Renal Flashcards
(377 cards)
1
Q
What week does the Pronephros degenerate?
A
4th week
2
Q
What trimester does the mesonephros function as an interim kidney? Does the mesonephros contribute to the male or female reproductive system?
A
1st trimester
male
3
Q
In what week does the mesonephros develop?
A
5th week
4
Q
What week does nephrogenesis finish?
A
36th week
5
Q
What duct is the Ureteric bud developed from?
A
Mesonephric duct
6
Q
From what structure to what structure does the Ureteric bud develop into in the adult kidney?
A
from the collecting duct to the ureter
7
Q
By what week is the ureteric bud fully canalized?
A
10th week
8
Q
The metanephric mesenchyme is responsible for the development of from where to where in the adult kidney?
A
glomerulus to DCT
9
Q
What structure is the most likely to become obstructed during development? Why?
A
uretopelvic junction
last to canalize
10
Q
What are the three causes of Potter Syndrome?
A
ARPKD
Bilateral renal artery agenesis
posterior urethral valves
11
Q
What is the O of POTTER Sequence?
A
Oligohydramnios
12
Q
What is amnion nodosum? What type of epithelium?
A
nodules on the amnion
squamous
13
Q
The association of what two structures is defective during Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney?
A
metanephric mesenchyme
ureteric bud
14
Q
What two components fill the kidney during dysplastic kidney?
A
cysts and cartilage
15
Q
Is dysplastic more common in a bilateral or unilateral pattern?
A
unilateral
16
Q
Do the ureters pass under or over the uterine artery?
A
under
17
Q
Do the ureters pass under or over the ductus deferens?
A
under
18
Q
Does creatinine over-estimate or under-estimate GFR? Why?
A
over-estimate
small amount of creatinine is secreted
19
Q
What equation is used to estimate RPF?
A
PAH clearance
20
Q
What is the equation for Filtration Fraction?
A
GFR/RPF
21
Q
Does low plasma protein increase or decrease the GFR?
A
increase
22
Q
What is the normal osmolality of ECF?
A
290 mOsm/L
23
Q
What is the equation for filtered load?
A
(GFR)([Plasma])
24
Q
At what blood glucose concentration does glucosuria begin to happen?
A
200 mg/dL
25
At what blood glucose concentration do PCT transporters begin to be saturated?
375 mg/dL
26
What two metabolites begin to accumulate in the urine during pregnancy?
glucose and amino acids
27
What is the mode of inheritance for Hartnup Disease?
autosomal recessive
28
Which amino acid specifically is underabsorbed during Hartnup Disease?
tryptophan
29
What are the two locations of defective transporters during Hartnup Disease?
PCT ad enterocytes
30
Which disease does Hartnup disease mimmic?
pellagra
31
What are the two treatments for Hartnup Disease?
high protein diet
niacin
32
What is a major complication in patients on long term dialysis? Where does this manifest?
amyloidosis
carpal tunnell
33
Where in the nephron is NH3 secreted?
PCT
34
Other than aldosterone, how does AII contribute to the reabsorption of sodium?
activates Na+/H+ exchanger
35
Can solutes be reabsorbed in the descending LoH?
no
36
What mechanism are Mg2+ and Ca2+ reabsorbed in the TAL?
paracellular
37
Which ion drives the paracellular reabsorption of Mg2+ and Ca2+ reabsorbed in the TAL?
K+
38
Sodium reabsorption in the collecting duct happens in exchange for what two ions?
Na+ and H+
39
What are the two ENaC blocking drugs?
amiloride and triamterene
40
Which part of the nephron is affected by Fanconi syndrome?
PCT
41
What four metabolites are abnormally excreted during Fanconi Syndrome?
glucose, AAs, bicarb and phosphate
42
Would Fanconi Syndrome result in metabolic alkalosis or metabolic acidosis?
metabolic acidosis
43
Where in the nephron does Barter Syndrome occur?
thick ascending limb
44
What two Renal Tubular Defects are Autosomal Recessive?
Barter
Gittelman
45
What are the three abnormalities that Barter Syndrome produces?
hypokalemia
metabolic alkalosis
hypercalciuria
46
Absorption of what electrolyte is deficient in Gitelman Syndrome? Where in the nephron?
