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NATOPS > QRH > Flashcards

QRH Flashcards

1
Q

Very first thing you do when you encounter an emergency.

A

Stabilize the aircraft and climb to a safe altitude above 1000’ AGL before conducting any crew actions.

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2
Q

What are some irreversible actions that require confirmation by 2 crewmembers?

A

Pulling FIRE handle
Engine Start switch to STOP
Discharging a fire extinguisher
Dumping fuel

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3
Q

Which ECBs do you not reset if tripped?

A

fuel system pumps or FLCVs

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4
Q

ACAWS messages preceded by what indicate that an ECB has tripped?

A

3 digit number

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5
Q

APU fire is detected by what system?

A

F/ODS

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6
Q

ENG 1 (2,3,4) MGT HI = MGT is above what temp?

A

852

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7
Q

Chopping locations are marked in what color on the interior of the fuselage? On the exterior?

A

Yellow / Black

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8
Q

Emergency signal for ground evacuation?

A

One long sustained ring

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9
Q

Ground Evacuation Procedure

A 
Parking Brake - Set
Tower - Notify
Pressurization - EMER DEPRESS
Exits - Open (as req)
FIRE handles all engines and APU - Pull
Crew/pax - Notify to evacuate the aircraft
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10
Q

If hot brakes are suspected or main wheel well fire exists, what do you do?

A

Set opposite brake only or chock nose gear only

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11
Q

What do you do with electrical equipment if there’s been a fuel spill?

A

Do not turn on or off until aircraft has been cleaned/flushed to remove fuel and fuel vapors

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12
Q

What do you pull the engine FIRE handle and place the ENGINE START switch to STOP for during engine starts?

A 
ENG FIRE
ENG MGT HI
START VLV OPEN
MGT rapidly approaches or exceeds 807
Visible indications of fire
Visible fluid leak near the engine
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13
Q

What do you place the ENGINE START switch to STOP for during an engine start?

A 
No NG within 10 seconds
No indication of oil px within 15 secs of NG and NP rotation
ENG FLAMEOUT
ENG NO LIGHTOFF
STAGNATED START
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14
Q

What system px should be indicated within 30 seconds after the propeller is on speed?

A

Normal hydraulic system operating px

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15
Q

How many fire extinguishers are there?

A

4

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16
Q

How many hand axes are there?

A

2

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17
Q

How many emergency exit lights are there?

A

8

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18
Q

How many first aid kits are there?

A

22

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19
Q

How many escape ropes are there?

A

3

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20
Q

What are the two factors to consider when making the decision to abort?

A
  1. the seriousness of the malfunction or other degraded conditions
  2. airspeed
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21
Q

When are the aural alerts for most advisories and most cautions and some warnings inhibited?

A

during takeoff roll from 70-140 KIAS and below 400 ft radar altitude

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22
Q

Abort Procedure

A

Abort - Announce
Power Levers- GND IDLE
Brakes and NWS - as req

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23
Q

If you’re aborting, do not move the power levers below FLT IDLE above what airspeed and why?

A

139 KTAS
due to the possibility of an over frequency condition caused by excessively high propeller RPM transients leading to all engine-driven generators tripping offline.

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24
Q

If you’re aborting with an inboard engine shut down, when do you move the power levers below FLT IDLE and why?

A

not above 70 KTAS

may cause a loss of directional control

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25
Q

During an abort or landing, forward pressure on the yoke does what?

A

increases the nosewheel load and improves ground tracking

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26
Q

At the first indication of directional control difficulties during four engine reverse, what do you do?

A

immediately return all power levers to GND IDLE until the affected engine can be identified.
Use rudder, aileron, NWS, differential power and diff braking as req

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27
Q

If loose material is present on the runway, when do you stop reversing?

A

by 50 KIAS

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28
Q

Engine Failure Below Refusal Speed Procedure

A

Aborted Takeoff procedure - Perform

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29
Q

Engine Failure After Refusal Speed Procedure

A

Takeoff - Continue
Directional Control - Maintain
Aircraft Attitude - Rotate to target pitch

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30
Q

What are the target pitch attitude and takeoff trim setting chosen for?

A

So that if the critical engine fails btwn refusal and rotate speed, the aircraft will be ~ in longitudinal trim at Vobs passing 50 foot height.

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31
Q

Why does retracting gear and flaps simultaneously increase Vmca?

A

reduction in available hydraulic pressure to the rudder booster assembly

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32
Q

Selecting the flap lever to a position less than 15% increases Vmca by how much? and why?

A

36 kts

because of the reduction in rudder boost px and the ATCS power restoration schedule

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33
Q

What speed is the worst case Vmca with flaps up and low boost?

A

135 kts

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34
Q

What is the normal retraction schedule?

A

<100,000: raise flaps accelerating thru FUSS (135)

100,000-140,000: begin flap retraction when accelerating thru 135 and end at FUSS (Vobs +25kts)

> 140,000: begin raising flaps at MFRS (Vobs+5kts) in 10% increments for each 5 kts increase in airspeed ending at FUSS (Vobs + 25kts)

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35
Q

Engine Fire Shutdown Procedure

A

FIRE handle - Pull
Agent - Discharge (if req)
ENGINE START switch - STOP

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36
Q

How long do you wait after discharging the first bottle before discharging the second?

A

15 secs

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37
Q

APU Fire Procedure

A

APU Fire Handle - Pull

Agent - Discharge

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38
Q

What should you do in the event of a wing fire?

A 
Close all crossfeed switches
Turn off affected wing hyd pumps
Close ISO Valve and Nacelle SOV
Turn off all electrical equipment on that wing
Turn off all Pod equipment
Sideslip to keep fire away from fuselage
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39
Q

How should you approach hot brakes?

A

from the fore or aft of the wheel area

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40
Q

How far away should you stand from hot brakes?

A

300 ft

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41
Q

If a fire is near an oxygen component or there is a possibility that the oxygen could increase the fire, consider doing what?

A

closing the oxygen manual shutoff valve, provided portable oxygen bottles are adequate for the situation.

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42
Q

Fire/Smoke/Fumes Elimination Procedure

A

Crew/Pax - Notify

Oxygen - EMERGENCY, 100%, ON (ALL)

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43
Q

Doing what greatly assists in elimination of fire?

A

depressurization at altitude due to lack of oxygen

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44
Q

When should you conduct load shedding?

A

as a last resort when the malfunctioning unit cannot be located.

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45
Q

How many operating generators are required to restore LH and RH AC buses?

A

2

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46
Q

Rapid Decompression Procedure

A

OXYGEN - NORMAL, 100%, ON (ALL)

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47
Q

In an emergency descent due to rapid decompression, what should you consider doing?

A

using the autopilot and autothrottles during descent. Select IAS mode and set the altitude select to the level off altitude

48
Q

If an outboard engine experiences large HP oscillations when the aircraft is below Vmpr, what does the opposite outboard engine do?

A

reacts with corresponding ATCS oscillations.

49
Q

What is the autofeather criteria?

A

No. 1 & 4 autofeather automatically
No. 2 & 3 either autofeather or remain windmilling at 100%
If below 15,500 ft and 3 other engines are running normally an inboard will autofeather after a 2 sec delay to give the engine time to recover.
At or above 15,500 ft or if another engine is shut down, the inboard windmills at 100%

50
Q

Airstart envelope for JP-5/8 and Jet A

A

<250 KIAS and <25,000 ft

51
Q

Airstart envelope for JP-4

A

<250 KIAS and <22,500 ft

52
Q

Four Engine Flameout Procedure

A 
Aircraft attitude - Adjust to maintain 15-28% NG
Power levers (all) - FLT IDLE
CROSS FEED switches - CLSD
No. 2 & 3 Engine Start switches - Stop, Start, Release
No. 1 & 4 Engine Start switches - Stop, Start, Release
53
Q

Why do we select inboard engines first during a four engine flameout?

A

because at least one of them will have 100% NP

54
Q

Why do we select STOP on the engine start switches first during a four engine flameout?

A

to prevent the loss of all hydraulic and generator power and to clear the FAIL condition before an outboard switch is placed to START.

Placing the engine switch to RUN before the FAIL message is cleared will cause the windmilling prop to autofeather because the MC autofeather logic will determine that an engine is running as soon as START is selected.

55
Q

How can you tell a prop is feathered?

A

Forward rotation up to 1/2 revolution/sec

56
Q

How long does the aux feather pump run for?

A

20 seconds

57
Q

Feathering is limited to how many commands?

A

4

58
Q

When is a feather command counted?

A

each time the FIRE handle is pulled or the PROPELLER CONTROL switch is placed to FEATHER.

59
Q

Propeller Windmilling Limitations

Prop fx’d and fire handle pulled

A

complete airstart within 6 cumulative hours and run for 20 mins to reset the 6 hour limit

60
Q

Propeller Windmilling Limitations

Prop fx’d, fire handle in, NG <7%

A

within 3 minutes or accelerate to increase NG above 7% (165 KIAS) or pull the FIRE HANDLE

61
Q

Propeller Windmilling Limitations

Prop fx’d, fire handle in, NG > or equal to 7%

A

within 20 minutes or pull the FIRE HANDLE

62
Q

Propeller Windmilling Limitations

Prop windmilling at 100%

A

within 5 minutes or pull the FIRE HANDLE

63
Q

Why do we not extend flaps greater than 50% until landing is assured with a failed engine?

