Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NATOPS > PERFORMANCE MANUAL > Flashcards

PERFORMANCE MANUAL Flashcards

1
Q

Define ATC Ceiling

A

that altitude at which the maximum rate of climb capability at max continuous power and best climb speed is 500 fpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define best climb speed

A

the larger of the speed for MAX ROC or the flaps up air minimum control speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define cruise ceiling

A

The altitude at which the maximum rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is 300 fpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define FUSS (Flaps Up Safety Speed)

A

The minimum speed recommended for normal operation with the flaps retracted. FUSS is the larger of 1.25 times the flaps up power off stall speed or the flaps up air minimum control speed.

Operation at FUSS provides 1.7g of maneuverability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define long-range cruise

A

The term which identifies flight of the aircraft at the speed for 99 percent (Vt/Wf) MAX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define maximum endurance

A

Operation at the speed which results in the minimum fuel flow for the given desired altitude (altitude other than optimum) configuration, temperature, and gross weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define optimum endurance

A

Operation at the altitude which results in the minimum fuel flow for the given configuration, atmospheric conditions, and gross weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define service ceiling

A

The altitude at which the maximum rate of climb at max continuous power and best climb speed is 100 fpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Vt/Wf?

Vt/Wf MAX?

99 perfect (Vt/Wf) MAX?

A

Specific range. True airspeed divided by total fuel flow, or air nautical miles per pound of fuel

The maximum value of specific range for a given weight altitude

The value of specific range resulting from increasing true airspeed from the speed at (Vt/Wf) MAX to give a value of specific range which is 1 percent less than (Vt/Wf) MAX.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Defining conditions for Vmca

A
  1. ATCS operational
  2. Bank angle equal or less than 5 degrees away from failed engine
  3. Max takeoff power on all engines
  4. Max rudder deflection limited by 150 lbs rudder force or max rudder control surface deflection
  5. Minimum flying weight
  6. No. 1 engine failed, prop auto fx’d
  7. Zero rudder trim
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Defining conditions for Vmca2

A
  1. Bank angle equal or less than 5 degrees away from failed engine
  2. Flaps 50%
  3. Max takeoff power on all engines
  4. Max rudder deflection limited by 150 lbs rudder force or max rudder control surface deflection
  5. Min flying weight
  6. No. 1 & 2 engined failed. No. 2 auto-fx’d and no. 1 prop either windmilling or feathered
  7. Rudder trim required for a 3 degree approach with 3 engines
  8. Gear down
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Critical Field Length

A

total runway distance required to accelerate on all engines to Vcef, experience an engine failure, then continue the takeoff or stop within the same distance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Refusal Speed

A

the maximum speed to which the aircraft can accelerate with engines at takeoff power and then stop within the remainder of the runway available, with two engines in reverse, one engine in ground idle, one prop fx’d, and max anti-skid braking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define Critical Failure Speed

A

speed to which the aircraft can accelerate, lose an engine, and then either continue the takeoff with the remaining engines or stop in the same total runway distance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Brake Energy Limit speed

A

the maximum speed at which anti-skid braking can be applied without exceeding the energy absorption limit of the brake system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vmcg

A

minimum airspeed during the takeoff ground run at which, when the critical engine fails, it is possible to maintain control of the aircraft using the rudder control alone and take off safely using normal piloting skill while maintaining takeoff power on the remaining engines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Minimum Power Restoration speed

A

speed that represents the minimum airspeed at which full power may be restored to the opposing outboard engine and the pilot still maintain control of aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define takeoff distance

A

the total distance required to accelerate from brake release to the takeoff speed, liftoff and climb to a 50 ft obstacle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define takeoff ground run

A

the distance required to accelerate from brake release to liftoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define MFLMETO

A

the length of runway which is required to accelerate to Vcef, experience and engine failure, and stop or continue acceleration to maximum effort takeoff speed within the remaining runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Defined adjusted MFLMETO

A

distance required to accelerate on all engines to Vcef, experience an engine failure, then in the same distance either stop or accelerate to liftoff at or above Vmca and the 3 engine minimum liftoff speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is V1 based on?

A

runway available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Vcef based on?

A

critical field length

24
Q

What do you need to do if Type II/IV anti-icing fluid is used?

A

add 5 KIAS to the normal rotation speed with the minimum rotation speed of 100 KIAS

25
Q

Are max effort take offs approved with anti-icing fluids?

A

No

26
Q

If the vertical tail is treated with anti-icing fluid, rotation speed must be equal to what?

