is present during Microscopic Polyangiitis?
necrotizing vasculitis
290
How is Microscopic Polyangiitis treated?
cyclophosphamide and corticosteroids
291
What is Churg-Strauss Syndrome?
vasculitis of small/medium vessels in a person with a Hx of hypersensitivity airway disease
292
What would be noticeable on physical examination of a patient with Churg-Strauss Syndrome?
wrist/foot drop
293
What vasculitis can present with an increase in IgE?
Churg-Strauss
294
What sickness does Henoch-Schonlein Purpura follow?
usually an URI
295
What is the triad of HSP?
Palpable Purpura/Arthritis/GI Pain
296
What is the common variable for the development of HSP?
IgA deposition
297
What kidney damage can be cause by HSP?
IgA nephropathy
298
When are β-blockers contraindicated?
cardiogenic shock
299
How does hydralazine produce vascular smooth muscle relaxation?
increases cGMP
300
What two drugs are often used in combination to treat gestational HTN?
hydralazine and methyldopa
301
Which two CCBs are used in a hypertensive emergency?
clevidipine
nicardipine
302
Do nitrates dilate veins or arteries more?
veins
303
Nifedipine functions similarly to what other cardiac drug?
nitrates
304
What product do statins reduce the synthesis of?
Mevalonate
305
What is the most severe toxicity of statins? Especially in combination with which two drugs?
rhabdomyolysis
niacin and fibrates
306
In what tissue does niacin function primarily?
adipose tissue
307
What process does niacin inhibit? What does this mean for the liver?
lipolysis
decreased VLDL synthesis
308
What drug is used to reduce the flushing effects of niacin?
aspirin
309
What are two side effects of niacin?
hyperglycemia
hyperuricemia
310
What is the MOA of fibrates?
increases activation of LPL
311
What protein do fibrates activate to increase HDL synthesis?
PPAR-α
312
What are the three adverse symptoms of digoxin? Why do these happen?
nausea/vomiting/diarrhea
313
Which cardiac drug can cause blurry vision?
digoxin
314
What electrolyte disturbance can digoxin cause?
hyperkalemia
315
What electrolyte is given to counter digoxin toxicity?
magnesium
316
What three cardiac drugs can produce digoxin toxicity?
Verapamil, Amiodarone, Quinidine
317
By what week of gestation does the heart establish polarity?
4th week
318
What causes fixed splitting?
ASD (left-to-right)
319
What does rapid squatting do to the intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
increase intensity
320
A midsystolic click is indicative of what murmur?
mitral prolapse
321
What causes the midsystolic click of MVP?
chordae tendinae tensing
322
Which rate is faster during a 3rd degree heart block, atria or ventricles?
atria
323
What are two differences between ANP and BNP?
BNP has longer 1/2 life
BNP released from ventricles
324
In the fetal period, what direction does the PDA run?
right-to-left
325
In the neonatal period, what direction does the PDA run?
left-to-right
326
Which two vessels are primarily effected by Fibromuscular Dysplasia?
renal and carotid
327
What type of necrosis takes place during an MI?
coagulative
328
What is used to stain an MI?
tetrazolium
329
What causes a contraction band necrosis?
Repurfusion Injury
330
How long after an MI can Dressler Syndrome present?
several weeks
331
What is the pathological process that drives Dressler Syndrome?
autoimmune
332
What type of heart problem can post-radiation be?
restrictive cardiomyopathy
333
What are three sterile forms of endocarditis?
hypercoaguable
SLE
adenocarinoma producing mucin
334
Does syphillis produce dilation or constriction of aorta?
dilation
335
Microscopic Polyangiitis involves an antibody against what specific antigen?
anti-MPO (myeloperoxidase)
336
What immune cell is present during Churg-Strauss Syndrome?
eosinophil
337
What antibody is present during Churg-Strauss? Against what?
pANCA
myeloperoxidase
338
What three vasculitis disease feature palpable purpura?
microscopic polyangiitis
Churg-Strauss
Henoch Schonlein Purpura
339
What two β-blockers possess ISA?
acebutolol and pindolol
340
What two drugs block the use of adenosine?
caffeine and theophylline
341
Which antiarrhythmic can alter the cornea?
amiodarone
342
What is the shortest acting β1 Blocker?
