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NATOPS > T2P Question Bank > Flashcards

T2P Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

For landings at 540 fpm rate of sink at gross weights above ________ lbs, application of brakes must not occur until all landing gear, including the nose gear, come into contact with the ground.

A

130,000 lbs

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2
Q

What is the Max Symmetrical load factor in Area D Alternate (Cautionary) Loading Limits?

A

up to Vh symmetrical 2.25, -0 Rolling 1.83, -0

Vh to Vd symmetrical 2.25, -0 Rolling 1.83,-0

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3
Q

State the fuel unbalance limits

A

1,000 lbs between symmetrical tanks
1,500 lbs between wings
1 aux can be full the other aux empty, provided all other tanks are symmetrically fueled or unbalanced toward the opposite side within the above limits

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4
Q

What is the maximum altitude for an air start with normal fuel? What about with JP-4 fuel?

A

Airstart envelope: Less than 250Kias, less than 25,000ft for JP5/8 and Jet A. JP-4 is less than 22,500ft

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5
Q

When shall Crosswind Takeoff procedures be utilized?

A

when the wind is +-45 degrees off takeoff heading, and crosswind COMPONENT is greater than 15 but less than 35kias. limit 2,500HP until indicated airspeed is above 35KIAS

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6
Q

What is the limitation on the APU starter duty cycle?

A

One minute on and four minutes off for unlimited cycles

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7
Q

For which 3 conditions must the autopilot be disengaged when gross weight is above 164,000 lbs

A

Below 1,000 AGL, during configuration changes, during approach operations

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8
Q

If oil is supplied to a shutdown engine, how long may the engine turn above 7% NG and still be restarted?

A

20 mins if the propeller is feathered (½ rotation p/sec) or pull fire handle

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9
Q

What is the airspeed limit with the Landing lights extended

A

250KIAS

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10
Q

What is the limitation for altimeter reading difference at field elevation

A

+-50ft for altimeters and standby, flight station temperature must be between 60 and 85 F for tolerances to apply

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11
Q

How is turbulent air penetration speed calculated?

A

Power off stall speed +65 KIAS, no greater than 180 KIAS

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12
Q

What is the sequence and timing of the anti-icing valves when the Wing/Empennage system is operating in the De-Ice mode

A

7 zones = Vertical Tail, L/R horizontal tail, L/R outboard wing, L/R inboard wing. In de-ice it will go (60 sec each) vertical tail, L/R horizontal tail, Vert Tail, L/R outboard wing, Vertical Tail, L/R inboard wing = 1 cycle is 6 min plane goes for 2 cycles when selected

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13
Q

What does the Level 2 Ice ACAWS indicate?

A

Ice detector probes have accumulated the equivalent of approximately ½ inch of ice on the wings. If the message remains on for longer than 45 or pops up frequently you could have much more severe icing than ½ inch p/45 sec.

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14
Q

At pressure altitudes above 3,000ft, what restriction applies to operating with engine anti-ice prior to takeoff?

A

Operate with engine anti-ice on for 3 mins prior to adding full T/O power which reduces the possibility of MGT HI. You can even turn off Cargo AC Pack and underfloor heat to lessen the possibility of MGT HI

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15
Q

If any NESA element has failed, what restrictions apply?

A

187KIAS below 10,000ft

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16
Q

At what airspeed is the wing/empennage system enabled, and in what scenario is any airspeed sufficient?

A

Pilots airspeed is greater than 60KIAS. Failure of the selected DADS enables the system regardless of airspeed

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17
Q

From which turbine stage is the bleed air for the engine and nacelle anti-ice system supplied?

A

Bleed air usually come from the 10th Stage but when average engine power settings are below 1,000HP will supplement bleed air until power is restored to 1,100HP

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18
Q

When should the engine anti-icing system be manually selected to on?

A

must be on for taxi and takeoff when operating in visible moisture with an ambient temperature of 10C or less

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19
Q

If the Wing/Empennage system is ON in Anti-Ice Mode, how does the BAECS ensure adequate bleed air supply to the anti-icing system?

A

Bleed air usually come from the 10th Stage but when average engine power settings are below 1,000HP will supplement bleed air until power is restored to 1,100HP

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20
Q

Below what temperature is it directed to not operate the wing/empennage ice protection system to prevent damage to the pneumatic de-ice boot?