A

refusal speed

27
Q

RCR

Dry/Good
Wet/Medium
Icy/Poor

A

23
12
5

28
Q

What is RSC?

A

Runway Surface Condition

a value which relates to depth and type of runway covering such as water or slush and is reported in tenths of an inch in depth.

1 inch equals an RSC of 10

29
Q

The crosswind limited takeoff run must be initiated with a maximum indicated power level of 2500 HP until 35 kts is reached. At 35 kts the power levers are advanced to full takeoff power. This procedure results in a __ ft penalty to all takeoff distance requirements.

A

200

30
Q

The normal rotation speed is scheduled to ensure that the liftoff speed is greater than the air minimum control speed and the obstacle clearance speed is at least __ times the power off stall speed.

A

1.2

31
Q

Attempting to maintain a wings level attitude at light gross weight with one engine inoperative increases Vmca by __ kts with the flaps up and by __ kts with the flaps set at 50%

A

23

43

32
Q

Loss of either utility or booster hydraulic systems results in a __ kt increase in the flaps up Vmca

A

36

33
Q

Loss of either utility or booster hydraulic systems results in a __ kt increase in the flaps 50% Vmca

A

20

34
Q

What is the standard lapse rate up to what altitude?

What is the lapse rate above that altitude?

A

-2C per 1000’ from sea level to 36,089 ft (stratosphere)

temp remains constant with increases in altitude

35
Q

With one or more engines shut down, what systems require more bleed air from operating engines?

A

air conditioning, pressurization, and deicing systems

36
Q

What imposes the most stringent limits on takeoff weight?

A

runway length available

37
Q

What are some factors that affect the takeoff and climb out performance?

A

pressure altitude, OAT, wind velocity, runway slope, runway condition, surface covering, and power setting

38
Q

If CFL is longer than runway available, what should you do?

A

takeoff gross weight should be reduced until CFL is equal to or less than runway available

39
Q

When should ALL BLEED charts be used in the performance manual?

A

if engine AND wing/emp ice protection is on

if only engine ice protection is on, NORMAL BLEED charts can be used

40
Q

What parameters does takeoff factor combine?

A

field pressure altitude and runway temperature

41
Q

When is RCR used and when is RSC used?

A

RCR - runway contaminants less than 3 mm in depth

RSC - greater than 3 mm in depth

42
Q

What is the big difference between RCR and RSC?

A

RCR relates to the average braking effectiveness of the runway to the braking capability of the aircraft

RSC relates to the depth and type of runway covering such as water or slush

43
Q

When would you only increase the rotation speed due to crosswinds?

A

when evaluating max effort takeoff procedures

44
Q

When would you increase rotation speed for all takeoff procedures?

A

due to wind gust increments

45
Q

What is the most you can increase rotation speed?

A

by 10 kts

46
Q

What should you do if Vcef speed is higher than brake energy limit speed?

A

reduce takeoff gross weight

47
Q

What should you do if V1 is greater than brake energy limit speed?

A

set V1 equal to brake energy limit speed

48
Q

Adjusted max effort takeoff rotation speed is schedule to ensure what?

A

liftoff speed is greater than the air minimum control speed and the three-engine minimum liftoff speed

49
Q

Vmcg conditions:

A
  1. ATCS operating
  2. Flaps 50
  3. Max takeoff power on remaining engines
  4. Max rudder deflection limited by 150 lbs of rudder pedal force
  5. Max lateral deviation from initial runway track of 30 ft
  6. Min flying weight
  7. No. 1 engine failed with prop auto-fx’d
  8. No NWS required
50
Q

When is there a slight tendency for the nose to yaw left? to yaw right?

A

left - high power settings

right - as power is reduced to flight idle

51
Q

What is a moment?

A

tendency of the aircraft to rotate about its axis

52
Q

Airflow immediately behind the operating engines is moving faster than elsewhere on the wing, creating what?

A

induced lift

a prop that is creating thrust is also creating additional lift - induced lift

53
Q

If an engine has failed, what does slow airspeed do to aileron and rudder effectiveness?

A

reduces

requires greater deflection for the same effect

54
Q

Aerodynamically, what does ATCS reduce?

A

asymmetric thrust

asymmetric lift

Vmca

55
Q

20-16

A

20-16

56
Q
  1. Engine-out control requirements in Asymmetric handout
A
  1. Engine-out control requirements in Asymmetric handout

NATOPS (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions