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NATOPS > NATOPS > Flashcards

NATOPS Flashcards

1
Q

Max Normal Takeoff weight

A

164k

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2
Q

Maximum symmetrical maneuver load and airspeed in Area B

A

2.5 Gs up to Vh

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3
Q

Engine Generator Loadmeters white digital readout

A

≤125 percent

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4
Q

On a soft or gravel runway/taxiway, a tight turn might result in what?

A

in the inboard tires sinking into the surface. If braking is used on the inboard side, the inboard tires may sink in so far that the aircraft will not be able to continue taxiing

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5
Q

If oil temp is between __ to __C for >__ minutes or exceeds __C, engine shutdown is recommended and oil over temperature inspection req.

A

86 to 93 5 mins 93

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6
Q

HSGI should be selected by disengaging the LSGI buttons rather than by power lever movement. Why?

A

Movement of the power levers beyond LSGI range with ambient temperature above 27C may cause rpm stall and over temperature

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7
Q

How do you establish long-range cruise?

A

set fuel flow and cross-check HP from the operating chart for the particular flight gross weight and altitude

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8
Q

Why are engines normally started in LSGI?

A

provides a more gradual heating of the engine components

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9
Q

Which ice protection systems are not functional during taxi?

A

wing/empennage propeller blade and aft spinner

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10
Q

How many litters/attendants can we carry?

A

70/6 74/2

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11
Q

In strong crosswinds, what airspeed should be set 100 feet above the runway?

A

Threshold plus 5 kts

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12
Q

What is the range of the Monopulse Ground Map mode of the LPCR?

A

>40 nm

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13
Q

With any flap extension, the maximum maneuver load factor is ___ g in symmetrical maneuvers and ___ g in unsymmetrical maneuvers.

A

2.0 1.5

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14
Q

When should you refer to the LANDING WITH ICE ACCUMULATION procedure?

A

if icing is encountered on an approach within 6 minutes of landing

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15
Q

Define enroute fuel management

A

When the ext and/or aux tanks contain usable fuel, tanks 1 and 4 are maintained at a max fuel level of 8310 and contain 500-1000 lbs more fuel per tank than tanks 2 and 3 When ext and/or aux tanks do not contain usable fuel, tanks 1 and 4 are maintained at a max level of 8310 while tanks 2 and 3 are reduced to a level of 1520. Fuel from 1 and 4 will then supply the motors until all main tanks reach a level of 1520. When all main tanks reach 1520, establish direct tank-to-engine feed.

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16
Q

Define substandard airfields

A

Substandard airfields may be either paved or unpaved, and are those which have unusually rough, undulating, pitted, or rutted runways.

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17
Q

Max speed with 21-60 degrees of nose gear deflection

A

5 kts

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18
Q

What are the 3 categories of fuel management?

A

Takeoff and landing Enroute Secondary

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19
Q

To ensure sufficient liferaft capacity, no more than __ persons, including crewmembers, should be carried on extended over-water flights that operate more than __ nautical miles from the nearest shore line.

A

80 50

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20
Q

How far out does the IRCM hazard area extend without safety glasses? With safety glasses?

A

12 ft 2 ft

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21
Q

The normal takeoff performance data assumes a rotation rate of what? Max effort takeoff?

A

3 degrees per second 5 degrees per second

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22
Q

When do you pull the fire handle during engine starts?

A

ENG FIRE X ENG MGT HI X START VLV OPEN X If MGT is rapidly increasing through the 6 oclock postion (807 degrees) Visible indications of a fire Visible fluid leak

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23
Q

Prior to start maximum MGT

A

175C

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24
Q

If any engine is shut down during taxi with 2 or more other engines in HSGI, what must be placed OFF and why?

A

PROPELLER switches - to prevent possible damage to the propeller anti-ice boots

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25
Q

Minimum for one brake application with normal brakes and anti skid OFF is ___ psi.

A

2,250

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26
Q

Which GCAS warnings can be cancelled?

A

GLIDESLOPE TOO LOW FLAPS

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27
Q

When do the windshield wipers become ineffective?

A

above 180 kts

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28
Q

What are the three major segments of the GPS? What do they each consist of?

A

Space: GPS satellites, minimum of 4 are always observable Control: master control station, monitor stations, ground antennas User: variety of civilian and military organizations all over the world

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29
Q

AFCS Limitations Maximum Bank Angles: Turn knob PILOT/COPILOT ENGAGE Course intercept On course Localizer tracking

A

Approximately 35° 25° ±3° 25° ±3° 10° 15° ±3°

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30
Q

When should normal hydraulic system px be indicated on an engine start?

A

within 30 seconds after propeller is on speed

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31
Q

The normal mode Look Ahead Distance corresponds with how much travel ahead time of the aircraft? What is the tactical mode of LAD?