A

Do not turn on the wing/empennage ice protection system below -40C or -40F

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21
Q

What does the ANTI ICE AIR TEMP LO ACAWS advisory denote? How can it be extinguished?

A

ice protection is on and the BA/ECS has determined that there is not enough bleed air supply from the engines for ice protection. HP increase, starting at 20,000ft 1,300HP is required and drops a 100HP for every 5000ft bottoming out at 750HP below 5000ft

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22
Q

What is the difference between MTRs with 3 and 4 digits?

A

MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500AGL are 3 digits, those with no segments above 1,500AGL will be 4 digit

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23
Q

What are weather minimums for a section departure?

A

IFR departures are authorized provided weather is at or above the published circling minimums for the runway in use. in the event a circling approach is not authorized, must be at least 1,000ft and 3 miles visibility

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24
Q

What is the 3710’s minimum fuel planning requirements?

A
  1. if alternate not required, to destination plus 10%
  2. if alternate required, to initial approach fix, then to alternate field plus 10%
  3. In no case shall the planned fuel reserve after landing at destination or alternate field be less than 20 minutes of flight at 10,000 feet (1334 lbs)
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25
Q

What is the minimum fuel planning requirement for our receivers when tanking?

A

enough fuel to fly from takeoff point to ARCP thence to a suitable recovery field. In no case should the fuel reserve at RV point be less than 10%

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26
Q

According to CNAF 3710, what are the requirements for a pilot to be designated a TPC?

A
  1. complete requirements for and possess to an advanced degree the knowledge, skill, and capabilities of a second pilot
  2. minimum 700 hours
  3. minimum of 100 hours pilot time in class and be NATOPS qualified in model
  4. Possess a current instrument rating
  5. Demonstrate positive ability to command and train the officers and enlisted of the flight crew including enforcement of proper discipline.
  6. demonstrate qualities of leadership and mature judgement required to conduct advanced base or detached unit operations as the OIC
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27
Q

What should you do if you lose required visual references while executing a circling approach?

A

initial climbing turn toward the landing runway then maneuver shortest direction for missed approach procedures or instructions given must be followed

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28
Q

What is the minimum altitude for fuel dumping? What should you do if forced to dump lower?

A

when practicable should be above 6000AGL, if unable should make every effort not to dump over populated areas and alert ATC of “adjusting gross weight”

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29
Q

What OAT and water temps require the crew to be provided anti-exposure suits? Who decides when they are to be worn?

A

Water temp 50F or below, OAT is 32F and below (windchill should be considered)

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30
Q

What two altitudes should you consider descending through with a loss of pressurization?

A

18,000ft - Decompression sickness occurs, air is too thin for lack of O2
10,000ft - lack of oxygen will make you hypoxic

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31
Q

How much rest is required if you exceed an 18hr crew day?

A

15 hours of continuous off-duty time shall be provided prior to scheduling the member for any duties

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32
Q

What is the Formation Contract?

A

1) lead leads
2) wingman is in charge of separation from lead
3) wingman clears the 6 o’clock position
4) all speeds will be referenced as indicated airspeeds
5) lead announces unplanned airspeed changes greater than 15kias
6) lead/wingmen announce unexpected encounters with atmospheric or threat based mission degraders
7) in lieu of a briefed rejoin plan, lead will use distance-to-go to a specific waypoint along the flight path and MSL altitude to ID rejoin points for reassembling the formations

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33
Q

What is expected to be complete by “Man Time”?

A

GPS/INS aligned, ATIS inputted, primary inter-plane frequency tuned

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34
Q

What is the minimum formation landing interval, day and night?

A

30 seconds/4000’ (.7nm) for the day, 6,000’ (1nm) at night

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35
Q

What are the two formation flight regimes and their vertical/lateral separation?

A

Cruise - 20’-3000 (.5nm) with 500’ vertically

Tactical - 3000’(.5nm) - 3nm vertical separation mission/brief dependent

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36
Q

What constitutes an ATC standard formation? If deviating from standard due to weather, what must be obtained from ATC?

A

1nm and 100’ and must notify ATC if formation will be non-standard. If keeping formation integrity lead will request an altitude block from ATC and use the RADAR to keep separation. Another option would be to dissolve the formation and get separate squawks for both of the aircraft through ATC.