NaCl
DCT
47
What are the two abnormalities that Gitelman Syndrome presents with?
metabolic alkalosis
hypokalemia
48
What is the difference between Barter Syndrome and Gitelman Syndrome?
Gitelman doesnt produce hypercalciuria
49
What is the definition of Liddle Syndrome?
increased reabsorption of NaCl in collecting duct
50
What is the only Renal Tubular Defect that is autosomal dominant?
Liddle Syndrome
51
What are the three abnormalities that present with Liddle Syndrome?
HTN
hypokalemia
metabolic alkalosis
52
What is the treatment for Liddle Syndrome?
Amiloride
53
What ions does aldosterone cause the excretion of?
K+ and hydrogen
54
What does angiotensin II do to the nephron? What segment?
activate Na/H exchanger
PCT
55
How does ANP produce a natriuresis? By what mechanism?
vasodilation of vascular smooth muscle
increases in cGMP
56
What cells of the kidney secrete erythropoietin?
interstitial peritubular cells
57
What part of the nephron completes the final stage of vitamin D synthesis?
proximal tubule cells
58
Which hormone activates 1α-hydroxylase?
PTH
59
What molecule is used to maintain patency of the afferent arteriole?
prostaglandins
60
What two hormones bidn to the principal cells?
ADH and aldosterone
61
What does digitalis do to potassium levels in the blood?
hyperkalemia
62
What does hyperosmolarity do to potassium levels in the blood?
hyperkalemia
63
What does insulin deficiency do to potassium levels in the blood?
hyperkalemia
64
Does Tumor Lysis Syndrome cause hyperkalemia or hypokalemia?
hyperkalemia
65
Does acidosis cause hyperkalemia or hypokalemia?
hyperkalemia
66
Does alkalosis cause hyperkalemia or hypokalemoa?
hypokalemia
67
Are β-blockers known to cause hyperkalemia or hypokalemia?
hyperkalemia
68
What ion disturbance cause U-waves to appear on an EKG?
hypokalemia
69
What ion disturbance cause T-waves to disappear on an EKG?
hypokalemia
70
What does hypocalcemia do to T-wave duration?
hypocalcemia = prolonged T-wave
71
What arrhythmia can hypomagnesia cause?
Torsades
72
Which ion disturbance can cause a wide QRS?
Hyperkalemia
73
What is the mnemonic to remember hypercalcemia?
stones, bones, groans and psychiatric overtones
74
Which ion disturbance can cause weakened DTRs?
hypermagnesia
75
Which ion disturbance can cause hypotension?
hypermagnesia
76
Hypermagnesia can cause which electrolyte disturbance?
hypocalcemia
77
What is the mneomonic for variables that can cause a metabolic acidosis with an increased anion gap?
MUD PILES
78
What is the M of MUD PILES?
methanol poisoning
79
What is the U of MUD PILES?
Uremia
80
What is the D of MUD PILES?
DKA
81
What is the P of MUD PILES? Why does this cause acidosis?
Propylene glycol
propylene glycol is converted into
82
What is the two I's of MUD PILES?
iron tablets of Isoniazid
83
What is the L of MUD PILES?
Lactic acidosis
84
What is the E of MUD PILES?
Etyhlene glycol
85
What is the S of MUD PILES?
Salicylates (late)
86
What is the Mnemonic to remember the cause of acidosis with a normal anion gap?
HARD ASS
87
What is the H of HARD ASS?
Hyperalimentation
88
What is the A of HARD ASS?
Addisons disease
89
What is the R of HARD ASS?
renal tubular acidosis
90
What is the D of HARD ASS?
Diarrhea
91
What is the A of HARD ASS?
Acetozolamide
92
What is the two S's of HARD ASS?
Spironolactone
Saline infusion
93
Why does Addisons disease cause acidosis?
lack of aldosterone leads to accumulation of H+
94
Why does spironolactone lead to an acidosis?
lack of aldosterone to stimulate Na+ reabsorption and H+ secretion
95
What are the two symporters located on α-intercalated cells?
luminal H+ ATPase
luminal H+/K+ exchanger
96
What is the defect during Type 1 Renal Tubular Acidosis effect?