A

40-60 seconds 50 percent shorter and narrower than normal

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32
Q

If an automatic shutdown occurs, what should you do before restarting?

A

place the ENGINE START switch to STOP and allow NG to decrease to 0 then wait 30 seconds before attempting a restart

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33
Q

What is the difference between mode S and mode C?

A

Mode S transponders announce their presence by transmitting a squitter message once every second Mode C does not transmit squitter messages

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34
Q

How far out is windshear in relation to the following: Level 1 Windshear Alert Level 2 Windshear Alert Level 3 Windshear Alert

A

>3 nm 1.5 to 3 nm < 1.5

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35
Q

For all landings where icing conditions have been encountered and ice may not have cleared, increase landing approach and threshold speeds by: 100 percent flaps 50 percent flaps 0 percent flaps

A

6 kts 10 kts 20 kts

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36
Q

Maximum continuous EGT is __ °C. If EGT exceeds __ °C for longer than __ seconds, the ACAWS alerts the crew to reduce APU loading.

A

680 710 3

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37
Q

To avoid fuel freezing, fuel temperature should not be lower than __ °F (__ °C) above the freeze point defined in the Fuel Reference Chart.

A

6 F (3.3 C)

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38
Q

What is the maximum difference allowed between pilot and copilot altitudes during RVSM operations?

A

200 ft

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39
Q

Because of propulsion systems limitations, avoid intentional negative and zero g maneuvers lasting longer than ___ seconds.

A

7

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40
Q

Is the standby altimeter RVSM compliant?

A

No

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41
Q

What are the eight operational modes of the LPCR?

A

Map Weather Skin Paint Monopulse Ground Map Windshear Beacon (ground and airborne) Precision measurement Integrated Precision Approach Radar

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42
Q

When does the rudder become effective?

A

at approx. 50-70 kts

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43
Q

What is the normal climb speed schedule?

A

180 KIAS to 10,000 ft (4 eng climb above 165K) 170 KIAS to 15,000 ft (4 eng climb above 150K) 160 KIAS to 25,000 ft (4 eng climb above 130K) 4 engine climb speed above 25,000 ft

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44
Q

Normal Emergency Brake Pressure

A

2,900 to 3,300 psi

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45
Q

How far out is windshear hazard processed and displayed in the windshear mode of the LPCR?

A

up to 5 nm

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46
Q

Maximum symmetrical maneuver load and airspeed in Area C

A

2.5 Gs up to Vh

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47
Q

How many paratroopers can we carry?

A

64

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48
Q

High-speed drogue airspeed

A

185-250

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49
Q

Limitations apply to maneuvers beyond __° angle of bank with flaps retracted or beyond __° angle of bank with flaps extended.

A

60 45

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50
Q

How far out does the HF radio hazard area extend?

A

15 ft

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51
Q

Rudder Boost Pressure Flaps 15-100% Flaps 0-15%

A

2,900 to 3,200 psi 1,100 to 1,390 psi

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52
Q

The cabin differential pressure should be kept below __ in. Hg while operating in the manual mode to avoid operating on safety valve relief.

A

14.3

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53
Q

To preclude excessive side loads on the landing gear, avoid crab angles over __ degrees during landing.

A

5

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54
Q

Why should you avoid high angles of attack during periods of transition from icing to melting conditions and/or ice shedding from the center wing section?

A

very likely that the shedding ice will strike the horizontal tail and possibly cause extensive damage to the horizontal tail leading edge

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55
Q

Max Effort Flap Retraction Schedule

A

< 100,000 lbs - raise flaps passing FUSS (135 KIAS) 100,000 to 140,000 lbs - being flap retraction at 135 KIAS and end at FUSS (Vobs plus 45) > 140,000 lbs - raise flaps in 10 percent increments for each 5 knot increase in airspeed, beginning at Minimum Flap Retraction Speed (Vobs plus 25) and ending at FUSS (Vobs plus 45)

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56
Q

Max speed with landing gear doors removed (gear up)

A

200

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57
Q

What is windshear?

A

rapid change in wind velocity and direction as well as vertical air movement

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58
Q

Taxi limitations up to 164K lbs

A

Taxiing over rough surfaces should be avoided. If this is unavoidable, exercise caution and limit taxi speed to a max of 10 kts

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59
Q

What HDD does TAWS pop-up on?

A

HDD 3 HDD 2 if 3 is failed

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60
Q

Altimeter differences at 20,000 feet

A

Maximum difference between pilot, copilot and standby altimeters is 180 feet.

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61
Q

If oil temp remains in the yellow zone, (__ to __C), red zone indication is initiated after __ minutes if the engine has been shut down. No action is req if the engine is not operating.