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37
Q

What is the takeoff interval for single runway ops in formation?

A

15 secs or when the preceding aircraft rotates whatever happens first ANTTP

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38
Q

What are some factors to consider when formulating inadvertent weather penetration plan?

A

1) elements of the formation who are operating using VFR should remain VMC
2) proximity to the terrain along the route
3) Wx type encountered
4) separation criteria (lateral, vertical, or climb rates)
5) Aircraft should never cross each other’s vertical or horizontal plane when in IMC
6) rejoin plan
7) WX abort criteria
8) lost sight call and intentions, if other than briefed

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39
Q

If completing a planned weather penetration, the formation should be in radar trail. What are the parameters for radar trail and what calls should the lead aircraft make in climbs/descents?

A

.5nm separation between each aircraft with 500 step up for descents, 500 step up or down when level, 500 step down during the climbs. Lead will give all turns based off a radial and DME so that the rest of the formation trail turns at the same point in space to keep separation.

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40
Q

What are “Turns Away” and “Turns Into”.

A

Turns into means you will have ot full power because you will have to descend slightly to turn on the same axis as leads as well as being inside the turn radius of lead requiring slower speeds. Expect an increase in power as you roll out of the turn.

Turns away, you should place lead on the horizon and you will turn on your own axis. The same visual points will work but they will appear a little bit different due to being in a turn. Expect power increase while rolling in and keeping higher speed than lead due to larger turn radius, and to pull a little power as you roll out of the turn.

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41
Q

When is an Underrun warranted? Explain the procedure

A

Anytime an unsafe situation develops during formation in the STEPPED DOWN profile (such as closure rate/angle/bearing line). Level wings, idle power, lower nose and get safe separation and then make the call underrun. After the situation becomes stable wing must ask lead to rejoin the formation, usually on the outer edge of the turn

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42
Q

When is the Buffer Stop Assembly put in place? What can be used if no BSA is available.

A

Anytime CDS loads exceed 5,000lbs, can use E-BSA (expendable buffer stop assembly) which is basically cardboard with tie downs.

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43
Q

What is the minimum acceptable altitude for bailout during LLSL?

A

400’ AGL

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44
Q

When doing multiple passes of the same type of load, what checklist do you start with after the completion of drop checklist?

A

10 MIN checklist

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45
Q

You are planning a slowdown to an AD. What speed does the CNI-MU use? What speed should you use for a climbing, level and descending slowdown?

A

The CNI-MU uses 1.5 kts/sec but we should use 2 kts/sec when level, 1.5 kts/sec when descending, and 2.5 kts/sec while climbing

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46
Q

When conducting paratroop door LLSL operations, what is the maximum number of static lines per anchor cable?

A

Each static line can have a maximum of 20 lines per anchor

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47
Q

What is the maximum number of parachutists out the paratroop doors for training? Combat? Ramp-and-door?

A

80 jumpers max (64 peacetime) out paratroop doors, 20 max when going out ramp-and-door

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48
Q

What are the oxygen requirements for MFF?

A

Supplemental Oxygen should be available anytime above 10,000 but below 13,000 for parachutist. Aircrew must have oxygen mask on anytime cabin is above 10,000. Pre-breathing 100% oxygen is required anytime planning to go above 20,000’ and must be done before passing through 16,000’.

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49
Q

HE weight limits

A

2,520-42,000lbs

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50
Q

You are PM on a CDS AD. Inside 1minute, the LM calls a no-drop. State your actions.

A

Immediately go manual and prevent the green light from coming on, then notify DZ control of the no-drop, then do the completion of drop checklist

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51
Q

Before operating the APU, engines, air conditioning or Anti-icing system what must you ensure has been accomplished?

A

Protective devices have been removed and the intakes and exhausts are free of foreign objects before any of the above can be accomplished

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52
Q

In the event that the Wing/Empennage Anti-Ice test fails, what limitations apply to making a further attempt?

A

If the OAT is above 70F (21C) wait at least 10 min prior to next attempt

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53
Q

At what point can our battery no longer be charged? Why?

A

Less than 22V due to the possibility of the battery overheating NATOPS

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54
Q

If during pre-flight operations the APU shutdowns and there is NO associated ACAWS, how many times can it be restarted?

A

The APU may shut down without an associated ACAWS message. If this occurs, maintenance is required prior to APU restart

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55
Q

Before attempting restarts we wait 30 seconds after NG indicates 0%, why do we do this?

