INSTRUMENT FLYING HANDBOOK AND FAIR/AIM

Question 1

Holding pattern timing

Answer 1

At or below 14,000’ MSL – 1 minute

Above 14,000’ MSL – 1.5 minutes

Question 2

Max holding speeds

Answer 2

Up to 6000’ MSL – 200 KIAS

6001’-14,000’ MSL – 230 KIAS

Above 14,000’ MSL – 265 KIAS

May be restricted to 175 KIAS on some inst. approach procedures.

At Airforce fields – 310 KIAS*

At Navy fields – 230 KIAS* *unless otherwise depicted

Question 3

Standard IFR takeoff minimums

Answer 3

1-2 engines: 1 SM visibility

More than 2 engines: ½ SM visibility

Question 4

Aircraft approach speed A

Answer 4

<90

Question 5

Aircraft approach speed B

Answer 5

91-120

Question 6

Aircraft approach speed C

Answer 6

121-140

Question 7

Aircraft approach speed D

Answer 7

141-165

Question 8

Aircraft approach speed E

Answer 8

>165

Question 9

Standard circling radius A

Answer 9

1.3

Question 10

Standard circling radius B

Answer 10

1.5

Question 11

Standard circling radius C

Answer 11

1.7

Question 12

Standard circling radius D

Answer 12

2.3

Question 13

Standard circling radius E

Answer 13

4.5

Question 14

Expanded circling radius A

Answer 14

1.3 at 1000’ or less

Question 15

Expanded circling radius B

Answer 15

1.7 at 1000’ or less

Question 16

Expanded circling radius C

Answer 16

2.7 at 1000’ or less

Question 17

Expanded circling radius D

Answer 17

3.6 at 1000’ or less

Question 18

Expanded circling radius E

Answer 18

4.5 at 1000’ or less

Question 19

Runway environment

Answer 19

a. The approach light system, except you may descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone only if the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also visible and identifiable.
b. The threshold.
c. The threshold markings.
d. The threshold lights.
e. The runway end identifier lights.
f. The visual approach slope indicator.
g. The touchdown zone or its markings.
h. The touchdown zone lights.
i. The runway or runway markings.
j. The runway lights.

Question 20

When must VOR checks be made?

Answer 20

every 30 calendar days

Question 21

What are the VOR checks and their allowable errors?

Answer 21

VOT: ±4°

Ground checkpoint: ±4°

Airborne check: ±6°

Dual check: ±4°

Question 22

Full scale deflection on a VOR

Answer 22

10°

Question 23

Localizer fan

Answer 23

35° out to 10 NM then 10° out to 18 NM

Question 24

Outer Marker distance and morse code

Answer 24

4-7 miles out - should intercept the GS here

Blue - - -

Question 25

Middle Marker distance and morse code

Answer 25

approx. 3,500 ft from the runway/200 ft above touchdown zone elevation.

Where GS meets DH.

Amber . - . -

Question 26

Inner marker distance and morse code

Answer 26

Btwn the MM and the runway threshold.

Where the GS meets the DH on a CAT II

White . . .

Question 27

RVSM

Answer 27

Reduced vertical separation minima or minimum (RVSM) is the reduction of the standard vertical separation required between aircraft flying between FL290 (29,000 ft) and FL410 (41,000 ft) inclusive, from 2,000 feet to 1,000 feet (or between 8,850 and 12,500 m from 600 m to 300 m)

Question 28

FIH Lost Comm

Answer 28

Heading: Assigned (Your last assigned heading)
 Vectored (If nothing is assigned fly your last vector)
 Expected (If no vector fly what was expected in your clearance)


Filed (Finally fly what you filed)

Altitude: Fly the HIGHEST of the following:

Assigned altitude


Minimum

Expected

Question 29

Aldis Lamp

Steady Green

Answer 29

On Ground: cleared for takeoff

In Flight: cleared to land

Question 30

Aldis Lamp

Flashing Green

Answer 30

On Ground: Cleared to taxi

In Flight: return for landing (to be followed by a steady green at the proper time)

Question 31

Aldis Lamp

Steady Red

Answer 31

On Ground: Stop

In Flight: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

Question 32

Aldis Lamp

Flashing Red

Answer 32

On Ground: Taxi clear of landing area or runway in use

In Flight: Airport unsafe - do not land

Question 33

Aldis Lamp

Flashing White

Answer 33

On Ground: Return to starting point on airport

In Flight: N/A

Question 34

Aldis Lamp

Alternating Red and Green

Answer 34

On Ground: Exercise extreme caution

In Flight: Exercise extreme caution

Question 35

When a radio beacon is used in conjunction with the Instrument Landing System markers, it is called a ___.

Answer 35

Compass Locator

Question 36

Voice transmissions are made on radio beacons unless the letter “__” (without voice) is included in the class designator

Answer 36

W

Question 37

NDBs are subject to disturbances that may result in erroneous bearing information. Such disturbances result from such factors as ___. At night, radio beacons are vulnerable to interference from ___.

Answer 37

lightning, precipitation static, etc distant stations

Question 38

VORs are subject to ___ restrictions, and the range varies proportionally to the ___ of the receiving equipment.

Answer 38

line-of-sight

altitude

Question 39

The accuracy of course alignment of the VOR is excellent, being generally plus or minus __ degree.

Answer 39

1

Question 40

VOT test

Answer 40

tune in the VOT frequency on your VOR receiver. With the CDI centered, the omni−bearing selector should read 0 degrees with the to/from indication showing “from” or the omni−bearing selector should read 180 degrees with the to/from indication showing “to.”