α-intercalated fail to secrete H+
97
Would Type 1 Renal Tubular Acidosis cause acidosis or alkalosis?
acidosis
98
Is Type 1 Renal Tubular Acidosis associated with hypokalemia or hyperkalemia?
Hypokalemia
99
What type of kidney stones would Type 1 Renal Tubular Acidosis be at an increased risk of developing? Why?
Calcium phosphate
urine pH > 5.5 precipitates CaPO4
100
What is the mnemonic to remember the causes of Type 1 Renal Tubular Acidosis?
the four A's
101
What are the four A's of Renal Tubular Acidosis?
Amphotericin b
Analgesics
multiple myeloma light chAins
congenital Anomalies
102
What is the cause of Type 2 Renal Tubular Acidosis? What is the pH of the urine?
congenital defect in the PCT to reabsorb bicarb
103
Does Type 2 Renal Tubular Acidosis result in a metabolic acidosis or alkalosis?
acidosis
104
Is Type 2 Renal Tubular Acidosis associated with hyperkalemia or hypokalemia?
hypokalemia
105
What type of cast would be produced during glomerulonephritis?
RBC
106
Which type of cast would be present during kidney rejection?
WBC cast
107
Which type of cast would be present during nephrotic syndrome?
fatty cast
108
Which type of cast would be present during Acute Tubular Necrosis?
brown, granular cast
109
What causes a hypercellular glomeruli?
mesangial proliferation
110
Would PSGN be nephrotic syndrome or nephritic syndrome?
nephritic
111
Would amyloidosis produce a nephritic or nephrotic syndrome?
nephrotic
112
Where in the kidney does amyloidosis deposit? What is the result?
mesangial cells
mesangial sclerosis
113
Would FSGS produce a nephritic or nephrotic syndrome?
nephrotic
114
Would Berger Disease produce nephritic or nephrotic syndrome?
nephritic
115
Would Diabetic Glomerulonephropathy produce a nephritic or nephrotic syndrome?
nephrotic
116
Would minimal change disease produce a nephritic or nephrotic syndrome?
nephrotic
117
Would Alport Syndrome produce a nephritic or nephrotic syndrome?
nephrotic
118
Why would nephrotic syndrome produce edema?
loss of albumin
119
Why would nephrotic syndrome produce a hypercoaguable state?
loss of antithrombin III
120
Why would nephrotic syndrome produce an increased risk of infection ?
loss of immunoglobulins in urine
121
How is FSGS similar to MCD?
effacement of foot processes
122
What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in AAs?
FSGS
123
What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in Hispanics?
FSGS
124
What are the three common causes of FSGS?
HIV
heroin
sickle cell disease
125
What is the difference between FSGS and MCD regarding their treatment?
FSGS doesnt respond well to steroids
126
What disease would be the nephrotic presentation of SLE?
Membranous Nephropathy
127
'Spike and Dome' correlates to what renal disease?
Membranous Nephropathy
128
Membranous Nephropathy most commonly effects which patient group?
Caucasians
129
Which antibody can drive Membranous Nephropathy?
anti-PLA2 receptor
130
What are the two classic drugs that can cause Membranous Nephropathy?
NSAIDs and Penicillamine
131
HBV and HCV cause what kidney disease?
Membranous Nephropathy
132
SLE causes what type of nephrotic syndrome?
Memrbanous nephropathy
133
Solid tumors causes what type of nephrotic syndrome?
membranous nephropathy
134
Lipid inside of proximal tubule cells is indicative of what renal disease?
Minimal Change Disease
135
Hodgkin disease can cause what type of kidney pathology?
Minimal Change Disease
136
What is the stain for amyloidosis?
Congo red
137
Amyloidosis of the kidney is associated with what three disease?
TB
rheumatoid
multiple myeloma
138
Which kidney disease has Type I and Type II?
Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis
139
What is the definition of Type I Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis?
subendothelial immune complex deposition
140
What is the definition of Type II Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis?
intramembranous immune complex deposition
141
Is MPGN nephritic, nephrotic or both?
both
142
What are the two associations with Type I MPGN?