A

enable a successful test of the NG independent over-speed protection circuit

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56
Q

Normal hydraulic system operating pressure should be indicated within 30 seconds after the propeller is on speed. However, if this does not occur what could be the reason? How can we correct this?

A

in 30 seconds of the propeller being on speed. Could be because the yoke in full forward position because of the internal bypass of fluid in the elevator boost package, pulling the yoke off the stops by 2-3 inches should return it to normal

57
Q

Normal ground idle should be selected by disengaging LSGI rather than power lever movement, if power levers are moved out of LSGI with ambient air temp above 27 degrees C (81 F) what can happen?

A

RPM stall and over temperature

58
Q

If the crosswind component is above 15 knots what considerations and procedures do we apply to takeoff?

A

Crosswind takeoff procedures as long as its less than 35 knots crosswind component. Keep 2,500 HP set until 35 KIAS then can go full power

59
Q

Though we can exceed VH – We shall never exceed VD even in an emergency

A

Flutter may be encountered which could cause structural damage and the aircraft may pitch nose down into an unrecoverable dive

60
Q

You land the aircraft at 135,000lbs and have to apply maximum anti-skid braking to stop the aircraft. What are your considerations?

A

Ensure adequate brake/tire cooling time prior to further aircraft operation approximate ground cooling time is 65 min if you go before this expect brake failure, wheels and tire overheat, and or tire deflation if an abort is used

61
Q

What does an airfield ESA (Emergency Safe Altitude) provide?

A

computed by adding 1,000’ (2,000’ mountainous FAR Part 95) but round the highest obstacle up to the nearest 100’

62
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance inherent in all departures?

A

All departure procedures are initially assessed for obstacle clearance based on a 40:1 obstacle clearance surface. This provides a minimum of 48ft/nm minimum on all departures

63
Q

What is a low close in obstacle?

A

obstacles that are located within 1nm of the departure end of the runway and penetrate the 40:1 OCS… they are less than 200’ above the departure end of the runway, within 1nm from the runway end, and do not require increased takeoff minimums.

64
Q

What is the 40:1 OIS?

A

Obstacle Identification surface. As mentioned above this is the formula used to identify obstacles and see if standard climbout requirements are sufficient. If not some kind of obstacle departure procedure with higher required minimums must be put into place.

65
Q

What is MEA?

A

Minimum En Route Altitude = lowest published altitude between radio fixes that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes.

66
Q

What is OROCA?

A

Off-route obstruction clearance altitude = off-route altitude that provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000’ buffer in non-mountainous and a 2,000’ in mountainous areas. Looks like the big number with small superscript in IFR charts. This altitude does not guarantee comm or navaid signal

67
Q

What is an MCA?

A

Minimum Crossing Altitude = lowest altitude at certain fixes at which the aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum en route IFR altitude. will be labeled MCA XXXX’ and usually a direction

68
Q

What is a MRA?

A

Minimum reception altitude = lowest altitude along an entire route of flight to establish the minimum altitude the navigation signal can be received for the route and for off-course NAVAID. Looks like a flag with an R in it.

69
Q

How is mountainous terrain defined:

A

Designated mountainous areas include those areas having a terrain differential exceeding 3’000 feet within 10 nautical miles

70
Q

What distance from the shoreline does NATOPS consider a flight to be overwater?

A

Extended over-water flights that operate more than 50nm from any shoreline.

71
Q

You are planning a Long-Range mission and your alternate is 190miles from your destination. What altitude and true airspeed should you plan for the flight to your alternate?

A

because the alternate is within 200 miles… 245 KTAS (4,400 pph) at 10,000MSL these come from approximate long range cruise for standard day @ 125,000 GW and do not include 10% Reserve

72
Q

For an island destination for which no alternate is available, what parameters are used to calculate the holding fuel requirement?

A

2 hours of holding at 20,000 MSL max endurance based on anticipated GW

73
Q

What is the definition of specific range?

A

Vt/Wt specific range = true airspeed divided by total fuel flow, or air nautical miles per pound of fuel

74
Q

What are the three different types of ceilings and their respective definitions?