A

86 to 93 5 mins

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62
Q

If landing gear retraction is required following extended exposure to icing, what should you do?

A

cycle the gear at least once to remove accumulated ice before accelerating above gear limiting speed

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63
Q

E-TCAS Above- Normal- Below-

A

2700 below to 12700 above 2700 below to 2700 above 12700 below to 2700 above

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64
Q

What modes are required for TCAS to operate?

A

S and C

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65
Q

If bleed air is available from another operating engine, a starter assisted air start can be accomplished at any airspeed less than approximately ___ (NG below __ percent). If bleed air is not available or if the engine starter is not functional, maintain NG between __ and __ percent. If the propeller is windmilling at 100 percent NP, NG will stabilize at __ percent at speeds as low as ___ to ___ KIAS. If the propeller is feathered, speed as high as ___ to ___ KIAS may be required to achieve the required __ percent NG.

A

250 KIAS (NG below 29%) 15 and 29% 15% 110 to 130 KIAS 200 to 250 KIAS 15 %

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66
Q

What does the Gamma Cutoff Envelope of the TAWS encompass?

A

begins 100 feet below aircraft present altitude and extends out to a maximum of 10 nm ahead of airplane along an angle which is set to 6 degrees below the current flight path angle of the airplane. Once the a/c flight path angle reaches 9 degrees or greater, the cutoff angle is fixed to 3 degrees above the horizon. Can never point up more than 3 degrees. No limit for negative flight path angles

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67
Q

Ramp (all positions and motions) airspeed

A

250

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68
Q

What is the typical time from starter activation until NP is on speed? How long can you allow it to take?

A

30 seconds Allow up to 2 minutes after NG is on speed

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69
Q

In the weather mode of the LPCR, what is displayed at less than or equal to 40 nm?

A

weather plus turbulence data is provided

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70
Q

At pressure altitudes greater than 3000 ft, what should you do with the engine anti-ice if you have it switched ON?

A

Operate with it ON for a minimum of 3 minutes to stabilize engine temps before applying takeoff power. This will reduce the possibility of an ENG 1 (2,3,4) MGT HI ACAWS.

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71
Q

VV Indicators at 1,000 fpm at 2,000 fpm

A

±200 fpm ±300 fpm

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72
Q

E-TCAS boundary limits?

A

360 degrees out to 40 nm

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73
Q

How many intruders can TCAS track? How many are displayed on the Nav-Radar?

A

45 30

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74
Q

What does the windshear icon look like when displayed on the Nav-Radar?

A

red and black striped pattern

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75
Q

When is windshear the greatest? When does it most commonly occur?

A

greatest ahead of warm fronts most common following the passage of cold fronts during periods of gusty surface winds

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76
Q

Which scan speed is slower? Which has a better resolution? Doppler Beam Sharpening or Monopulse Ground Map?

A

DBS

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77
Q

Altimeter differences at 10,000 feet

A

Maximum difference between pilot, copilot and standby altimeters is 120 feet.

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78
Q

What makes INS different from GPS? What is the biggest error in regards to INS?

A

provides accurate navigation and position determination anywhere on earth, in any weather, without the aid of anything except pressure altitude from the DADS inertial drift

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79
Q

Static propeller feathering is limited to ___ cycles before the propeller gearbox must be drained or the engine started.

A

two

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80
Q

Recommended landing weight

A

142k

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81
Q

TAWS high density red high density yellow low density yellow high density green low density green black magenta

A

More than 2000 feet above current altitude Between 1000 and 2000 feet above current altitude Between 250 feet below and 1000 feet above current altitude Between 250 feet below and 1000 feet below current altitude Between 1000 and 2000 feet below current altitude More than 2000 feet below current altitude Unknown terrain

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82
Q

Cabin Differential Pressure Max Min

A

15.2 in Hg -1.6 in Hg

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83
Q

Taxi limitations if above 164k lbs

A
  1. Taxi and takeoff are permissible only on smooth surfaces comparable to those of a major airfield, free of dips, depressions, and holes 2. Max taxi speed is 10 kts 3. Taxi shortest distance possible 4. Use minimum braking during all taxi ops 5. Use only light braking while turning 6. Limit nose gear steering angle to 20 degrees 7. Avoid abrupt or hard uneven application of brakes
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84
Q

Cabin altimeter (zero differential at field elevation)

A

±500 feet of actual field pressure altitude

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85
Q

When will the FADEC shut off fuel if a start is not successful?

A

after 70 seconds from starter activation

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86
Q

Flap airspeed limits

A

10 - 220 20 - 210 30 - 200 40 - 190 50 - 183 60 - 165 70 - 155 80 - 150 90 - 145 100 - 145

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87
Q

Are TAs alone sufficient enough to deviate from an assigned clearance?

