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Flashcards in INSTRUMENTS 2 LESSON REVIEW Deck (241):
1

1. What is the key to successful instrument flight?

Thorough preflight planning

2

2. Name two major items used during preflight planning.

-Flight Information Publications (FLIP);
-Notices to Airman (NOTAMs)

3

3. What is the name used for the phase of flight where the aircraft is maneuvered from takeoff to the enroute structure, operating area, or back to the takeoff airfield?

Instrument departure

4

4. What maneuver would you expect to fly if it was necessary to await further clearance from air traffic control?

Holding

5

5. True or false? An enroute descent is a published maneuver used to transition from high altitude enroute cruise to instrument final approach.

FALSE. An enroute descent is a non-published procedure that may be flown via controller instructions or using NAVAIDs.

6

6. What are the key differences between a precision and non-precision instrument final approach?

a. A precision approach provides both course and glidepath information and ends at a point called Decision Altitude (DA).
b. A non-precision approach provides course information only and ends at a point called the Missed Approach Point (MAP).

7

7. To safely complete a transition from an instrument approach to a visual landing you must know:

-What constitutes the landing environment
-Appropriate techniques for transitioning from instrument to visual flight
-Impact of visual illusions during transition to landing and how to combat them

8

1. T or F? The ITO is a composite visual and instrument takeoff. (B/1/1)

TRUE

9

2. Select the situation where you would perform an ITO. (B/1/2)
a. Toward or over water
b. Night takeoffs
c. Desert areas
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

10

3. After liftoff during an ITO, you should be committed to ______ due to the potential of spatial disorientation. (B/1/3)

attitude instrument flying procedures

11

4. T or F? The gear is raised when the altimeter alone indicates a positive rate of climb. (B/1/4)

FALSE. Cross-check both the VSI and Altimeter for a positive rate of climb.

12

5. Where would you normally look for a published departure? (B/2/1)

In the FLIP Terminal High and/or Low Altitude book that covers the state where the departure airfield's located.

13

6. What does the inverted black triangle, "Trouble T", indicate? (B/2/2)

The black inverted triangle, "Trouble T", indicates that published obstacle departure procedures may exist for the airfield.

May also only indicate that takeoff weather minimums for the airfield are "nonstandard". Nonstandard weather takeoff minimums in FLIP do not apply to USAF or USN aircraft.

14

10. If a controller issues a clearance to "climb and maintain" or "maintain" a specific altitude without including other altitude restrictions in that clearance, you may disregard the DP's altitude restrictions, but you must continue to fly the DP ______ .(B/2/6)

must continue to fly the DP route.

15

11. Flying a DP, a controller gives you a heading that takes you off the DP/DP TRANSITION and does not provide any additional information. You should _______. (B/2/7)

consider the DP cancelled

16

1. The takeoff attitude for an ITO is ______.

a normal takeoff based on visual cues with transition to instruments at the same rate as loss of visual cues.

17

2. During an ITO, retract the gear and flaps with a positive climb indication on the ______.

VSI and altimeter

18

3. When will the procedures and techniques used in an ITO help maintain your situational awareness?
a. At night
b. Over water
c. Desert areas
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

19

4. To ensure you are ready for an IFR departure, what should you have?
a. Current publications
b. Departure procedures
c. An ATC clearance and an understanding of the departure
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

20

5. Which item is NOT provided by a DP?
a. Communication frequencies
b. Departure route description
c. Radar vectors
d. Minimum rates of climb

c. Radar vectors

21

6. An instrument departure is a maneuver used to safely take the aircraft to the ______.
a. next altitude restriction
b. next controlling agency
c. next phase of flight
d. high altitude structure

c. next phase of flight

22

7. A departure that has a published route and altitude restriction is called a ______.

Departure Procedure

23

8. A ontroller issues a clearance to “climb and maintain” or “maintain” an altitude different than on a DP. You continue to fly the DP route and ______.
a. resume the DP altitude restrictions
b. disregard all of the remaining DP altitude restrictions
c. ask the controller for clarifications on altitudes
d. expect radar vectors

b. disregard all of the remaining DP altitude restrictions

24

1. T or F? ATC will only issue an in-flight clearance if requested by the pilot. (B/1/1)

FALSE. Other things that can lead to either you requesting or ATC initiating and issuing a change to your clearance are:
-Weather changes
-other aircraft traffic
-NAVAID outages
-a change in your destination airfield

25

2. When receiving a new in-flight clearance, you should read back any ______ the controller gives you. (B/1/2)
a. weather information
b. altimeter settings
c. altitude and/or heading assignments
d. B and C

d. B and C
altimeter settings
altitude and/or heading assignments

26

3. T or F? In a nonstandard holding pattern, all turns are made to the right. (B/2/1)

FALSE. Nonstandard holding is accomplished using LEFT turns. Except for turn direction, nonstandard holding procedures are identical to a standard holding pattern.

27

5. Holding can be accomplished at ______. (B/2/3)
a. aVOR
b. a VORTAC
c. an intersection
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

28

7. Which of the following IS NOT an AIM holding entry procedure? (B/2/5)
a. Parallel entry
b. Standard entry
c. Teardrop entry
d. Direct entry

b. Standard entry

29

8. You are established in a VOR holding pattern at 13,000 feet MSL. How long should the second inbound leg be? (B/2/6)

1 minute

-Above 14,000 MSL, 1.5 minutes inbound
-At or below 14,000 MSL, 1 minute inbound

30

1. What type of clearance should you expect if you have major changes to your flight plan enroute?
a. A new ATC clearance
b. ATC will not accept any major changes to an enroute flight plan.
c. You must land at the nearest field and refile your flight plan.
d. ATC will only change your altitude enroute.

a. A new ATC clearance

31

2. When you are reading back a clearance to ATC, you should read back ______.

Altitudes
Altitude restrictions
Headings

32

3. What FLIP planning document contains specific information on maximum holding airspeeds, holding patterns, and how controllers will issue holding instructions?