A

ATC = 500 FPM (feet per MIN), Cruise Ceiling = 300FPM Service Ceiling = 100 FPM, technically there is an absolute ceiling as well 0FPM

75
Q

) In order to maximize specific range, what are the guidelines for strong headwinds?

A

stronger headwinds (greater than 70kts HW component) increase TAS by 4 for every 10 kts above 70 kts total HW component to attain best ground NM per pound of fuel

76
Q

By what percentage will maximum anti-icing increase fuel flow for the same cruise flight condition? What percentage power reduction can be expected with max anti-icing on?

A

Increases fuel flow by 15%, power loss anywhere between 25-30% LRN ASP

77
Q

For what altitudes shall you calculate an ETP?

A

An ETP will be calculated at flight plan cruise altitude and 10,000 feet on four engines and 10,000’ px loss using 245 KTAS

78
Q

What is the definition of Point of Safe Return?

A

Point of safe return is the point in which you can turn around and arrive at the departure airfield with no more or less than the required fuel

79
Q

When shall you accomplish compass deviation checks?

A

Compass deviation checks shall be accomplished every 3 hours or after heading changes of greater than 30 degrees

80
Q

What is the minimum altitude for all tanker evolutions stated in the SRD?

A

Minimum Altitude for all tanker evolutions shall be 500AGL day or night with or without NVGs

81
Q

Approximately how far does a receiver aircraft have to push the hose in before fuel begins to flow?

A

Fuel flows when the hose is pushed in 5’, flow continues provided the hose is maintained in the refueling range 20-80’

82
Q

What is the disengagement force for KC-130 reception couplings when unpressurised and when wet with fuel?

A

420+/- 30lbs when unpressurized. 640+/-55 when px to 55psig

83
Q

How long is the refueling hose? How much trails visibly from the pod during normal ops?

A

93’ of hose of which 85’ of hose trails from the hose reel tunnel

84
Q

Can refueling ops be conducted from a pod without hydraulic power? What limitations and cautions apply?

A

Yes only if you still have auxiliary hydraulics.

85
Q

What limitation on use of AAR Pumps applies to refueling international aircraft?

A

When conducting AAr with international aircraft, KC-130Js are limited to transfer pumps only (AR pumps and pod pumps are prohibited)

86
Q

What defines strategic AAR?

A

missions providing en route refueling for a long range movement of tactical aircraft without viable diverts. Viable divert is considered less than 1 hour for receiver aircraft from the planned route, but can be waived to 2 hours at the commanding officer’s discretion

87
Q

After a pod malfunction, you attempt to guillotine a hose. The guillotine operation fails and you elect to land with a fully trailing hose. What are some of your considerations?

A

If the hose has failed to guillotine, it could depart from the pod at any time. Observe drogue/hose airspeed and flap configuration restrictions.

  • Length of hose remaining out of the aerial refueling pod.
  • Runway surface and the likelihood of snagging the hose on landing
  • location and rigging of runway arresting gear
  • usable runway length and the need to use reversing
  • stability of the hose if the drogue or hose are damaged
  • threat environment and maneuverability
  • location where the hose would land if guillotined
88
Q

Who is responsible for the writing, editing, and distribution of the ATP 56-D?

A

NSO nato standardization office ATP

89
Q

How close can an aircraft equipped with a Basic Airborne Intercept (AI) radar get to a tanker in IMC?

A

500ft and ½ mile

90
Q

While conducting FWAAR, what is the bank angle limitation?

A

A planning assumption of 25AOB is used by tankers for most RV procedural turns mentioned in this chapter.

91
Q

What is the minimum visibility required to conduct a HAAR RV?

A

3nm and is recommended 1000ft of clear sky

92
Q

On an AAR track, where must a helicopter be established prior to initiating a turn?

A

observation or contact at night due to spatial disorientation. There is no verbiage about daytime limitations

93
Q

What are reasons to conduct BREAKAWAY procedures?

A

flight by the receiver judged by the tanker to be erratic, malfunction of either the tanker or receiver aircraft, receiver underrun of the tanker, excessive rate of closure between the tanker and receiver.

94
Q

Where would one find specific capabilities/limitations on both tankers and receivers?

A

Flight Clearance Matrix C3 = no restrictions, C1/2 = clearances are not intended as full fleet clearances and have expiration dates and may contain certain limited envelope or capability or operation restrictions

95
Q

You are tasked with refueling a section of MV-22s and a section of AV-8’s, what would be the most expeditious way to refuel all aircraft?