A

provides an easier configuration for a go-around

64
Q

If you trip all the generators offline, what else do you lose? What could happen?

A

Anti-skid protection is lost resulting in increased stopping distance, possible loss of directional control, and damage to the gear doors if hard braking is applied causing the main tires to fail

65
Q

Wind from which side of the aircraft is better for directional control on the runway (one engine inoperative)?

A

from the shutdown engine side

66
Q

Wind from which side of the aircraft is better for top rudder correction for runway alignment (one engine inoperative)?

A

opposite the shutdown engine side

67
Q

When landing with one engine inoperative in a crosswind, when are the benefits of blade angle scheduling not available?

A

if power levers are brought below FLT IDLE above 115 kts when crosswinds from opposite the failed engine are above 15 kts

68
Q

Enroute with Two Engines Inoperative

Flaps should be at least 20% below what airspeed?

A

210

69
Q

Enroute with Two Engines Inoperative

Below ____ ft, maintain airspeed at or above ___ or ___ (if higer) until required to slow down on the approach

A

10,000

175 or Vmca2

70
Q

Operations with No. 1 & 2 engines out are marginal at gross weights above what?

A

120,000 lbs

71
Q

Approach and Landing with Two Engines Inoperative

Whenever operating below published Vmca2, how can and should you manipulate the power levers?

A

Inboard power lever can be advanced to Takeoff but the outboard power lever should be advanced slowly, and only as far as rudder control allows.

72
Q

Approach and Landing with Two Engines Inoperative

Crosswinds from which side are preferred?

A

failed engine side, but make lineup for touchdown more difficult

73
Q

Approach and Landing with Two Engines Inoperative

Commitment to land should be made by when?

A

500 feet above the runway

74
Q

Approach and Landing with Two Engines Inoperative

What should weather be to land?

A

500 feet above the published minimums to allow altitude to add power and airspeed to execute a missed approach.

75
Q

Approach and Landing with Two Engines Inoperative

What kind of approach do you want to fly?

A

a shallow AOB approach turn to a long straight-in ILS

76
Q

If normal and anti-skid braking is not available, any braking before when may cause tires to fail?

A

before aircraft slows 30 KIAS below touchdown speed

77
Q

If No. 1 and 2 are out, what do you lose?

A

Wing flaps and MLG have to be operated manually
Aux system to lower NLG
Aux system for emergency brake operation
Flight controls boost to be supplied by booster system
NWS and anti skid not operative

78
Q

If you have a fuselage tank installed and an external fuel leak, what should you do and why?

A

Depressurize the aircraft. It will prevent aircraft pressurization from forcing fuel from the fuselage tank thru a ruptured AR manifold.

79
Q

What should you NOT do when landing with a fuel leak? and why?

A

Reverse thrust. Possibility of a wing fire is increased

80
Q

How do you dump the most fuel in the least time?

A

Dump the fuselage tank fuel first using the AR pumps and transfer fuel from other tanks into fuselage tank to be dumped

81
Q

Minimum altitude to dump fuel

A

6000’ AGL

82
Q

Which pumps are disabled when any ICE PROTECTION PROPELLERS switch is in any position other than off?

A

Fuselage AR pumps

83
Q

Hose Rapid Trail Procedure

A

Call - Rapid Trail
RWND/TRAIL LSK and verify LSK - Select
Report Status

84
Q

What constitutes a “RAPID TRAIL” call?

A

subsequent white hose marking bands appearing from pod tunnel every 1 second or less

85
Q

What are some factors to consider in making the decision to land with a hose extended or to guillotine it?

A
  1. Length of hose remaining out of pod
  2. Runway surface and likelihood of snagging the hose
  3. location and rigging of runway arresting gear
  4. usable runway length and the need to reverse
  5. stability of the hose if the drogue or hose are damaged
  6. location of where hose would land if guillotined
86
Q

Broken Hose Procedure

A

Broken Hose - Announce
CNI-MU POD CTRL pg 1/2 HYD PWR LSK - confirm OFF
CNI-MU POD CTRL pg 1/2 MSTR PWR LSK - Off

87
Q

Total AC Power Failure

Do not attempt to start the APU if battery voltage is below what? And why?

A

23 volts

a voltage transient may cause an unrecoverable loss of essential equipment

88
Q

Total AC Power Failure

If one or more crossfeed valves were open at the time of failure, do they remain open or close?

A

Open and could cause fuel starvation/engine flameout

89
Q

How many minutes do the batteries provide emergency dc power?

A

30

90
Q

What are the two categories of ECBU failures?

A

conventional and data bus communication failures

91
Q

What is a conventional ECBU failure?

A

results from a power loss or internal fault

all subordinate components lose power

92
Q

What is a data bus communication ECBU failure?

A

occurs when the ECBU interface with the 1553 data bus fails

subordinate components generally fail in their last commanded state

93
Q

Is the standby attitude indicator RVSM compliant?

A

No

94
Q

The engine-driven hydraulic pump is geared directly to what?

A

GMAD

95
Q

Hydraulic System Pressure LO/LOSS/LEAK Procedure

A

ENGINE PUMPS switches (affected system) - OFF

SUCTION BOOST PUMPS switch (affected system) - OFF

96
Q

Is the hydraulic system operational following a suction boost pump failure?

A

Yes if no hydraulic leak exists and the affected hydraulic system pressure is at least 2500 psi

97
Q

If at any time hydraulic fluid is seen leaking from an engine, turn what off? and why?

A

engine-driven pump because of risk of fire. A line or pump rupture can dump hydraulic fluid into the engine

98
Q

Why do we not want to shut off hydraulic engine pumps if pressure exceeds 3500 psi?

A

if you do.. the pressure line btwn the hyd pump and the shutoff valve is isolated from its means of pressure control. Excessive pressure will build up until the hyd pump or line ruptures, dumping this fluid into the engine nacelle

99
Q

If hydraulic pressure is greater than 3750 psi, what has likely failed?

A

loss of system pressure relief valve and a failed hydraulic pump compensator

100
Q

How do you stop the aircraft if your brakes have failed and you only have the hand pump?

A

holding the brake pedals down and operating the hand pump

101
Q

What’s an indication of a mechanical failure of the rudder (vice a hydraulic one)?

A

the free movement of the rudder pedals with no corresponding yawing moment, and/or visible damage to the rudder linkage in the aft cargo compartment

102
Q

What’s an indication of a hydraulic failure of the rudder (vice a mechanical one)?

A

rudder can be moved manually with greatly increased effort

103
Q

If you place the ELEV TAB power selector switch to EMER or OFF, what will disengage?

A

autopilot

104
Q

If the ELEV TAB is in EMER, can you operate the trim on the control wheel?

A

No. Must use the trim switch on the center console only

105
Q

Protection against asymmetrical extension or retraction of the flaps is provided only when what’s available?

A

when DC power and utility hydraulic pressure are simultaneously available

106
Q

How can you operate the flaps if the flap electrical control system fails? where is this thing located?

A

manually operated wing flap selector valve, located on the utility hydraulic panel

107
Q

What is the purpose of a controllability check?

A

To determine the minimum safe airspeed to maintain during approach and landing.

108
Q

If you get a wing/empennage ice protection zone overheat ACAWS, when should you turn off the that ice protection system?

A

until clear of icing conditions for at least 6 minutes

109
Q

What is the speed correction if landing with ice accumulation for 0% flap setting? Do you add a gust factor?

A

+20 knots, do not add gust factor

110
Q

What is the speed correction if landing with ice accumulation for 50% flap setting? Do you add a gust factor?

A

+10 knots, do not add gust factor

111
Q

What is the speed correction if landing with ice accumulation for 100% flap setting? Do you add a gust factor?

A

+6 knots, add gust factor up to 10 kts cumulative total

112
Q

Windshear/GCAS PULL UP/TAWS PULL Alert Recovery Procedure

A

Takeoff Power - Set
Aircraft Attitude - Wings level, nose up
Radar Altitude, airspeed, and sink rate - Call out

113
Q

During a Windshear/GCAS PULL UP/TAWS PULL Alert Recovery Procedure, how high do you want to pitch up and what airspeed do you want to maintain?

A

15 degrees nose up, then adjust pitch to maintain 10 kts above the stall warning caret

114
Q

If tires on the same side are flat, how do you want to land on the runway?

A

Land on the side of the runway with the good tires. Put drag in the middle

115
Q

If you need runway foam, how much should you request?

A

3000 ft long and 30 ft wide

116
Q

What does an ACAWS with an asterisks mean?

A

that multiple components may be affected as a result of the listed failure

117
Q

Where do you find the special procedure checklists?

A

White pages of the QRH

NATOPS (14 decks)

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