A

No

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88
Q

If the stick pusher test is attempted __ consecutive times, what do you do and why?

A

5 allow a minimum of 5 minutes of cooling time before attempting another test This is to prevent failure of the stick pusher servo

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89
Q

The TCAS processor receives an input from flap position to inhibit the increased climb maneuver anytime the flaps are extended beyond ___ percent.

A

40

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90
Q

Skin paint mode displays targets up to a range of what?

A

20 nm

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91
Q

For air-to-air TACAN, how many channels must the receiver be above or below the other aircraft?

A

63

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92
Q

Paratroop doors opening/closing airspeed

A

150

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93
Q

Do you check the HUD radar altimeter or the PFD radar altimeter during the “Above the Line” checklist? Why?

A

The PFD must be used since the HUD will not depict a negative number

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94
Q

Trim Tab Limits Aileron Rudder Elevator

A

Left/right wing down 20° ±5° Nose left/right 25° ±5° Nose up 22° to 28° and Nose down 5° to 8°

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95
Q

What causes icing in the engine inlet air duct? What is an indication that this icing has occurred?

A

sudden drop in temperature resulting from pressure loss in the engine inlet air duct falling HP indication

96
Q

The fuel unbalance limits are: 1. ____ pounds between tanks of a symmetrical pair (main or external). 2. ____ pounds between the left and right wings except as stated in item 3. 3. One auxiliary tank __ and the other auxiliary tank ___, provided all other tanks are symmetrically fueled or unbalanced toward the opposite side within the above limits.

A

1,000 1,500 full and empty

97
Q

Should you use autothrottles when flying through extreme turbulence or thunderstorms? What about the autopilot?

A

No. Should be disengaged Autopilot may be used and in some cases is desirable.

98
Q

If MGT exceeds ___C, over temp inspection is req.

A

852

99
Q

What does the Precision Measurement Mode of the LPCR do?

A

allows the LPCR to correct for certain map inaccuracies

100
Q

What are some indications of windshear?

A

+/- 20 kts airspeed +/- 500 fpm altitude changes +/- 6 degrees pitch attitude changes +/- 1.5 degrees glideslope deviation

101
Q

Severe turbulence airspeed

A

Flight should be in the range of 65 KIAS above power-off stall speed, not to exceed 180 KIAS

102
Q

How long does the WING/EMP A/I TEST run for?

A

90 seconds

103
Q

Where does the manual cursor hang out in relation to the aircraft?

A

remains at a fixed distance from the aircraft at a fixed direction relative to the top of the master display, unless the cursor is slewed

104
Q

Pilot and copilot HUD/PFD headings

A

±2°

105
Q

Normal Utility/Booster system pressure

A

2900-3200 psi

106
Q

How could prolonged exposure to icing affect the radome?

A

Radome may accumulate ice that will not shed easily. This may result in degraded radar returns in the ground mapping mode within 30 degrees of the nose at ranges beyond 40 nm

107
Q

How far out can the TACAN operate?

A

220 NM of a surface TACAN or a cooperating aircraft

108
Q

Cargo door open and locked; ramp up and locked airspeed

A

250

109
Q

Do you have better roll control with 100 percent flap landings or 50 percent? What about lower sideslip?

A

50 percent for both

110
Q

When do you discontinue a start by placing the ENGINE START switch to STOP?

A

No NG within 10 seconds No oil px within 15 seconds of NG or NP rotation ENG FLAMEOUT ENG NO LIGHTOFF ENG STAGNATED START

111
Q

How far away is traffic if it is displayed as a white-filled diamond on TCAS?

A

within 6 nm AND within 1200 feet vertically

112
Q

What is enroute fuel management meant to do?

A

Seeks to maximize the weight in the outboard fuel tanks as long as possible but does not take mission constraints into consideration while doing so Designed to maintain maximum fuel in the outboard tanks during the enroute phase of flight. Improves wing-loading and efficiency during long transit legs; it also extends airframe service life, especially with medium to heavy cargo loads.

113
Q

Is differential braking effective in turning the aircraft?

A

No, and if used excessively can cause structural damage

114
Q

How far out does the infared light hazard area extend?

A

10 ft

115
Q

When comparing the indicated altitude to the elevation of a known check point, the maximum allowable error is ±__ feet for pilot, copilot, and standby altimeters. Since the standby altimeter does not internally compensate for temperature, these tolerances only apply to the standby altimeter if the flight station temperature is between __ °F and __ °F.

A

50 60 and 85

116
Q

How far out can the Beacon mode of the LPCR display ground and airborne beacon transponders?

A

40 nm

117
Q

What is an EPOS?