HBV and HCV
143
What is the associative cause of Type II MPGN?
C3 nephritic factor
144
What cell is effected during Diabetic Glomerulonephropathy?
Mesangial cells
145
What two happenings take place to mesangial cells durnig Diabetic Glomerulosclerosis?
expansion
sclerosis
146
What three proteins deposit during PSGN?
IgG/IgM/C3
147
What does PSGN look like on EM?
Subepithelial Humps
148
What are the three common presenting symptoms during PSGN?
HTN
hematuria
periorbital edema
149
What happens to complement levels during PSGN?
decrease
150
What happens to anti-DNase B titers during PSGN?
increase
151
What kidney disease would Goodpasture Disease present with?
RPGN
152
What kidney disease would Wegener Disease present with?
RPGN
153
What kidney disease would Goodpasture Disease present with?
RPGN
154
What kidney disease would Microscopic Polyangiitis Disease present with?
RPGN
155
What kidney disease would Churg-Strauss present with?
RPGN
156
What are the two most common presenting symtpoms of Goodpasture Syndrome?
Hematuria
Hemoptysis
157
Autoantibodies in Goodpasture Syndrome are produced against what two structures?
Glomerular BM
Alveolar BM
158
What two antibodies are present during Wegeners Polyangiitis?
PR3-ANCA/c-ANCA
159
What two antibodies are present during Microscopic Polyangiitis?
p-ANCA/MPO-ANCA
160
What are the two causes of Diffuse Proliferative Glomerulonephritis?
SLE or MPGN
161
Which kidney disease is the most common cause of death in patients with SLE?
Diffuse Proliferative Glomerulonephritis
162
What kidney disease presents with 'Crescents'?
RPGN
163
What are three things these crescents composed of?
macrophages and fibrin and plasma proteins
164
What is the definition of Berger Syndrome?
IgA induced nephropathy
165
Where in the nephron does IgA accumulate during Berger Disease?
Mesangium
166
What disease could produce Berger Syndrome?
Henoch-Schonlein-Purpura
167
What are the two reasons Berger Syndrome could flare?
GI or lung infections
168
What type of collagen mutated in Alport Syndrome? Which chain?
type four
α-5
169
What is the most common mode of inheritance for Alport Syndrome?
X-linked
170
What are the three most common presenting symptoms of Alport Syndrome?
glomerulonephritis
Sensory hearing loss
Visual disturbances
171
Which calcium containing kidney stone precipitates at low pH?
calcium oxalate
172
Which calcium containing kidney stone precipitates at high pH?
Calcium phosphate
173
What type of kidney stone would ethylene glycol cause the formation of?
calcium oxalate
174
What type of kidney stones would Crohns disease produce?
Calcium oxalate
175
What type of kidney stone would excessive Vitamin C produce?
calcium oxalate
176
What are the two treatments for calcium kidney stones?
thiazides and citrate
177
Are calcium oxalate stones radiopaque or radiolucent?
radiopaque
178
Are ammonium magnesium phosphate stones radiopaque or radiolucent?
radiopaque
179
Does ammonium magnesium phosphate precipitate at high pH or low pH?
high pH
180
What two bugs clasically cause AMP stones?
Proteus mirabalis and Klebsiella
181
Which Staph species is urease positive? What kind of kidney stone could this cause?
saprophyticus
AMP
182
Staghorn caliculi are primarily composed of what constituent?
AMP
183
Do uric acid stones precipitate at a high or low pH?
low pH
184
What is the mnemonic to remember all the protease positive bugs?
BacK PPUNCHeS
185
What is the B of BacK PPUNCHeS?
bacteroides
186
What is the K of BacK PPUNCHeS?
klebsiella
187
What are the two P's of BacK PPUNCHeS?
Proteus
Providencia
188
What is the U of BacK PPUNCHeS?
Ureaplasma
189
What is the N of BacK PPUNCHeS?
Nocardia
190
What is the C of BacK PPUNCHeS?
Cryptococcus neoformans
191
What is the H of BacK PPUNCHeS?
H. pylori
192
What is the S of BacK PPUNCHeS?