FLIP General Planning

33

4. When are you considered established in the holding pattern?

Upon initial passage of the holding fix

34

5. You were given clearance to hold enroute at an unpublished holding fix and the controller did not specify the direction of turn. What type of holding pattern will you fly and when would you begin to slow to holding airspeed?
a. Nonstandard and three minutes prior to the fix
b. Standard and three minutes prior to the fix
c. Standard and crossing the fix
d. Nonstandard and crossing the fix

b. Standard and three minutes prior to the fix

35

6. When do you begin timing outbound in a VOR holding pattern?
a. Prior to crossing the fix
b. Prior to crossing the fix or when in your turn to the outbound leg
c. 45° to the abeam position
d. Over or abeam the holding fix but if unable to determine the abeam position when wings-level outbound

d. Over or abeam the holding fix but if unable to determine the abeam position when wings-level outbound

36

7. Which of the following defines a nonstandard holding pattern?
a. Holding altitude is below 14,000 feet.
b. All turns are away from the holding side.
c. The holding fix is not co-located with the NAVAID.
d. The holding pattern consists of left-hand turns.

d. The holding pattern consists of left-hand turns.

37

8. For an AIM teardrop entry, turn ______ to a heading for a ______° teardrop entry on the holding side.
a. outbound; 30
b. outbound; 45
c. toward the holding fix; 30
d. left; 45

a. outbound; 30

38

1. After liftoff during an ITO, you should be committed to attitude instrument flying procedures due to
the potential for ______. (B/1/1)

spatial disorientation

39

2. Before retracting gear and flaps, you should have indications of positive rate of climb on the ______. (B/1/2)

VSI
Altimeter

40

3. Which DP types should be flown to the maximum extent possible? (B/1/3)

a. Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs)
b. Obstacle Departures (ODPs)

41

4. ______ensure obstacle clearance at airfields which have published instrument approaches but no published instrument departures? (B/1/4)

Diverse departures

42

5. True or false? AETC pilots are required to read back all in-flight clearance information. (C/1/1)

False. AETC Pilots are only required to read back numbers. Read back additional clearance information for clarification as necessary.

43

6. Holding fixes may be defined ______. (C/2/1)

- directly over a NAVAID (VOR/NDB)
- using a radial and DME from a NAVAID
- at a GPS Waypoint
- at a published intersection

44

7. What are the three AIM holding entry procedures? (C/2/2)

Parallel
Teardrop
Direct

45

1. How fast do you transition to instrument references during an instrument takeoff (ITO)? What is the pitch attitude for an ITO?

a. Transition at the rate outside references become unreliable.
b. Rotate to 7-10° nose high at 85 KIAS

46

2. What are the only USAF methods of instrument departures?

Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)
ATC Departure Instructions
Diverse Departure
Special MAJCOM Certification

47

3. The maximum length of an inbound leg of a holding pattern above 14,000 feet MSL is ______.

1.5 minutes

48

4. What is the only difference in entry procedures for a nonstandard versus standard holding pattern?

Entry turns are made in the opposite direction.

49

1. T or F? When performing an enroute descent you should specify the type of approach you desire. (B/1/1)

TRUE

50

2. Performing a pilot discretion descent allows the pilot to ______. (B/1/2)
a. start the descent when the pilot chooses
b. use any rate of descent
c. level off at an intermediate altitude
d. do all of the above

d. do all of the above

51

3. You are in a 4° descent angle and your airspeed is at .4 Mach. What is your VSI rate of descent? (B/1/3)

1600 fpm

VSI = GS(NM/min) X 100 X pitch(descent gradient)

??? 1600 = 0.4 X 100 X 4' ???

52

4. Instrument penetration approaches are found in FLIP ______. (B/2/1)

Terminal High Altitude books

53

7. What is the penetration airspeed in the T-6A? (B/2/4)

200 KIAS

54

8. If no penetration turn altitude is depicted on the approach plate, when will you begin your turn inbound on a non-DME teardrop penetration? (B/2/5)

At an altitude halfway between IAF and FAF altitude

55

9. You are cleared for a non-DME teardrop VOR penetration but are 3000 feet below the published IAF altitude. How long will you time outbound before descending? (B/2/6)

45 seconds

If cleared for a non-DME teardrop approach from an altitude below the published IAF altitude, you must time outbound 15 seconds for each 1000 feet below the published IAF altitude before starting your descent.

56

10. When flying a radial approach, as you pass the IAF ______. (B/2/7)
a. turn immediately in the longest direction toward the approach course
b. immediately configure the aircraft with gear, landing flaps, and slow to 110 KIAS
c. immediately reduce power to idle and establish a minimum descent gradient of 8°-10° nose-low
d. turn immediately in the shorter direction toward the approach course

d. turn immediately in the shorter direction toward the approach course

-Intercept the published approach course using normal course intercept procedures

-Radial approaches are associated with VORTAC facilities

57

11. T or F? When flying high altitude radial/arc penetrations, you should calculate and use normal lead points to complete required course/arc intercepts. (B/2/8)

TRUE

58

1. What section of the approach plate provides a side view preview for the altitude restrictions?

Profile view

59

2. The non-DME teardrop approach is usually associated with a ______ approach.

VOR

60

3. When flying a non-DME teardrop approach, you are required to maintain a pitch attitude ______ degrees below the level flight picture for the penetration airspeed to ensure you remain within protected airspace.

8'-10'

61

4. When flying a radial approach if your heading is within ______ degrees of the outbound penetration course, you are not required to overfly the IAF and may use normal lead points to intercept the course.