A

Emergency Passenger Oxygen System

118
Q

Why shouldn’t you taxi fast on rough terrain?

A

greatly increases the loads normally imposed on landing gear and wing structure and can cause structural damage and reduced component life

119
Q

Stall warning margin varies significally with what?

A

aircraft power setting

120
Q

Define takeoff fuel management

A

Tanks 1 and 4 always contain 500-1000 lbs more fuel than tanks 2 and 4 The main tanks are full, except for fuel used for taxi, takeoff, and climb; but not less than 7060 lbs in tanks 1 and 4, and not less than 6410 lbs in tanks 2 and 3 when the external tanks contain usable fuel

121
Q

What are some of the effects of ice accumulation?

A
  1. Increased takeoff distance, landing distance, and stall speeds 2. Reduced rate of climb 3. Increased power requirement, thus increasing fuel consumption and decreasing range and endurance 4. Noticeable decrease in aircraft maneuverability, reduced directional stability and control at high sideslip angles, heavier than normal stall buffet when approaching stall speds 5. Reduced engine power due to obstruction of the engine inlet air duct
122
Q

Where does the ground cursor hang out?

A

remains fixed relative to the ground unless the cursor is slewed

123
Q

Maximum HP for normal operation is limited to ___

A

4840 HP

124
Q

When is fuel flow normally indicated on engine start?

A

at approx. 40 percent NG

125
Q

What are the dimensions of the aircraft?

A

Length: 97’ 9” Width: 132’ 7” Height: 39’ 2”

126
Q

Oxygen Regulator Pressure Check Continuous Breathing No Flow

A

270 to 340 psi 270 to 455 psi

127
Q

Engine and APU starting can be difficult when the temperature is approximately __ °C

A

-40

128
Q

Autopilot Limitations

A
  1. Takeoff and landing. 2. At airspeeds above maximum recommended airspeed VH. 3. ILS coupled approach below 200 feet HAT (CATI), 100 feet HAT(CATII), below MDA on a non-precision approach, or when flying over the localizer transmitter. 4. During IPRA coupled approach below 200 feet HAT. 5. At or below 500 feet AGL for non approach operations. 6. In RVSM airspace, unless the autopilot, in ALT HOLD mode is able to maintain altitude within ±65 feet of ATC assigned flight level (steady, level flight in non-turbulent conditions) at all times during normal cruise. 7. At gross weights above 164,000 lbs for any of the following: a. Below 1,000 feet AGL. b. During configuration changes. c. During approach operations.
129
Q

Any cruise speed up to the recommended speed may be utilized up to and including what type of turbulence?

A

moderate

130
Q

When should you avoid abrupt or full rudder deflection?

A

With flaps lever positioned 15 percent or greater (high rudder boost) and airspeed 210 KIAS or greater

131
Q

What are the danger areas around the aircraft?

A

APU air intake APU exhaust area Turbine disintegration zone Prop danger areas Prop blast area

132
Q

Altimeters Static reading at field elevation

A

±50 feet of field elevation

133
Q

What does the EGI consist of?

A

global positioning and inertial navigation systems

134
Q

HUD/PFD, and standby compass headings

A

±5°

135
Q

How many ground troops (including wheelwell wall seats) can we carry?

A

92

136
Q

Operation in the areas between recommended speed limits and maximum speed limits is permissible for initiating penetrations from what altitude and what airspeed?

A

20,000 ft 250 KIAS

137
Q

Paratroop doors open and locked airspeed

A

250

138
Q

If you turn on the anti-ice switch, how long can it take to ensure the vertical stabilizer is completely anti-iced?

A

as long as 2.5 minutes

139
Q

Max main tire speed

A

174 KTAS

140
Q

When should you use cold weather procedures?

A

when 0 C and below

141
Q

What is the criteria for a stabilized approach?

A

Aircraft in a safe landing configuration PA/NPA approach: +/- 1 dot of glideslope/CDI PAR/ASR: No “well above/below” / “well right/left” Proper airspeed: normal +/- 10 kts max effort -3 to +10 kts All briefings and checklists completed No GCAS special alerts

142
Q

Can you motor an engine before NG reaches 0 on a restart?

A

Yes

143
Q

What color does blue represent in the weather mode of the LPCR?

A

masked region/unknown

144
Q

In regards to CG shifts while we have fuel in the fuselage tank, what are our limitations?

A

If fuel is carried in the fuselage tank, the external tanks should be empty when the fuselage tank contains less than 20,000 lbs, or the aircraft is restricted to level flight until external tanks are empty.

145
Q

When a temperature change of __ F or more is reported across the front or if the front is moving at __ kts or more, conditions are conducive to windshear.

A

10 30

146
Q

If oil temp exceeds ___C, shut down the engine. Main’t is required.