Staph saprophyticus
193
Are uric acid stones radiopaque or radiolucent?
radiolucent
194
What are the two risk factors for uric acid stones?
low urine volume
hot/arid climates
195
What is the treatment for uric acid stones?
alkalinization of the urine
196
Are uric acid stones visible on CT?
yes
197
Are uric acid stones visible on ultra-sound?
yes
198
Do cystine stones precipitate at low pH or high pH?
low pH
199
Are cystine stones radiopaque or radiolucent?
radiopaque
200
What drug is used to diagnose cystine stones?
sodium nitroprusside
201
What is the treatment for Cystin Kidney Stones?
alkalinization of the urine
202
What is the most common cause of hydronephrosis?
urinary tract obstruction
203
Other than obstruction, what are two potential causes of hydronephrosis?
retroperitoneal fibrosis
Vesicouretal reflex
204
Where in the kidney does renal cell carcinoma arise from?
proximal tubule cells
205
What is the most common patient presentation demographic for the development of renal cell carcinoma?
older male
206
What are two kidney specific presentations of renal cell carcinoma?
hematuria and polycythemia
207
What are the two most common sites of renal cell carcinoma metastasis?
lung and bone
208
What type of cell is an oncocyte?
epithelial cell
209
What organelle does an oncocyte contain a large amount of?
mitochondria
210
What is a renal oncocytoma?
benign epithelial tumor of kidney
211
What is the most common presentation of a renal oncocytoma?
painless hematuria
212
What is the treatment for a renal oncocytoma?
nephrectomy
213
What are the four causes of transitional cell carcinoma?
phenacetin
smoking
Aniline dyes
cyclophosphamide
214
What is the industrial risk factor for a transitional cell carcinoma?
aniline dyes
215
Does squamous cell bladder cancer present with painless hematuria or painful hematuria?
painless hematuria
216
Where would a person infected with Schistosoma hematobium live?
middle east
217
What type of bladder cancer does Schistosoma haematobium cause?
squamous cell
218
What type of bladder cancer does chronic cystitis cause?
squamous cell carcinoma
219
What type of bladder cancer does long-standing nephrolithiasis cause?
squamous cell carcinoma
220
What is the most common bacteria to cause cystitis?
E. coli
221
Other than E. coli, what bacteria can cause cystitis in young, sexually active women?
S. saprophyticus
222
Which virus can cause hemorrhagic cystitis ?
adenovirus
223
What bug would give the urine an ammonia scent during cystitis?
Proteus mirabilis
224
What enzyme would be present in the urine of a person suffering from acute cystitis?
leukocyte esterase
225
Do nitrites appear for gram positive or gram negative organisms?
gram negative
226
If a sterile pyuria is found, what two organisms should be considered?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Chlamydia trachomatis
227
Pyelonephritis effects which part of the kidney?
cortex
228
What disease can pyelonephritis transition to?
renal papillary necrosis
229
What type of renal infection can pregnancy cause?
pyelonephritis
230
What two conditions are most often met for acute pyelonephritis to progress to chronic pyelonephritis?
obstruction
vesiculouretal reflex
231
Which immune cell in the urine is pathogonomic for acute interstitial nephritis?
eosinophil
232
How long does it take for acute interstitial nephritis to develop after drug insult?
1-2 weeks
233
Which four types of drugs can produce Acute Interstitial Nephritis 1-2 weeks after consumption?
penicillins
rifampin
sulfonamides
diuretics
234
What drugs can produce Acute Interstitial Nephritis months after consumption?
NSAIDs
235
What are three common presenting symptoms for Acute Interstitial Nephritis?
fever, rash and hematuria
236
What is the main cause of Diffuse Cortical Necrosis?
deficient arterial perfusion
237
What two causes contribute to Diffure Cortical Necrosis?
vasospasm and DIC
238
What obstetric complication can cause Diffuse Cortical Necrosis?
Abruptio placentae
239
What are two characteristics of the casts seen during Acute Tubular Necrosis?
granular and brown
240
What electrolyte disturbance would be seen during the initial stage of Acute Tubular Necrosis?