90'

62

5. If you have a 3' descent gradient, how much altitude have you lost in 1 nautical mile?

300 feet

63

6. When flying a radial/arc approach, ______ you may begin your descent to the next applicable altitude restriction.
a. once a lead point is reached AND a turn to the next approach segment is initiated
b. you must intercept the next approach segment before
c. once a lead point is reached
d. once a turn to the next approach segment is initiated

a. once a lead point is reached AND a turn to the next approach segment is initiated

64

8. You are 40 miles from Junction at FL310 at .5 Mach and are required to cross Junction at 15,000. How will you determine your descent gradient?
a. Divide the number of miles to go (40) by your TAS in miles per minute (5). This provides your descent gradient in degrees (8).
b. Divide the amount of altitude you have to lose in thousands of feet (16) by your TAS in miles per minute (5). This provides your descent gradient in degrees (3.2).
c. Divide the miles you have to go (40) by the altitude you have to lose in thousands of feet (16). This provides your descent gradient in degrees (2.5).
d. Divide the altitude you have to lose in hundreds of feet (160) by the number of miles you have to go (40). This provides your descent gradient in degrees (4).

d. Divide the altitude you have to lose in hundreds of feet (160) by the number of miles you have to go (40). This provides your descent gradient in degrees (4).

31,000 - 15,000 = 16,000
160/40 = 4

65

1. T or F? If you are using a feeder facility to an IAF and are cleared for the approach, you are considered established on the approach. (B/1/1)

TRUE

66

2. What airspeed do you maintain prior to configuring when flying a low altitude approach in the T-6A? (B/1/2)

120 - 150 KIAS

67

5. What does the "barb" symbol depict? (B/2/3)

The "barb" symbol depicts a procedure turn. The barb indicates the direction or side of the outbound course on which the procedure turn or maneuvering is normally accomplished.
-The procedure turn fix is identified on the profile view of the approach at the point where the published instrument procedure begins.
-Procedure turns are also depicted in the profile view by a broken descent line.

68

6. When executing a 45/180 procedure turn maneuver, turn on the maneuvering side 45° away from the outbound course, time for ______ minute(s), then turn 180° in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound course. (B/2/4)

One minute

69

7. When would you not execute a procedure turn? (B/2/5)
a. The procedure turn barb is depicted.
b. Radar vectors to final are unavailable.
c. ATC tells you that timed approaches are no longer being conducted for this approach.
d. ATC has cleared you for a straight-in approach.

d. ATC has cleared you for a straight-in approach.

70

9. Approaching the IAF for a procedure track approach, if your heading is within ______ of the procedure track course you do not have to overfly the IAF and may use normal lead points to intercept the published course. (B/3/2)
a. 30° b. 45° c. 60° d. 90°

d. 90°

71

10. The term “NoPT” means that you will ______. (B/3/3)
a. fly a teardrop approach
b. fly a procedure turn approach
c. not fly a procedure turn approach
d. select any type of approach

c. not fly a procedure turn approach

72

11. Which of the following are ways to recognize a holding pattern in lieu of a procedure turn depiction? (B/4/1)
a. A normal holding pattern in the plan view
b. The outbound and inbound courses are shown with two dark arrows in the profile view
c. A normal holding pattern with a bold black line in the plan view
d. Both B and C

d. Both B and C

-The outbound and inbound courses are shown with two dark arrows in the profile view
-A normal holding pattern with a bold black line in the plan view

73

13. T or F? Prior to initiating a descent on the inbound leg of a holding pattern in lieu of a procedure turn, you must be established on the inbound course. (B/4/3)

TRUE

74

1. Low altitude approaches enable the aircraft to transition from instrument flight conditions to a visual landing while providing ______.
a. terrain clearance and separation from other IFR aircraft
b. terrain clearance only
c. separation from all aircraft
d. separation from VFR aircraft

a. terrain clearance and separation from other IFR aircraft

75

2. Which of the following are considered course reversal approaches?
a. Procedure turn approaches
b. Teardrop procedure track approaches
c. Holding in lieu of a procedure turn (HILO PT) approaches
d. Both A and C

d. Both A and C

Procedure turn approaches
Holding in lieu of a procedure turn (HILO PT) approaches

76

3. When executing a low altitude approach in the T-6A you should maintain maneuvering speed of ______ prior to reaching the IAF.

120 -150 KIAS

77

4. The barbed symbol depicted in a procedure turn approach means that the turn ______.
a. is optional and does not have to be executed b. is made on the opposite side of the outbound course
c. is made on the side indicated by the barb
d. is a holding turn

c. is made on the side indicated by the barb

78

5. In a procedure turn, what procedures are used to determine the direction of turn for intercepting the outbound course when first crossing the low altitude IAF?
a. Use normal entry holding techniques (AIM or 70°) to determine the direction of turn.
b. The 60-1 rule
c. The procedure is based on the 45/180 maneuver.
d. Use the maneuvering side for all turns.

a. Use normal entry holding techniques (AIM or 70°) to determine the direction of turn.

79

7. If DME is available, what method would you use to stay within the “Remain Within” distance on a procedure turn approach?
a. Use only DME
b. Use only time
c. Use DME with timing as a backup
d. Once crossing the fix you must make all turns immediately back to the fix

c. Use DME with timing as a backup

80

8. Procedure tracks utilize _______ to depict the flight path between IAF and FAF.
a. arcs
b. radials
c. headings
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

81

9. What altitude can you descend to if you are using a feeder facility and are cleared for the approach?
a. You can descend to the altitude depicted on the feeder route
b. You can descend to the IAF crossing altitude 10 NM from the IAF
c. You can descend to the IAF altitude when half way between the feeder fix and IAF
d. You can descend only to the IAF altitude when crossing the IAF

a. You can descend to the altitude depicted on the feeder route

82

10. You have commenced a holding in lieu of a procedure turn approach. How many orbits in holding are you expected to make?

One

83

1. You are 70 NM from the Palacios VORTAC at FL180 and 240 KTAS. You are instructed to descend to cross the Palacios VORTAC at 4000 feet MSL. What should your descent gradient be? What is the resulting VSI if you maintain airspeed (assume no wind)? (B/1/1)

a. Descent gradient = 140/70 = 2o (200 ft/NM)
b. VSI = 200 X (240/60) = 200 ft/NM X 4 NM/min = 800 fpm descent

84

2. At a groundspeed of 4NM per minute and a descent gradient of 3°, what is the VSI rate of descent? (B/1/2)

VSI = angle (NM/min X 100)
VSI = 3 X (4 NM/min X 100)
VSI = 3 X 400
VSI = 1200 fpm

85

3. Prior to the IAF you should complete a W-HOLDS check. What do the letters in W-HOLDS stand for? (B/2/1)

a. Weather: ensure reported weather meets command minimums for commencing the approach
b. Holding clearance: if directed to hold, ensure clearance and holding pattern is understood and NAVAIDS properly set
c. Obtain approach clearance: if approach clearance has not been issued, query the controller
d. Letdown plate review: check minimum and emergency safe altitudes, frequencies, descent rates, approach minimums, missed approach instructions, and the aerodrome sketch
e. Descent check: ensure descent check is completed
f. Speed as required: slow to holding or approach speed

86

4. If starting a non-DME teardrop approach from below the published IAF altitude, you must fly outbound ______ for every ______ feet below the IAF altitude before initiating the descent. (B/2/2)

15 seconds
for every
1000 feet below the IAF altitude

87

5. What are the two categories of low altitude instrument approach procedures (IAPs)? (C/1/1)

Course reversals
Procedure tracks

88

6. What are the two types of low-altitude course reversal approaches? (C/1/2)

Procedure turn
Holding in lieu of procedure turn

89

7. What are the three common types of low-altitude procedure track approaches? (C/1/3)

Straight-In
Arcing
Teardrop

90

9. How is a procedure turn depicted on an instrument approach procedure? (C/2/1)

a. By a “barb” symbol
b. Barb indicates “maneuvering” side

91

10. When flying a procedure turn you must complete the course reversal turn on the _______. (C/2/2)

maneuvering side

92

11. When can you descend to the FAF altitude? (C/2/3)

When established on the inbound segment of the approach

93

12. When will a procedure turn approach not be flown? (C/2/4)

SNERT
a. ATC clears you for a Straight-in approach.
b. Flying approach via “NoPT” routing.
c. Established in holding, cleared the approach, and holding course is same as procedure turn course.
d. ATC Radar vectors you to final. e. Cleared by ATC for Timed approach.
f. Memory Aid: “SNERT”

94

13. The term “NoPT” at an IAF on an instrument approach means ______. (C/3/1)

you are expected to fly the depicted NoPt routing, not the procedure turn

95

14. Approaching the IAF for a procedure track approach you may use normal turn lead points if your heading is within ______ of the procedure track course. (C/3/2)

90°

96

15. How is a holding pattern in lieu of a procedure turn depicted on an instrument approach plate? (C/4/1)

a. Plan view: same as a normal holding pattern but with bold black lines
b. Profile view: outbound and inbound course arrows shown

97

2. True or false? When flying a low altitude procedure turn approach you may begin the turn inbound at any point.

True. However, you cannot exceed remain within distance.

98

3. When flying a procedure turn approach, if you elect to fly a teardrop entry, the teardrop course must be within how many degrees of the procedure turn course?

30°

99

4. How are segments of procedure track approaches depicted?

By heavy black lines with arrowheads showing intended aircraft ground track.

100

5. You have been cleared the VOR/DME RWY 5 approach at Cochran Airport. How many turns are you expected to complete in holding?

One turn. If additional turns are required to lose excess altitude you must coordinate with ATC first.

101

6. When can you descend from the turn completion altitude on a non-DME high altitude, teardrop instrument penetration?

When established on the inbound segment of the approach.

102

7. You are cleared for an enroute descent at “pilot’s discretion” from FL 190 to 7000 feet MSL. Can you temporarily level off at 11,000 feet?

Yes, you may level off at an intermediate altitude, but once you leave that altitude you cannot return to it.

103

8. What descent angle and VSI do you need to descend at 210 KTAS from 15,000 feet MSL to 3000 feet MSL in 30 NM (no wind)?

a. Descent Angle
b. 120/30 = 4°
c. VSI
d. 3.5 NM/min X 400 feet/NM = 1400 fpm

104

9. If flying a non-DME teardrop approach with no published turn altitude, initiate the inbound turn when the aircraft is ______.

halfway between the IAF and FAF altitudes

105

1. Precision approaches are distinguished from nonprecision approaches by the addition of ______ information. (B/1/1)
a. DME
b. altitude
c. heading
d. glideslope

d. glideslope

106

2. The glideslope helps maintain the proper approach angle, which is normally between ______. (B/1/2)

2.5' and 3'

107

8. For many nonprecision approaches, you will need to establish a descent rate of about ______ to reach MDA prior to VDP. (C/1/2)

80 to 1000 fpm

108

9. T or F? If the runway is not in sight when you reach VDP, you must execute a missed approach.

What the VDP, and what do you do if it the runway is not in sight?
What do you do if the runway is in sight? (C/1/3)

VDP - Visual Descent Point
A VDP will identify a point along the final approach course that will allow a normal descent (usually 3') from the MDA to the runway.

If you have not sighted the runway by the VDP, you can expect that a steeper than normal descent would be required if subsequently sighting the runway prior to the MAP.

If the runway is in sight at the VDP, you can expect a normal descent (3') to the touchdown point.

109

10. Selecting ______ on the EHSI during a GPS approach will display the IAF(s), FAF, and MAP along with the course lines connecting them. (C/2/1)
a. waypoint mode
b. MAP mode
c. ARC mode
d. DTK mode

b. MAP mode

110

11. In the approach active mode, the active leg of a GPS approach is indicated on the EHSI by a ______ between waypoints. (C/2/2)
a. white LEG annunciator
b. white line
c. green LEG annunciator
d. green line

d. green line

111

14. Where are localizers located and what do they do? (C/3/2)

-Localizer transmitters are located at the end of the runway
-Designed to provide course guidance (azimuth) to very precisely align the aircraft with the approach runway
-Localizers usually have DME transmitters associated

112

1. Which marker beacon is normally located at the FAF or glideslope intercept point?
a. Middle marker (MM)
b. Inner marker (IM)
c. Outer marker (OM)
d. Final marker (FM)

c. Outer marker (OM)

113

2. In a VOR approach in which the VOR station serves as the FAF, the approach course will be ______.
a. inbound on the designated radial
b. outbound on the designated radial
c. perpendicular to the designated radial
d. aligned with the radial flown from the IAF

b. outbound on the designated radial

114

3. On the GPS display, a waypoint identifier followed by a lower case “m” designates ______.
a. the middle marker
b. the missed approach point
c. the minimum descent altitude
d. the approach mode change point

b. the missed approach point

115

4. An ILS is flown down to a point where you must either establish visual reference with the runway and continue to landing, or execute a missed approach. This point is called the ______.
a. Minimum descent altitude (MDA)
b. approach decision point (ADP)
c. visual descent point (VDP)
d. decision altitude (DA)

d. decision altitude (DA)

116

5. On a localizer backcourse approach, you must set ______ in the EHSI.
a. the published front course in the course selector window
b. the published localizer backcourse final approach
c. the reciprocal of the outbound localizer course
d. a course perpendicular to the inbound course

a. the published front course in the course selector window

117

6. In most VOR approaches, you will use either ______ to indicate arrival at the FAF.
a. timing or DME
b. DME or an aural alert
c. timing or station passage
d. DME or station passage

d. DME or station passage

118

7. To calculate VDP, you should divide the height of the MDA above the touchdown zone (HAT) by the desired approach angle times ______.
a. 100 b. 200 c. 300 d. 500

a. 100

Divide the height of the MDA above the touchdown zone (HAT), shown in the minima section of the IAP (Instrument Approach Procedures), by the desired approach angle times 100.

VDA = HAT / (Approach Angle X 100)

119

8. DME HOLD will not display on the EHSI when ______ is selected as the primary nav sensor.
a. VOR
b. GPS
c. LOC
d. ILS

b. GPS

120

9. During ILS final approach, control inputs should be minimized to prevent over controlling. You should limit pitch adjustments to 2° or less and heading corrections to ______or less.
a. 5° b. 10° c. 15° d. 20°

a. 5°

121

1. T or F? Minimum Vector Altitude (MVA) may be lower than the published MEA or MOCA. (B/1/1)

TRUE. Assigned radar pattern altitudes can be below the MEA or MOCA. Never blindly follow controller instructions. If in doubt, query the controller.

MEA (Minimum Enroute Altitude)
MOCA (Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude)

122

2. With the airfield weather station reporting 2 miles visibility, what is the minimum distance from the FAF and the maximum intercept angle the controller can use to set up aircraft for final approach course intercept? (B/1/2)
a. 1 mile and 20°
b. 3 miles and 30°
c. 4 miles and 10°
d. 5 miles and 45°

b. 3 miles and 30°

123

5. What three radio calls are you required to repeat back to the controller when operating in the radar pattern? (B/1/5)
a. Assigned headings, airspeed, weather information
b. Altitudes, altimeter settings, assigned approach
c. Assigned headings, traffic advisories, altimeter
d. Assigned headings, altitude, altimeter settings

d. Assigned headings, altitude, altimeter settings

124

6. When flying in the radar pattern, maintain ______ KIAS in a clean configuration while on radar downwind. (B/1/6)

150 - 200 KIAS

125

7. Using the technique discussed earlier, if you were flying in the radar pattern and instructed to turn right from heading 360 to heading 045, what angle of bank would you use? (B/1/7)

30'

126

9. What is the criteria you must meet in order to land from an ASR approach? (C/1/2)
a. Runway environment in sight
b. Aircraft in a position to make a safe landing
c. Controller directs “land”
d. A and B

d. A and B

-Runway environment in sight
-Aircraft in a position to make a safe landing

127

11. On a PAR final approach, bank equal to how many degrees to be turned and at what rate should be used to prevent overshooting? (C/2/2)

FALSE. To prevent overshooting the assigned heading, us a bank equal to approximately the number of degrees to be turned not to exceed one-half standard rate.

128

12. If on PAR final, you accidentally drift off assigned heading, what is the proper action to take? (C/2/3)
a. Maintain the heading, the controller will base new heading instruction based on your observed course.
b. Inform controller of actual heading so he can adjust his corrections.
c. Immediately correct back to the last assigned heading.
d. Either A or C

c. Immediately correct back to the last assigned heading.

129

13. Decision Altitude on a PAR is determined by ______. (C/2/4)
a. the barometric altimeter reading
b. when advised by the controller “at decision altitude”
c. A or B, whichever occurs first
d. timing from the begin descent point

a. the barometric altimeter reading
b. when advised by the controller “at decision altitude”
c. A or B, whichever occurs first

130

14. T or F? When you reach final approach on a no-gyro ASR or PAR, you must automatically transition to using half-standard rate turns. (C/3/1)

FALSE. DO NOT begin using half-standard rate until told to do so.

131

1. MVAs are established at ______ feet above the highest obstacle within the sector, ______ in mountainous terrain.
a. 500; 1000
b. 1000; 2000
c. 1500; 2500
d. 2000; 4000

b. 1000; 2000

132

2. T or F? Traffic advisories are a mandatory service provided by controllers to aircraft operating in the radar pattern.

FALSE. Traffic advisories are an additional service the controller will provide if workload permits.

133

3. Where can you locate an airfield’s radar approach minimums?
a. In FLIP General Planning
b. In the back of the Instrument Approach book
c. In the front of the Instrument Approach book
d. In the IFR Supplement

c. In the front of the Instrument Approach book

134

4. Aircraft malfunction reports are ______.

mandatory

135

5. T or F? In the T-6A, it is mandatory to configure the aircraft on base leg of the radar pattern.

FALSE. When in a radar pattern, configuring depends on the situation.
-You may on base
-If time and distance are sufficient before glideslope intercept or descent point, configuration can be delayed until final.

136

6. An ASR is a ______approach.
a. precision
b. nonprecision
c. nonradar
d. VFR only

b. nonprecision

ASR (Airport Surveillance Radar)
An ASR is a nonprecision approach in which the controller provides navigational guidance in azimuth only.

137

7. When flying an ASR approach, the MAP is defined by ______.
a. timing from the FAF
b. the barometric altimeter
c. the VDP
d. the controller

d. the controller

138

8. To execute a missed approach while circling to land from an ASR, turn initially towards the ______.
a. last assigned heading
b. nearest available alternate airfield
c. landing runway
d. nearest IAF

c. landing runway

139

9. A PAR approach starts when ______.
a. the aircraft is in range of the precision radar
b. contact has been established with the final controller
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

a. the aircraft is in range of the precision radar
b. contact has been established with the final controller
c. Both A and B

140

10. T-6A final approach airspeed on a PAR approach is ______ KIAS.

110 KIAS

141

11. When flying no-gyro vectors and approach, you must acknowledge the “start/stop turn” controller directives until ______.
a. told “do not acknowledge further transmissions”
b. the aircraft is established on final approach
c. the aircraft has landed
d. handed over to the final controller

a. told “do not acknowledge further transmissions”

142

1. At some airports, HIRL lights turn yellow ______ feet from the departure end. (B/1/1)

2000 feet from the departure end

143

2. All approach lighting systems have ______ lights. (B/1/2)

white lights

144

3. Where can you find graphic descriptions of the configurations of various approach lighting systems? (B/1/3)
a. Flight Information Handbook
b. IFR Supplement
c. VFR Supplement
d. Instrument Approach Procedures Legend

a. Flight Information Handbook

145

6. Which of the following is NOT a method used to define the missed approach point for a nonprecision, nonradar approach? (C/1/1)
a. Timing
b. DME
c. NAVAID
d. Decision altitude (DA)

d. Decision altitude (DA)

146

7. When transitioning from instrument to visual references, look for the landing environment ______. (C/1/2)
a. directly in front of the aircraft
b. as directed by the tower controller
c. in the direction determined by relationship of the final course vector and visual references identified in the airport sketch
d. in the direction of the course arrow on the EHSI

c. in the direction determined by relationship of the final course vector and visual references identified in the airport sketch

147

8. T or F? Full flaps are required when beginning the visual descent to the runway after an instrument approach. (C/1/4)

FALSE. Maintain the final approach speed for the flap setting and complete the landing.

110 KIAS, Flaps UP
105 KIAS, Flaps TO
100 KIAS, Flaps LDG

148

9. T or F? Bright approach lights suddenly appearing on final approach can give an impression of being below glidepath. (C/2/1)

FALSE. Bright approach lights suddenly appearing on final approach can give the impression of being high.
-Result is a desire to "dive" for the lights

149

10. T or F? Flying an approach to a narrow runway may give the impression of being below glidepath on final. ( C/2/2)

FALSE. Breaking out of the weather and seeing a runway narrower than "normal" can give the impression of being further away and above glidepath.
-Result is to increase the descent rate and flare late

150

11. The airport elevation is ______. (D/1/1)
a. the MSL altitude of the highest obstacle
b. the MSL altitude of the highest point of an airport’s usable runways
c. the MSL altitude at the base of the control tower
d. the MSL altitude of the highest touchdown zone elevation

b. the MSL altitude of the highest point of an airport’s usable runways

151

12. Where can you find published circling approach restrictions for a particular airfield? (D/1/2)
a. VFR Supplement
b. Flight Information Handbook
c. Instrument Approach Procedure for the airfield
d. T-6A Flight Training Instructions

c. Instrument Approach Procedure for the airfield

152

13. Which of the following aircraft categories has the largest obstruction clearance radius? (D/1/3)
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
d. Category D
e. Category E

e. Category E

A - 1.3 NM Obstruction Clearance Radius
B - 1.5 NM
C - 1.7 NM
D - 2.3 NM
E - 4.5 NM

153

14. Which of the following is an INCORRECT circling clearance? (D/2/1)
a. Texan 24, circle west of Runway 17 for a left downwind to Runway 35
b. Texan 24, circle north of Runway 27 for a left base to Runway 17
c. Texan 24, circle east of Runway 17 for a left downwind to Runway 35
d. Texan 24, circle south of Runway 09 for a left base to Runway 35

c. Texan 24, circle east of Runway 17 for a left downwind to Runway 35

154

15. You may lower full (LDG) flaps on a circling approach ______. (D/2/2)
a. once you begin the circle
b. on downwind
c. on base
d. once you begin a normal descent to the runway

d. once you begin a normal descent to the runway

155

16. A sidestep maneuver is a procedure in which you fly a published instrument approach to one runway, then perform ______ transition to land on an alternate runway. (D/3/1)
a. an instrument
b. a visual
c. a parallel
d. a perpendicular

b. a visual

A sidestep maneuver is a procedure where you fly an instrument approach to one runway then visually transition to land on an alternate (normally parallel) runway.

156

17. Unless specified on the approach plate, a climb gradient of ______ feet/NM is required to ensure obstacle clearance during the published missed approach. (E/1/1)

200 ft/NM

157

18. What is the first step to perform a missed approach? (E/1/2)
a. Notify the controller
b. Establish a wings-level climb
c. Retract the landing gear and flaps
d. Advance the PCL to MAX

d. Advance the PCL to MAX

158

19. Execute a ______ if you have started a visual descent from an instrument approach and you cannot safely land the aircraft. (E/1/3)

go-around/waveoff

159

1. Which lighting system can be used as a HIRL, MIRL, and LIRL system?
a. Three step MIRL
b. Three step REIL
c. Three step LIRL
d. Three step HIRL

d. Three step HIRL

160

2. The numbers on runway remaining markers represent amount of runway remaining in ______.

thousands of feet

161

3. The missed approach point is depicted on the approach plate at ______.
a. the end of the course arrow in the airport sketch
b. the end of the solid black final course line in the planform view
c. the end of the solid black final course line in the profile view
d. B and C

b. the end of the solid black final course line in the planform view
c. the end of the solid black final course line in the profile view
d. B and C

162

4. When transitioning from instruments on an instrument final approach, begin looking for visual references ______.
a. when you get to the MDA
b. when you reach the MAP
c. when you reach the VDP
d. as you approach the MSL altitude for the reported ceiling

d. as you approach the MSL altitude for the reported ceiling

163

5. If you transition from the MDA to a visual descent to the runway at the FAF your aim point should probably be ______.
a. further down the runway than for a normal contact landing
b. further down the runway but you can still use VASI or PAPI indications
c. at the runway threshold d. at the departure end of the runway

a. further down the runway than for a normal contact landing

164

6. T or F? Flying an approach to a runway wider than normally experienced can give the illusion of being below the glidepath.

TRUE

165

7. What airspeed should you maintain when using TO flaps during the visual final following an instrument approach?

105 KIAS

166

8. T or F? The circling MDA and weather minimums to be used are for the runway to which the instrument approach is being flown.

TRUE

167

9. Staying within the aircraft’s obstruction clearance radius ensures ______ feet obstacle clearance during a circling approach?

300 feet

168

10. Which of the following is an example of a correct circling clearance?
a. Texan 22, circle southwest of airport for a left downwind to Runway 13
b. Texan 22, circle southeast of airport for a left downwind to Runway 22
c. Texan 22, circle southeast of airport for a right downwind to Runway 22
d. Texan 22, circle northeast of airport for a right downwind to Runway 13

b. Texan 22, circle southeast of airport for a left downwind to Runway 22

169

11. When performing a circling maneuver, plan your turn to base to permit a ______ NM final.
a. 1⁄4-1⁄2
b. 1⁄2-3⁄4
c. 1⁄2-1
d. 3⁄4-1

a. 1⁄4-1⁄2

170

12. T or F? Climbout instructions supersede published missed approach instructions and constitute an ATC clearance.

TRUE

171

13. The pitch attitude for the initial climb on a missed approach is ______ nose-high reference on the EADI.
a. 5-10°
b. 10-15°
c. 15°
d. 20°

b. 10-15°

172

14. Execute a missed approach from the circling maneuver when you ______.
a. lose sight of the control tower
b. lose sight of the approach end of the runway served by the instrument approach during the circling maneuver
c. lose sight of sufficient landing environment references to remain oriented and complete the circling maneuver
d. cannot see the approach end of the landing runway at the MAP

c. lose sight of sufficient landing environment references to remain oriented and complete the circling maneuver

173

1. Is an ILS approach a precision or nonprecision approach? (B/1/1)

Precision.
ILS approaches provide both course and glidepath information.

174

3. What are the “6 Ts” you can use as a memory aid to accomplish required items at the FAF? (B/2/1)

a. Time for the approach/backup approach
b. Turn the aircraft to intercept final approach course.
c. Throttle (PCL) set to establish descent.
d. Twist in final approach course on EHSI.
e. Track final approach course inbound.
f. Talk (report FAF and call gear down as required)

175

4. Flying a GPS approach with Super Nav 5 mode selected, how is the FAF identified on the GPS display? (B/3/1)

On the left display panel by a dash and lower case “f” following the FAF waypoint name (i.e. “RUBUF-f”)
Four suffixes are used to identify key points during a GPS approach:

IAF: “-I”
FAF: “-f”
MAP: “-m”
MAP holding fix: “-h”

176

6. While being radar vectored to final, attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for approximately _____. (C/1/1)

1 minute

1 minute while being vectored
15 sec on ASR final
5 sec on PAR final

177

7. If IMC conditions are likely to be encountered, when will missed approach instructions for a radar approach normally be issued? (C/1/2)

On radar downwind or base leg

178

8. If ceiling is less than 500 feet above the MVA and visibility is less than 3 miles, the aircraft will be vectored to intercept the final approach course at least ______ from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of _____ degrees. (C/1/3)

3 miles
30 degrees

179

9. You are flying an ASR approach and the radar controller is providing recommended altitudes on final. These recommended altitudes approximate the ______ glidepath and will cease at the ______. (C/2/1)

PAR
minimum descent altitude

180

10. How do you know you are at the MAP on an ASR approach? (C/2/2)

You will be told by the controller.

181

11. You are at DA on a PAR approach when _____. (C/2/3)

you reach published DA on the aircraft’s altimeter or the controller states “At Decision Height”, whichever occurs first

182

12. Typical runway lighting consists of a row of ______ lights on each side of the runway, ______ lights identifying the runway threshold, and ______ lights at the departure end. (D/1/1)

WHITE lights on each side of the runway
GREEN lights identifying the runway threshold
RED lights at the departure end

183

13. Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) are flashing white lights used to ______. (D/1/2)

mark the approach end of the runway

184

15. Which runway minimums do you use when flying a circling approach? (D/2/1)

Use the circling minimums and MDA for the runway the approach is flown to.
DO NOT use minimums for runway of intended landing.

185

16. How much obstacle clearance is provided when circling at the published MDA? (D/2/2)

300 feet when remaining within the obstructing clearance area for your category of aircraft.

186

17. When flying a circling maneuver, is it permissible to fly at an altitude ABOVE the circling MDA? (D/2/3)

Yes.Weather permitting you may accomplish the circle maneuver above the published MDA up to normal VFR traffic pattern altitude.

187

18. If you are executing climbout instructions and the departure end of the runway is in sight, delay any turn until ______. (D/3/1)

past the departure end of the runway and 400 feet AGL

188

19. When executing a missed approach from a circling maneuver begin a _____. (D/3/2)

climbing turn in the last known direction of the landing runway until established on the missed approach procedure/climbout instructions as appropriate

189

3. About ______ nose-low and ______ torque will maintain approach speed and a descent rate of 800 - 1000 fpm.


16%

190

4. You have been cleared the GPS RWY 5 approach at Cochran Airport and instructed to enter holding at VIENNA. What mode must you select for the GPS before entering holding?