A

93

147
Q

When should you not connect fuel servicing equipment or start fuel servicing operations?

A

during an electrical storm or if an electrical storm is reported within 3 miles of the area

148
Q

When does the clacker activate?

A

Vd plus 2 knots

149
Q

To avoid the possibility of aircraft structural damage, do not exceed __ in. Hg.

A

16

150
Q

When should the wing/empennage ice protection not be operated in anti-icing mode?

A

Operation at power settings above 2500 HP at temps below -30 C or at pressure altitudes above 20,000 ft at any HP may degrade engine life

151
Q

What are the 4 types of cruises we can fly?

A

Long Range Constant TAS Max Continuous Max Endurance

152
Q

When is Real Beam Ground Map mode used by the LPCR?

A

during degraded radar operations displays slant range rather than ground range

153
Q

What is the bank angle limit capture for a non-precision approach? Once on course?

A

25 degrees 10 degrees

154
Q

When should you use hot weather procedures?

A

above 35 C (95F) with or without high humidity

155
Q

What are the 4 processing techniques of the Map mode of the LPCR?

A

Monopulse Ground Map Doppler Beam Sharpening Monopulse Stabilized Doppler Beam Sharpening Real Beam Ground Map

156
Q

Flight is not permitted with which landing gear doors removed and installed?

A

forward nose gear door removed and aft door installed

157
Q

What are the boundary limits of intruder detection for TCAS?

A

40 NM off the nose 15 NM either side of the aircraft 12 NM off the tail

158
Q

After takeoff, when should you reduce power to max continuous?

A

after the flaps are retracted

159
Q

Define marginal strength airfields

A

Marginal strength airfields are temporary airfields which include minimally surfaced and unsurfaced runways such as dirt, grass, gravel, coral, etc.

160
Q

Why do we wait 30 seconds after NG reaches 0 before restarting an engine?

A

to enable a successful test of the NG independent overspeed protection circuit

161
Q

When is Monopulse Stabilized Doppler Beam Sharpening used by the LPCR? What is the range?

A

incorporates both MGM and DBS At angles >10 degrees from the velocity vector it uses DBS At angles <5 degrees from the velocity vector it uses MGM Between 5 and 10 degrees it uses MSDBS out to 40 nm

162
Q

Max alternate landing weight

A

175k

163
Q

Normal Flap Retraction Schedule

A

< 100,000 lbs - raise flaps passing FUSS (135 KIAS) 100,000 to 140,000 lbs - being flap retraction at 135 KIAS and end at FUSS (Vobs plus 25) > 140,000 lbs - raise flaps in 10 percent increments for each 5 knot increase in airspeed, beginning at Minimum Flap Retraction Speed (Vobs plus 5) and ending at FUSS (Vobs plus 25)

164
Q

Takeoff is permitted with an oil temp of __C

A

45

165
Q

Oil quantity white digital readout

A

4 to 14.1 gallons

166
Q

How many combat troops can we carry?

A

78

167
Q

In the weather mode of the LPCR, what is displayed in the 80 nm range scale?

A

weather plus turbulence to 50 nm weather alone to 80 nm for range scales >80 nm, turbulence is not provided

168
Q

Extended over-water operations with mixed cargo/passenger loads are restricted to a maximum of __ occupants per unobstructed overhead exit.

A

35

169
Q

Maximum symmetrical maneuver load and airspeed in Area A

A

3 Gs up to Vh

170
Q

Normal Aux system pressure

A

2,760 to 3,200 psi

171
Q

What color is turbulence in the weather mode of the LPCR?

A

White

172
Q

DC Bus Voltages (ESS and MAIN) white digital readout

A

25 to 30 V

173
Q

When might differential power be necessary while taxiing?

A

at aft center of gravity in high winds on slippery taxiways

174
Q

What is the greatest danger of ice accumulation?

A

reduced aerodynamic efficiency of the aircraft

175
Q

Maximum symmetrical maneuver load and airspeed in Area D

A

2.25 Gs up to Vh

176
Q

Engine starts are prohibited when oil temp is __C or below

A

-40

177
Q

Maximum symmetrical maneuver load and airspeed in Area E

A

2 Gs up to Vh

178
Q

If the propeller independent overspeed protection circuit is not checked, what will happen?

A

the PROP 1(2,3,4) NO 119 percent PROTECT ACAWS will appear

179
Q

How many TACAN navigation systems are on the plane?

A

3 the AN/ARN-153 serves as the own aircraft TACAN system

180
Q

When shall both pilots never be “heads down”?

A

Below 5000’ AGL

181
Q

Blade angle changes when the engine is not operating should not be accomplished when the oil temp is less than __C

A

-40

182
Q

Airspeed indicators between pilot and copilot

A

must agree within ±6 KCAS

183
Q

What does pressing MGM of the LPCR do?