Hyperkalemia
241
Would Acute Tubular Necrosis produce metabolic alkalosis or metabolic acidosis?
acidosis
242
Which electrolyte disturbance could a patient with Acute Tubular Necrosis present with if they are in the recovery phase?
hypokalemia
243
Which chemotherapy drug is particularly nephrotoxic?
Cisplatin
244
Which class of antibiotics are known to cause Acute Tubular Necrosis?
Aminoglycosides
245
Which metal is known to cause Acute Tubular Necrosis?
lead
246
Which kidney pathology do myoglobinuria and hemoglobinuria cause?
Acute Tubular Necrosis
247
Which drug is known to cause Renal Papillary Necrosis?
long-term phenacetin
248
In the normal kidney, is BUN or creatinine reabsorbed?
BUN
249
What causes Prerenal Azotemia?
decreased RBF
250
What are the two main causes of Intrinsic Renal Failure?
Acute Tubular Necrosis
RPGN
251
What is cause of post-renal azotemia?
ostruction
252
What chromosome is PKD1 on? PKD2?
PKD1 = 16
PKD2 = 4
253
What are three associtions with ADPKD?
berry aneuryms
mitral valve prolapse
benign hepatic cysts
254
What liver disease is ARPKD associated with? Leading to?
congenital hepatic fibrosis
portal HTN
255
What can neonatal ARPKD lead to?
Potter Sequence
256
What is the main use for osmotic diuretics?
decrease intracranial pressure
257
Would acetazolamide cause the urine to become acidic or basic?
basic
258
Whould acetazolamide cause acidosis or alkalosis?
acidosis
259
What type of acidosis would Acetazolamide cause?
hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
260
What type of metabolic toxicity would Acetazolamide cause?
hyperammonemia
261
Which of the four Syndromes can WIlsons Disease cause?
Fanconi Syndrome
262
Expired tetracyclines are notorious for causing what disease?
Fanconi syndrome
263
Where in the nephron does Vitamin D cause reabsorption of Calcium?
distal convoluted tubule
264
Where in the nephron does Vitamin D cause decreased reabsorption of phosphate?
proximal convoluted tubule
265
What are the three enzymes involved in Phase I metabolism?
p450
Alcohol Dehydrogenase
MAO
266
What is the mnemonic to remember the causes of hyperkalemia?
DO Insulin LAβ
267
What is the menmonic to remember the four manifestations of hypercalcemia?
Stones, Boans, Groans and psychiatric overTONES
268
What are the two metabolic defects associated with Renal Tubular Acidosis?
Hyperchloremic
metabolic acidosis
269
What is the definition of Renal Tubular Acidosis?
accumulation of acid in the body caused by inability of kidney to properly acidify the urine
270
What does the pH of the urine have to be during Type I Renal Tubular Acidosis?
> 5.5
271
What happens to the urine during Type 2 Renal Tubular Acidosis?
acidified by α-intercalated cells
272
What type of renal tubular acidosis has an increased risk for hypophosphatemic rickets?
Type 2
273
Which of the four renal syndromes can cause Type 2 Renal Tubular Acidosis?
Fanconi
274
Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors can cause what type of Renal Tubular Acidosis?
Type 2
275
What are the three etiologies of Type 4 Renal Tubular Acidosis?
Hypoaldosteronism
aldosterone resistance
K+ sparing diuretics
276
Would Type 4 Renal Tubular Acidosis result in hyperkalemia or hypokalemia? pH or urine?
Hyperkalemia
pH
277
Synthesis of what compound is deficient in Renal Tubular Acidosis? What causes the impairment? Where in the nephron?
Ammonia
hyperkalemia
PCT
278
What are the two most common causes of angiodysplasia?
vWF and ESRD
279
Would patients with Nephrotic Syndrome present with hyperlipidemia or hypolipidemia?
hyperlipedemia
280
What type of specific kidney damage would interferon therapy induce?
FSGS
281
What is the cause of Primary Amyloidosis in the kidney?
multiple myeloma
282
What is the general cause of Secondary Amyloidosis in the kidney?
Autoimmne disease
283
Which specific kidney disease would a decrease in levels of circulating nephritic factor be indicative of?
Type II Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis
284
What type of edema is produced during Nephrotic Syndrome? Nephritic?