A

Simultaneous TAAR operations are not permitted, however, the simultaneous refueling of tilt rotor aircraft and fixed wing aircraft is authorized ATP NATO pg 234. MV-22s on left hose and Harriers on right hose.

96
Q

Describe the tanker’s and receiver’s actions in the event of a lost visual call while in a level turn.

A

Tankere will call (Callsign) rolling out heading XXX. Receiver closest to tanker 15 AOB for 15 seconds. Second will go 30 AOB for 30 sec, third will got 45 AOB for 30 sec. If the receivers are on the outside turn away from tanker, if inside turn away from tanker

97
Q

Describe the 4 EMCON levels when referring to AAR.

A

1 - any and all emitters are authorized, talk through the whole AR event
2 - all emitters authorized, essential radio transmissions for flight safety may be made. Will only clear to join and clear to leave.
3 - Radio silent, limited emitters - no radio calls when EMCON 3 just Tacan
4 - No emitters unless authorized by the plan/ROE.

98
Q

In reference to the Minimum Runway Requirements for KC-130J Assault Landing Zone Operations chart, what is the minimum landing distance required for ALZ’s when all pilots are not fully qualified or proficient?

A

Training - Landing 3000ft or ground roll +1000ft whichever is greater. T/O - 3000ft or ground run +1000ft or AMFLMETO + 500ft whichever is greater

99
Q

In reference to the Minimum Runway Requirements for KC-130J Assault Landing Zone Operations chart, what is the minimum takeoff distance required for ALZ’s when all pilots are fully qualified or proficient?

A

Sustainment Training - Landing is ground roll +500ft with 4 engine reverse and full brakes. No wind. 150% tailwind. T/O - ground run +500ft, AMEFLMETO, whichever is greater. No wind or 150% tailwind

100
Q

When passing over the intended point of landing for the first time during the Random High Approach, what altitude and airspeed should the aircraft be at and in what configuration?

A

4,500AGL, 140kias, gear down flaps 100%, before landing checklist complete

101
Q

) What should be the minimum and maximum airspeeds in which an IR-cooled descent can be flown?

A

Should be between 210-250kias not to exceed VH

102
Q

You are tasked into a concrete ALZ. Describe how you will check if the ALZ can support your aircraft weight.

A

Concrete paved = R/Rigid a high strength airfield (NATOPS 4-9)
Take your GW and figure out what is your ACN NATOPS 4-50
PCN must be greater than ACN

103
Q

While executing an IR-cooled descent, what must be entered into the LEGS page in order to receive an accurate TOD on the Nav/Radar display?

A

Must put an altitude with/C at the bottom or the CNI cannot calculate a TOD ALZ ASP

104
Q

When crossing over the midpoint of the runway while executing an Abeam Approach, how many seconds should you delay until turning downwind?

A

5 seconds with the throttles at idle

105
Q

What is the minimum runway and taxiway width for ALZ operations?

A

Taxiways should be 60ft but no less than 40ft. Runways no less than 60ft because of the Vmcg 30ft max deviation

106
Q

What is the maximum tire deflection when conducting ALZs?

A

35%

107
Q

Name some of the precautions when operating on marginal strength or substandard airfields

A

Aircraft should be prepared, FOD screens for Taxi lights, tape lower antennas, reduce tire pressure per ground flotation charts (ALZ ASP). Fields can only take so many passes before the aircraft will create ruts and no longer be operationally viable

108
Q

What is an FLCV? How many does each fuel tank have?

A

Fuel Level Control Valves. Outboard tanks have three, two used for wing flex the other is operational (for receiving fuel not in Marine Hercs). All other tanks have one and they are spring loaded closed, electrically opened

109
Q

How is the cross-ship manifold connected to the AAR manifold?

A

The interconnect valves isolate the AR manifold and the cross-ship manifold during AR pump operations.

110
Q

What are the boost and transfer pump pressures?

A

Each main tank has a 15-24 PSI ac powered boost pump. An additional 28-40 PSI AC-powered transfer pump is in each tank

111
Q

You are on an overwater leg with full fuel, planning to land with 9,000lbs. The LM asks which tank you would like to cross-feed from first. What is your response? Why?