Question 41

VORTAC, which provides three individual services: VOR __, TACAN __ and TACAN __ at one site.

Answer 41

VOR azimuth, TACAN azimuth, and TACAN distance

Question 42

TACAN Reliable signals may be received at distances up to __ NM at line−of−sight altitude with an accuracy of better than __ mile or __ percent of the distance, whichever is greater.

Answer 42

199 NM

1/2 mile

3%

Question 43

ILS system can be divided into 3 parts:

Answer 43

(a) Guidance information: localizer, glide slope;
(b) Range information: marker beacon, DME;
(c) Visual information: approach lights, touchdown and centerline lights, runway lights.

Question 44

The localizer signal is transmitted at the ___ end of the runway. It is adjusted for a course width of (full scale fly−left to a full scale fly−right) of ___ feet at the runway threshold.

Answer 44

far

700 ft

Question 45

The glide slope transmitter is located between __ feet and __ feet from the approach end of the runway (down the runway) and offset __ to __ feet from the runway centerline. It transmits a glide path beam __ degrees wide (vertically).

Answer 45

750 and 1250

250 to 650

1.4

Question 46

The glide slope is normally usable to the distance of __ NM.

Answer 46

10

Question 47

ATC issues control instructions to avoid interfering operations within ILS critical areas at controlled airports during the hours the Airport Traffic Control Tower (ATCT) is in operation as follows: (a) Weather Conditions. Less than ceiling __ feet and/or visibility __ miles. (1) Localizer Critical Area. Except for aircraft that land, exit a runway, depart or miss approach, vehicles and aircraft are not authorized in or over the critical area when an arriving aircraft is between the ILS final approach fix and the airport. Additionally, when the ceiling is less than __ feet and/or the visibility is RVR __ or less, vehicle and aircraft operations in or over the area are not authorized when an arriving aircraft is inside the ILS __.

Answer 47

800 ft

2 miles

200 ft

2000 MM

Question 48

ALS configuration of signal lights starting at the landing threshold and extending into the approach area __to__ feet for precision runways __to__ feet for non precision runways

Answer 48

2400-3000

1400-1500

Question 49

What is the runway width if you see 4 stripes?

Answer 49

60 feet

Question 50

What is the runway width if you see 6 stripes?

Answer 50

75 ft

Question 51

What is the runway width if you see 8 stripes?

Answer 51

100 ft

Question 52

What is the runway width if you see 12 stripes?

Answer 52

150 ft

Question 53

What is the runway width if you see 16 stripes?

Answer 53

200 ft

Question 54

Displaced Threshold: what can and cannot do on it?

Answer 54

available for takeoffs in either direction and for landing rollout from opposite direction

cannot land on it

Question 55

Describe REIL

Answer 55

consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold.

Question 56

Mode C Required Airspace

Answer 56

(from the surface to 10,000’ MSL) within 30 NM radius of the primary airport(s) for which a Class B is designated, is depicted by a solid magenta line.

Mode C is required, but not depicted for operations within and above all Class C up to 10,000’ MSL.

Question 57

What is a runway hotspot?

Answer 57

a location on an aerodrome movement area with a history or potential risk of collision or runway incursion and where heightened attention is necessary

Question 58

What is this?

Answer 58

ILS critical area hold short

Question 59

What is RVR (runway visual range)

Answer 59

represents the horizontal distance a pilot sees down the runway from the approach end

Question 60

What are the 2 types of Departure Procedures?

Answer 60

ODP (obstacle departure procedure)

SID (standard instrument departure)

Question 61

What is a diverse departure?

Answer 61

cross the departure end of the runway at 35 ft, climbing to 400 ft before making an initial turn, and maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200 ft/nm

Question 62

When does a departure procedure have to be an ODP?

Answer 62

if an obstacle penetrates the 40:1 Obstacle Clearance Surface (OCS)

If no obstacle penetrates this surface, the standard 200 ft/NM climb gradient provides a minimum of 48 ft/NM of clearance

Question 63

If a departure is an ODP, what are some ways the departure will be designed in order to allow the pilot to avoide the obstacle?

Answer 63

1. incorporate a climb gradient greater than 200 ft/NM
2. increase the standard takeoff minimums to allow aircraf to “see and avoid” the obstacles
3. standard climb of 200 ft/NM with a specified reduced takeoff length
4. combination of the above and a specific departure route

Question 64

What is a low, close-in obstacle?

What are some ways a pilot might avoid one?

Answer 64

obstacles that are located within 1 NM of the DER and penetrate the 40:1 OCS

see it and maneuver around it, early liftoff and climb performace allow you to cross over it, if you cant see it then preplan a route to execute immediately after takeoff to avoid it

Question 65

How do you know a departure is an ODP?

Answer 65

includes the word “Obstacle” in the parentheses in the title

Question 66

Can an ODP be established at an airport that does not have instrument approach procedures?

Answer 66

No

Question 67

Is the primary goal of a SID obstacle protection or reducing ATC/pilot workload?

Answer 67

reducing ATC/pilot workload

Question 68

A clearance for a SID which contains published altitude restrictions may be issued using the phraseology “___”

Answer 68

“climb via”

Question 69

When is a Visual Climb Over Airport departure required?

Answer 69

when obstacles farther than 3 SM from the airport require a climb gradient of more than 200 ft/NM

Question 70

How wide are airways?

Answer 70

8 NM

Question 71

What is the lowest altitude a Victor Airway can be?

Answer 71

1200 ft AGL

Question 72

What altitudes do Jet Routes use?

Answer 72

FL180 to FL450

Question 73

2-10 in instrument procedures handbook

Answer 73

2-10 in instrument procedures handbook