Nephrotic = Systemic
Nephritic = periorbital
285
What immune cell damages the kidney during nephritic syndrome?
neutrophil
286
Which kidney disease would produce increase in anti-DNase B titers?
PSGN
287
Which kidney disease would produce a decrease in complement levels?
PSGN
288
Which two kidney disease can present with both nephritic and nephrotic syndrome?
RPGN
DPGN
289
What are the two main causes of Diffuse Proliferative Glomerulonephritis?
SLE or MPGN
290
What are the two components of the immune complex during DPGN?
IgG and C3
291
What are the five drugs that can cause hyperuricemia?
Furesomide
Thiazide
Niacin
Cyclosporin
Pyrizinamide
292
Acidic pH causes what type of kidney stone to form?
uric acid
293
What is the mnemonic for protease positive bugs?
BacK PPUNCHES
294
What is the B of BacK PPUNCHES
Bacteroides
295
What is the K of BacK PPUNCHES
Klebsiella
296
What are the P's of BacK PPUNCHES?
Proteus
Providencia
297
What is the U of BacK PPUNCHES
Ureaplasma
298
What is the N of BacK PPUNCHES
Nocardia
299
What is the C of BacK PPUNCHES
Cryptococcus
300
What is the H of BacK PPUNCHES
H. pylori
301
What is the S of BacK PPUNCHES
S. saprophyticus
302
What are the two intracellular accumulations of Renal Cell Carcinoma?
lipid and carbohydrates
303
The three paraneoplastic syndromes associated with Renal Cell Carcinoma are driven by what three cytokines?
EPO
ACTH
PTHrp
304
What two diseases produce pancreatic cysts?
VHL and ADPKD
305
Why can chronic kidney disease produce a coagulopathy?
uremia doesnt allow platelets to adhere properly
306
What parts of the kidney are affected by Chronic Pyelonephritis?
cortex and medulla
307
Which five OTC drugs are notorious for causing Acute Tubular Necrosis?
Phenacetin
Acetominophen
Caffeine
Codeine
Aspirin
308
What are the chemical reactions that take place during the Sodium Nitroprusside test for cystinuria?
cyanide converts cystien to cysteine
nitroprusside turns cysteine purple
309
What molecule do loop diuretics stimulate the synthesis of?
PGE
310
Where are loops toxic outside of the kidney?
ototoxicity
311
What drug is used in the place of loop diuretics in the patients with sulfa allergies?
Ethacyrinic acid
312
What does HTZ do to lipid levels?
hyperlipidemia
313
What does HTZ do to glucose levels?
hyperglycemia
314
What does HTZ do to uric levels?
hyperuricemia
315
What does HTZ do to blood calcium levels levels?
hypercalcemia
316
Other than amiloride, what drug is the ENaC blocker?
Triamterene
317
Hyperaldosteronism could be caused by what type of diuretic?
K+ sparing diuretics
318
Would spironolactone potentially cause acidosis or alkalosis?
acidosis
319
Would hyperkalemia cause acidosis or alkalosis? Why?
acidosis
high activity of H+/K+ exchanger
320
Would loops and thiazides acidosis or alkalosis? Why?
alkalosis
volume contraction causing excess aldosterone release
321
Would a low potassium state be more likely to produce acidosis or alkalosis?
alkalosis
322
In what renal situation situation would ACE Inhibitors be contraindicated?
bilateral renal artery stenosis
323
What four diseases are associated with Horse Shoe Kidney?
Patau
Edward
Down
Turner
324
What is the normal percentage for filtration fraction?
20%
325
Where does PTH promote the reabsorption of Calcium in the kidney? What antiporter is used?
DCT
Na+/Ca2+
326
What does Angiotensin Two inhibit?
reflex bradycardia
327
Which arteriole of the kidney would constrict during NSAID overdose?
afferent
328
What type of Renal Tubular Acidosis would chemical damage to proximal convoluted tubule cells cause?
Type 2
329
What is recombinant BNP?