A

When overwater we always transfer from auxiliary tanks due to its one transfer pump and if that fuel is trapped you want to know right away

112
Q

From which tank is the APU fed? How much fuel must be present for the APU to run via gravity feed? How can you get around this?

A

2, 2000lbs, turning boost pump on through run on start switch.

113
Q

After losing 2 engines, you need to dump fuel as fast as possible. How is this achieved? At what rate can you dump fuel with and without a fuselage tank?

A

By opening all the transfer pumps, they are electrically driven and have nothing to do with the engine so even with a shut down engine transfer pumps still work.
Fuse rate - 5,440 lb/min W/O fuse - 3,900 lb/min

114
Q

If dumping to minimum fuel, how much fuel will be left in each main tank? Why must XFEED switches be closed for dumping operations?

A

1520lbs NATOPS 2-35
The crossfeed valves must be closed to prevent all of the fuel in the main tanks from being dumped overboard (fuel syphoning)

115
Q

What restriction applies to the use of reverse thrust after experiencing a fuel leak from an engine?

A

Do not use reverse thrust when landing with a known or suspected fuel leak. If reverse thrust is used, the possibility of a wing fire from an external fuel leak (running type) is increased

116
Q

State the operating, proof and burst limitations of the AAR manifold.

A

The pressures for the AR manifold are 120 psi operating, 240 psi proof, and 360 psi burst

117
Q

What is the required visual acuity to be obtained when pre-flight focusing the AN/AVS-9 NVGs?

A

20/30 while viewing a high contrast target under high illumination conditions, although 20/25 may be achievable

118
Q

The illumination level is 0.0022lux. Is this high or low light? At what height can you fly an NS TACNAV?

A

.0022Lux is considered high light, anything below this is low light conditions
500’ in LLL or HLL

119
Q

Describe the electromagnetic spectrum and state the range in which the AN/AVS-9’s operate.

A

The Electromagnetic spectrum contains the entire spectrum of radiant energy which exists in this world. We see the visible spectrum at .4-.7 Each part of the spectrum is affected differently by the environment (pg 17). The photocathode used in AN/AVS-9 NVG image intensifier tubes has a response from.4-.95 microns (peak sensitivity between .6 and .9 microns) Visible and Near IR spectrum

120
Q

Identify and describe the symptoms of fatigue.

A

Acute - intense exhaustion felt because of the natural build-up of muscular metabolic wastes

Cumulative - less intense than acute fatigue and is characterized as an accumulation of fatigue over time, aka days or weeks

circadian fatigue -switching from nights to days with big swings in hours awake and asleep (pg 181)

Symptoms - C3I2 - Complacency, computational performance, communication, irrational decisions, and irritability

121
Q

You are on an NS TACNAV and are forced to weather penetrate and climb to MSA. You see on TAWS that you are flying towards high density green. What does this mean? Should you fly into it at your current altitude?

A

HD Red - More than 2,000 ft above current
HD Yellow - 1k-2k above current altitude
LD Yellow - between 1k above and 250’ below
HD green - 250’ below and 1k below
LD green - 1k and 2k below
Black - 2k below and beyond
Magenta - Unknown

122
Q

You are operating on an NS TACNAV and the bottom strobe is flashing against the ground and distracting you. Must you have it switched on? What if the top strobe is inop?

A

When required, navigation/position lights shall be set to the highest intensity consisted with NVD compatibility and anti-collision lights shall be set to on
ANTTP 3-12 - Top anti-collision outside restricted airspace top is covert bottom is on (overt only)

123
Q

State the nomenclature for the 5 defensive systems that may be fitted to the KC-130J.

A

ALE -47 Countermeasures dispensing system (CMDS)
ALR - 56M Radar Warning Receiver (RWR)
AAR-47 Missile Warning Set (MWS)
ALQ-157 Infrared Countermeasures (IRCM)
AAQ-24 Large Aircraft Infrared Countermeasures (LAIRCM)

124
Q

How many CMDS dispensers are they and where are they located?

A

18 Dispensers - Nose x2, Arm pits x 8l, pylon x 4, tail x2 NATIP 15-28

125
Q

How many remote dispensing switches do we fly with?

A

3 switches, ACS and rear windows

126
Q

How many CMDS safety switches are there and how are they operated?

A

There are five safety switches located in the left hand cargo compartment

127
Q

How long must the IRCM be allowed to cool down for after being operated? What is the recommended time?