A

selects MGM and inhibits DBS

184
Q

Landing lights extended airspeed

A

250

185
Q

Differential Pressure Limits Outflow valve differential control Safety valve Negative pressure relief Negative pressure limit

A

14.3° ±0.2° in. Hg 15.0° ±0.3° in. Hg (do not exceed 16.0 in. Hg) -0.76 in. Hg Do not exceed -1.6 in. Hg

186
Q

Normal Oxygen Quantity

A

5 to 25 liters

187
Q

Low speed drogue airspeeds

A

105-120 - while extending/retracting/engaging 130 - receiver engaged

188
Q

What types of engines power our mighty bird?

A

Allison Engine Co. AE2100D3 turboprop engines

189
Q

How often should you check the center and side windscreens to ensure NESA operations?

A

once per flight

190
Q

Max Alternate Takeoff weight

A

175k

191
Q

The engine ice protection system must be on for taxi and takeoff when operating in visible moisture with an ambient temp of 10 C or less. What could happen if its not on?

A

Ice may enter the engine air inlet and cause engine power fluctuations This can cause the propeller to autofeather or damage the engine

192
Q

An abrupt release of deflected brake pedals could cause what? What should a mindful pilot do?

A

could possibly cause the brakes on the left side of the aircraft to remain partially engaged pilot should smoothly release fully applied brakes pedals over approx. 2 seconds

193
Q

Max normal landing weight

A

164k

194
Q

What are the 3 distinct phases of an emergency?

A
  1. establish and maintain a/c control, ensure its clear of terrain, accomplish bold face EPs 2. complete remaining of checklists, review engine-out considerations, determine a course of action 3. monitor/manage degraded systems, prepare for unscheduled landing if necessary
195
Q

What are the dimensions of the cargo compartment?

A

Length: 41’ Width: 10’ 3” Height: 9’

196
Q

Inoperative windshield anti-icing below 10,000 ft

A

187

197
Q

What are the two segments of a penetration descent?

A

The first from altitude down to 20,000 ft at speeds for max lift over drag with power levers at FLT IDLE and landing gear and flaps retracted The second from 20,000 ft to sea level at 250 kts

198
Q

When oil temp is in normal range and sustained power section oil px equals or exceeds ___psi, perform engine shutdown. Engine main’t req.

A

90 psi

199
Q

What is the minimum space required for turning with the nose gear turned to 60 degrees?

A

169’ 8”

200
Q

The autopilot is capable of intercepts up to what? What is the max recommended?

A

90 degrees 45 degrees

201
Q

Altimeter differences at 30,000 feet

A

Maximum difference between pilot, copilot and standby altimeters is 265 feet.

202
Q

TR loadmeters white digital readout

A

0 to 110 percent

203
Q

If starting an engine with a windmilling prop (from wind), what could happen?

A

the FADEC may not perform the check of the propeller independent overspeed protection circuit.

204
Q

When possible, change altitude to prevent icing. If climbing to a non-icing altitude is not possible, what should you do? What are some things you should consider?

A

a check of fuel flow vs ground speed should be made to determine if range will permit completion of the flight OAT, nature of clouds, type of icing, duration of icing

205
Q

If taxiing with two engines on and in LSGI, what should you have turned on?

A

aux hyd pump ON EMER BRAKE SEL switch set to EMER to ensure adequate brake pressure

206
Q

Where does the computer cursor hang out?

A

remains fixed at the geographic coordinates of a specific target, even when the cursor is slewed.

207
Q

What is the minimum power setting schedule that you need to maintain when descending in icing conditions?

A

1300 HP above 20,000 ft Starting at 20,000 ft, reduces power 100 HP every 5000 ft until reaching 5000 ft Below 5000 ft, at least 750 HP

208
Q

What causes an excursion in airspeed, altitude, and rate of climb when you retract or extend the landing gear?

A

an air disturbance around the pitot tubes caused when the forward nose gear door opens

209
Q

Prohibited Maneuvers

A
  1. Aerobatics and spins. 2. Practice stalls with power above 1,000 HP. 3. Practice asymmetric power stalls. 4. Intentional zero or negative G maneuvers lasting longer than 7 seconds. 5. Sustained airspeed below stick pusher speed. 6. Intentionally maneuvering the aircraft into a side slip for a LEFT/RIGHT RUDDER alert. 7. Abrupt longitudinal control inputs at high speeds (faster than 1.0 g per second load factor increase or decrease). 8. Rapid roll reversals (roll rate shall be zero momentarily before applying full aileron in the opposite direction). 9. At airspeeds above 150KIAS, moderate to large rudder input held until sideslip peaks followed by opposite rudder (past neutral) or a series of large alternating rudder inputs tending to produce successively larger sideslip angles.
210
Q

When shall autothrottles be disconnected?