Nesiritdie
330
What kind of cancer does Analgesic Nephropathy often cause?
urothelial carcinoma of renal pelvis
331
In what patient population are pacreatic concretions seen?
alcoholics
332
What is the posttranslational modification to mallory bodies?
poly-ubiquitinated
333
What are the two causes of mixed hyperbilirubinemia?
hepatitis and cirrhosis
334
What are the two electrolyte activities performed by β-intercalated cells?
absorb bicarb
secrete chloride
335
Would aldosterone antagonists produce acidosis or alkalosis?
acidosis
336
What type of epithelium lines the cysts during ADPKD?
cuboid epithelium
337
What kidney disease has subendothelial deposits on EM?
DPGN
338
What occurs first during Goodpastures Syndrome, pulmonary or renal symptoms?
pulmonary
339
Why can sarcoidosis cause hypercalcemia?
macrophages can activate 1α-hydroxylase
340
What molecule gives the glomerulus a negative charge? What part of the nephron?
heparan sulfate
basement membrane
341
What two features does a child develop who has untreated CKD?
growth retardation
developmental delay
342
Where in the nephron does PTH function to promote phosphate excretion? Which antiporter?
PCT
Na+/PO4
343
Where in the nephron does medullary hypertonicity promote water absorption?
descending LoH
344
Sodium reabsorption is coupled to the loss of which two ions? Where in the kidney does this occur?
potassium and H+
collecing tubule
345
High sodium flow cause the reabsorption of what ion? What syndrome is this seen?
Ca2+
Gitelman Syndrome
346
What does hypoosmolarity do to potassium levels in the blood?
hypokalemia
347
What kidney disease presents with 'Tram-Track' appearance?
Type I MPGN
ingrowth of mesangium
348
Are angiomyolipomas monoclonal or polyclonal?
polyclonal
349
What is the most adverse effect of streptokinase therapy?
cerebral hemorrhage
350
Why could a patient taking acetozolamide present with encephalopathy?
alkaline urine promotes neutral charge of ammonia and consequent reabsorption
351
What drug can abolish the hypertonicity of the medulla?
acetozolamide
352
Would hyperkalemia cause acidosis or alkalosis? Why?
acidosis
electrolyte exchange
353
What is the equation for RBF?
RBF = RPF/(1-Hct)
354
What type of epithelium is found in the thin descending LoH?
squamous
355
Aldosterone upregulates which two ion transporters? Where are they located?
K+ channels = principal cells
H+ ATPase = intercalated cells
356
Why do β-blockers cause hyperkalemia?
antagonize Na+/K+ ATPase
357
Metastatic calcifications are primarily contributed to by what electrolyte disturbance ?
Hyperphosphatemia
358
Why would metabolic acidosis cause a low pCO2?
increased respiration rate
359
Why would metabolic alkalosis cause a high pCO2?
decreased respiratory rate
360
During respiratory acidosis would pCO2 and bicarb be high or low?
high pCO2
high HCO3
361
During respiratory alkalosis would pCO2 and bicarb be high or low?
low pCO2
low HCO3
362
What drug is used to treat Serotonin Syndrome? What receptor does this drug antagonize?
Cyproheptadine
5HT2 antagonist
363
What are the two drugs for Hairy Cell Leukemia?
cladribine
pentostatin
364
Peyroinne Disease features fibrosis within what structure?
tunica albuginea
365
What does radiolabeled inulin measure?
extracellular volume
366
Of the ECF, how much is plasma? How much is interstitial fluid?
plasma = 1/4
interstitial = 3/4
367
What is used to estimate ERPF?
clearance of PAH
368
What causes a duplex collecting system?
duplication or ureteric bud
369
Does hypermagnesia cause hypo or hyper calcium?
hypo
370
Can malignant HTN cause RBC casts?
yes bitch
371
Does CD55 block C3 or C9?
C3
372
Does CD59 block C3 or C9?
C9
373
Does Buergers Disease present in 2/3 days or 2/3 weeks?
2/3 days
374
Does PSGN present in 2/3 days or 2/3 weeks?
2/3 weeks
375
Would Type Two MPGN have high or low C3 levels?
low
376
Does a Neuroblastoma or Wilms tumor cross the midline?
Neurolastoma
377
Can bacterial toxins from pyelonephritis cause preterm labor?
yes