A

12 minutes up. IRCM cold down be accomplished with the #3 engine at high-speed to ensure the 15 minute cycle is completed. As little as 5 seconds may be used to meet mission requirements

128
Q

When is dispensing inhibited?

A

WOW, flaps greater than 15% no pylon chaff ONLY, power to AR pod no chaff OR flares

129
Q

How does RWR operation/display affect TCAS operation/display?

A

When RWR and TCAS are displayed simultaneously on the a single NAV-Radar display, RWR info is given a higher priority. This prioritization causes delays of up to 8 seconds on the TCAS color and shape. In order to ensure timely TCAS updates, display each overlay individually on separate Nav-Radars

130
Q

How many missile warnings can be displayed at once and what are all of the indications?

A

PRI: 5 highest priority threats
OFF: 12 highest pri threats
RWR SRCH or SHOW UNK: 16 threats can be displayed

131
Q

Describe the conditions necessary to jettison countermeasures.

A

Safety pins removed, in OPR or STBY, Jettison guard raised and switch activated. Intended for emergency use only. If CMDS has failed in flight, BYP mode must be used to Jettison.

132
Q

State the 7 requirements for VMCA3.

A
  1. ATCS operational.
  2. No. 1 engine failed with the propeller auto-feathered.
  3. Maximum takeoff power commanded on all remaining engines.
  4. Maximum rudder deflection limited by 150 pounds of rudder pedal force or maximum rudder control surface
    deflection.
  5. Zero rudder trim.
  6. Minimum flying weight.
  7. A bank angle ≤5 degrees away from the failed engine. (As required to maintain heading).
133
Q

State the 8 requirements for VMCG.

A
  1. No. 1 engine failed with the propeller auto-feathered.
  2. Maximum takeoff power on all remaining engines.
  3. ATCS operating.
  4. Maximum rudder deflection limited by 150 pounds of rudder pedal force or maximum rudder control surface
    deflection.
  5. Flaps set at 50 percent.
  6. Minimum takeoff weight.
  7. No nosewheel steering required.
  8. Maximum lateral deviation from initial runway track of 30 feet
134
Q

How does ME threshold speed relate to stall speed?

A
  1. Flaps 100 percent: Vs × 1.32.
  2. Flaps 50 percent: Vs × 1.28.
  3. Flaps 0 percent: Vs × 1.28.
  4. Max effort: 1.1 Vs + 5.5 KIAS.
  5. Vs = Power-off stall speed.
135
Q

During an aborted takeoff, what speed must you be below prior to selecting the throttles below Flt Idle? Why?

A

Do not move the power levers below FLT IDLE above 139 KTAS due to the possibility of an over frequency condition caused by excessively high propeller RPM transients leading to all engine-driven generators tripping off-line. Anti-skid protection will be lost resulting in increased stopping distance, possible loss of directional control and damage to the gear doors if hard braking is applied causing the main tires to fail.

136
Q

What do you do if the receivers don’t show up?

A

8 minute intervals to IP/CP. HAAR= Hold between IP and CP. FWARR/TAAR = Hold between CP and TP. Speed = 170? (NATO-SRD)

137
Q

Pallet Position Weights

A

Pallet position weight limits
1-4: 10,000Lbs
5: 8,500 Lbs
6(ramp) : 4,664 lbs

138
Q

Duty Day Restrictions (24, 18, 15, 12, 10)

A

crew duty time should commence 2 hours prior to T/O and terminate 1 hour after engine shutdown (Natops 5-2

24 hours - For augmented crew in an aircraft with a functioning autopilot and crew berthing facilities, crew duty day should not exceed 24 hours. In an aircraft not so equipped, the max should not exceed 18 hours. Natops 5-2

18 hours - for a normal crew in an aircraft equipped with a functional autopilot, crew duty should not exceed 18 hours if commenced from 0500-1659. If 18 hours reached should have 15 hours of rest. (CNAF 8-14)

15 hours - if commenced from 1700-0459

12 hours - if no autopilot max crew day is 12 hours.
For continuous wear NVD missions, crew day for aircrew using nvd shall be 12 hours if it terminates prior to 2400 (Wing Order aviation ops pg 8)

10 hours - if NVD flight terminates after 2400 then 10 hours.

NATOPS (14 decks)

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