Esmolol
343
Which electrolyte disturbance effects all Class One antiarrhythmics?
hyperkalemia
344
Which Class One antiarrhythmics can cause HF?
Disopyramide
345
What is the oddly named Class Two antiarrhythmic?
Mexiletine
346
What is the MOA of Neprilysin?
inhibits degradation of ANP and BNP
347
ABVD therapy is for what malignancy?
Hodgkins Lymphoma
348
What is the MOA of Ranolazine?
inhibits late inward sodium current
349
What is the use of Ranolazine?
refractory angina
350
Can nitric oxide directly activate MLCP?
yes
351
A bifid carotid pulse can be found in what disease?
HOCM
352
Which antiarrhythmic can cause hyperprolactinemia? Which one specifically?
CCBs
verapamil
353
What is the pattern of fibrosis for Buergers Disease?
segmental thrombosing vasculitis
354
What two lipid altering drugs are known to cause Gallstones?
fibrates and resins
355
What event causes Raynuad Phenomenon? Treat with?
arteriolar vasospasm
CCBs
356
Which bug can cause Constrictive Pericarditis?
TB
357
What is the most common cause of Infective Endocarditis in developed countries?
MVP
358
What is the most common cause of Infective Endocarditis in developing countries?
Rheumatic fever
359
Which lipid lowering drugs can decrease fot soluble vitamin absorption?
Bile salt resins
360
What are the two main causes of Constrictive Pericarditis?
tuberculosis
surgery
361
A combination of which two drugs improes mortality in patients with CHF?
hydralazine and nitrates
362
Can capillaries thicken during HTN?
no
363
What would a restrictive myopathy show on ECG?
low amplitude voltag
364
Would a RV Infarct produce an increase or decreased PCWP?
decreased
365
What would Aortic Dissection show on Xray?
mediastinal widening
366
What type of angina features disruption of a preexisting atherosclerotic plaque with a thin fibrous cap?
Unstable
367
Endocardial Cushions give rise to what two structures in the heart?
Valves and septa
368
What is the most common valve to be affected by bacterial endocarditis?
Mitral
369
Which papillary muscle has dual blood flow?
antero-lateral
370
Which two arteries are affected by Buergers Disease?
Tibial and Radial
371
Can Buergers extend into the nerves?
yes
372
Which lipid-lowering agent works by preventing cholesterol reabsorption at the small intestinal brush border?
Ezetimibe
373
What structure is usually affected by an ASD?
septum secundum
374
Is an ASD the same as a foramen ovale?
no
missing rather than unfused
375
What causes a Tetralogy of Fallot?
antero-superior displacement of the infundibular septum
376
What is the synthetic BNP?
nesiritide
377
What dictates blood flow to skeletal muscle at rest?
sympathetic tone
378
Which two classes of anti-arrhythmics can prolong QT?
one-eh
three
379
Loss of cardiac contractility occurs within how many seconds of loss of oxygen?
60
380
Would an MVP occur earlier or later with mauevers that decrease venous return?
earlier
381
Is a smaller or larger interval between the opening click and S2 indicate a more severe stenosis?
smaller
382
Would Mitral Stenosis be worse during inspiration or expiration?
expiration
383
What phase of the cardiac cycle has the highest oxygen consumption?
Isovolumic Contraction
384
Does chronic anemia increase or decrease CO? Through what mechanism?
increase
increased venous return
385
What approximates Afterload?
mean arterial pressure
386
What is the oxygen percentage in the fetal umbilical vein?
80%
387
What is the oxygen percentage in the fetal right atria?
65%
388
What happens to the heart during Kartagener?
Aberrant cardiac looping
389
What two structures fuse to form the Membranous Interventricular Septum?
Aorticopulmonary septum
muscular ventricular septum
390
What two things in the heart do the endocardial cushions do?
separate atria from ventricles
contribute to atrial and ventricular septum
391
Which three defects can be seen in the heart due to Neural Crest Migration Failure?
Truncus
Transposition
Tetralogy
392
What specific layer of the aorta weakens during syphillis?
adventitia