A

no later than crossing the threshold on approach

211
Q

Vertical functions IAS hold VS hold ALT hold ALT SEL

A

±3 KIAS ±70 fpm at 1,000 fpm ±40 feet of initial altitude ±40 feet with ±75 foot overshoot at 1,000 fpm

212
Q

If the propeller does not reach or stay in the full feather position and controlling oil pressure is not available, the propeller counterweights will stabilize the blade angle at approximately __°. The propeller will windmill on the counterweights at up to __ percent NP depending on airspeed.

A

66 40

213
Q

What is considered a “critical phase of flight”?

A

all ground ops involving taxi, takeoff and landing 1000 feet prior to reaching assigned altitude during climb/descent

214
Q

What should you do with trim when flying through extreme turbulence or thunderstorms?

A

Trim the a/c to zero control force for the altitude and recommended airspeed. Avoid the use of elevator trim in controlling pitch attitude

215
Q

APU generator load

A

0-100

216
Q

What can flying through heavy rain (magenta) do?

A
  1. Reduce lift by up to 30 percent at high AOAs such as during approach or missed approaches 2. Increase drag up to 30 percent 3. Cause the aircraft to slow down faster than normal when power is reduced 4. Cause engine rollback and flameout 5. Cause turbulence
217
Q

What are the four common cursor modes?

A

manual, ground, computer, quick

218
Q

Landing gear extended airspeed

A

168

219
Q

Can the engine be started with the propeller at any blade angle?

A

Yes

220
Q

Cargo door (all positions and motions) airspeed

A

250

221
Q

Hydraulic Accumulator Preload 1. Utility System 2. Booster System 3. Normal Brake 4. Emergency Brake 5. Aerial Refueling Hydraulic Accumulator

A

1,500 (±100) psi 1,500 (±100) psi 1,500 (±100) psi 1,000 (±100) psi 1,350 (±50) psi

222
Q

If ice is detected on takeoff roll and the wing/empennage ice protection is in AUTO or ON, when does the system become operative and what may result from it?

A

operative at 60 kts result in a noticeable HP decrease. This decrease is more significant at higher density altitude, and may be as much as 30 percent

223
Q

Wing/empennage ice protection system must be turned on in the anti-icing mode prior to final approach if icing is anticipated. What could happen if you don’t do this?

A

may cause ice accumulation on the vertical tail, resulting in limited crosswind landing capability

224
Q

Propeller ice protection system BIT requires how many engines in HSGI?

A

at least 2

225
Q

Engine power is limited to ___ when oil temperature is less than __C and to ____ HP when engine oil temperature is less than ___C during ground ops.

A

idle 0 1,000 45

226
Q

What should you do to avoid sideslip control difficulties during a max effort climb?

A

limit angle of bank to 20 degrees until airspeed is above 120 kts

227
Q

Transient operations up to ___% during transition from flight idle to ground idle is acceptable

A

112

228
Q

Starting (start sequence, below __% NG) MGT of ___C for a maximum of __ seconds is permitted. If temperature is exceeded, over temp inspection is req.

A

65 807 2

229
Q

When are high speed landing procedures required?

A

-100 percent flap landings at weights above 155,000 lbs -50 percent flap landings at weights above 130,000 lbs -All 0 percent flap landings -All landings at field elevation greater than 4000’ MSL -Temperature greater than ISA +15C, all landings at field elevation greater than 2000’ MSL

230
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for landing?

A

35 kts

231
Q

Max speed with 20 degrees of nose gear deflection

A

20 kts

232
Q

Minimum for one brake application with emergency brakes is ___ psi.

A

2,900 psi

233
Q

Ground speed of less than __ kts is generally required to being a 90 degree turn.

A

20

234
Q

The OAT is 72F and the wing/empennage anti-ice test must be repeated. What do you do and why?

A

Because OAT is above 70F, we must wait 10 minutes before repeating the test to prevent overheating the vertical tail

235
Q

On the ground, if fuel has been sprayed into the engine without ignition, what should you do? On subsequent starts, what is acceptable to see?

A

motor the engine for at least 30 seconds with the engine start switch in the MOTOR position. flames out the tailpipe for a few seconds due to residual fuel

236
Q

Max nose tire speed

A

139 KTAS

237
Q

What should you be alert for, in regards to aircraft performance, when windshear is suspected?

A
  1. unusually steep or shallow rate of descent required to maintain glidepath 2. unusually high or low power setting required to maintain approach airspeed 3. large variation btwn reported surface wind and displayed winds

NATOPS (14 decks)

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