OBS mode. You must select OBS mode whenever you are flying a GPS approach and you are given radar vectors, performing a procedure turn, or holding.

191

5. When you cross the FAF on a GPS approach, the track line to the FAF on the EHSI will turn ______.

green

192

7. You are flying an ILS approach. You are past the localizer FAF and above the localizer MDA. You go two dots below the ILS glidepath. Do you have to go missed approach?

a. No, you may descend to the localizer MDA and transition to a localizer-only approach.
b. If you recapture the glideslope prior to the localizer MDA, you may continue the ILS approach.

193

9. You are going to fly a VOR approach to Runway 13 and circle to Runway 22. Which circling minimums do you use to fly the approach, the minimums for Runway 13 or the minimums for Runway 22?

Runway 13 minimums

194

10. Radar controllers provide obstacle clearance using _____.

MinimumVectoringAltitudes(MVA)

195

11. On final for a no-gyro ASR, begin using half-standard rate turns _____.

only when directed by the controller

196

12. You would get a graphic depiction of the landing environment for a particular airfield _____.

from the airport sketch on an instrument approach plate for that airfield

197

13. When can you begin a descent from MDA during a circling maneuver?

a. When you are in a position to make a normal descent to landing
b. You may start the descent from base or final depending on the situation

198

14. When do you have to go missed approach from the MAP?

Landing environment not in sight
Not in a position to make a safe landing
Directed by the controller

199

1. When do you perform an instrument takeoff (ITO)? (B/1/1)

Use ITO procedures during periods of restricted visibility.

200

2. What is an instrument departure? (B/1/2)

Any IFR transition from takeoff to enroute structure USAF Methods:
a. Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
b. Published Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)
c. Specific ATC Departure Instructions
d. Diverse Departures
e. Special MAJCOM Certification

201

3. What is the meaning of a black inverted triangle with a “T” in the center? (B/1/3)

IFR takeoff minimums and/or departure procedures are published

-Information in front of IAP
-Nonstandard mins do not apply to military
-Nonstandard departure procedures do apply

202

4. You are flying a published departure and are vectored off the departure routing. Do you need to meet subsequent published altitude restrictions? (B/1/4)

No. Consider the published departure clearance cancelled and follow the controller’s instructions.

203

5. You are flying radar vectors and realize that you cannot meet an altitude restriction given by the controller. What do you do? (B/1/5)

Notify the controller that you cannot meet the altitude restriction
a. When flying radar vectors:
-Follow controller instructions
-Notify if you cannot comply
-Know where you are going

204

6. When receiving a new in-flight clearance, what items should you read back to the controller? (C/1/1)

Altimeter settings
Headings
Altitude assignments

205

7. What is the direction of turn and inbound leg length for a nonstandard holding pattern at 14,000 feet MSL? (C/1/2)

Left turns, maximum length of inbound leg is one minute
a. Standard pattern - right turns
b. Maximum inbound leg length above 14,000 feet MSL is 1.5 minutes

206

8. What are the three types of high altitude approaches? (C/2/1)

Teardrop (DME or non-DME)
Radial
Radial/Arc

207

10. What airspeed do you maintain when performing a low altitude approach (prior to configuring)? What is the recommended rate of descent during a low altitude approach? (D/1/1)

a. 120 – 150 KIAS
b. 500 – 2000 fpm

208

11. When will a procedure turn approach not be flown? (D/1/2)

SNERT
a. Straight-in approach
b. “NoPT” routing
c. Established in holding cleared the approach, and holding course is same as procedure turn course
d. ATC Radar vectors you to final e. Cleared by ATC for Timed approach
f. Memory Aid: “SNERT”

209

9. You are 50 NM from the Stonewall VORTAC at FL220 at 240 KTAS. The controller tells you to descend to cross the Stonewall VORTAC at 7000 feet MSL. What descent gradient do you use? What is the resulting VSI if you maintain airspeed (assume no wind)? (C/3/1)

a. Pitch Angle = 150/50 = 3° (300 ft/NM)
b. VSI = 300 X (240/60) = 300 ft/NM X 4 NM/min = 1200 fpm descent

210

12. What is the difference between a procedure turn and a procedure track? (D/1/3)

a. A procedure track requires a specific flight path
b. Procedure tracks may employ:
1) Arcs
2) Radials
3) Courses
4) Turns
5) Ground tracks

211

14. When flying an ILS approach, what action should you take at the glideslope intercept point? (E/1/2)

Reduce power to approximately 22% and lower the nose to “line-on-line” on the EADI.

212

17. You are enroute to a GPS approach that is loaded and selected. At 30 NM, the CDI scale automatically switches to _____. (E/3/1)

+/- 1 NM

213

18. At 2 NM from the FAF, the GPS automatically switches to the _____ when all conditions are satisfied. (E/3/2)

approach active mode

214

19. When the GPS transitions to the approach active mode, the CDI scale begins to change from the ±1 NM approach scale to a ______ final approach scale. (E/3/3)

+/- 0.3 NM

215

20. When you cross the FAF on a GPS approach, the ______ line on the EHSI will turn ______. (E/3/4)

track line on the EHSI will turn green

216

21. What course do you set in the EHSI to fly a backcourse localizer? (E/4/1)

Published localizer front course

217

22. What are the airspeeds and configurations for downwind, base, and final on a radar approach? (F/1/1)

a. Downwind
1) 150 - 200 KIAS
2) Clean
b. Base
1) 120 - 150 KIAS
2) Gear and flaps as required
c. Final
1) 100 - 120 KIAS
2) Gear – Down 3) Flaps - As Required

218

23. When flying in the radar environment, attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for ______ while being vectored, ______ on ASR final, and ______ on PAR final. (F/1/2)

1 minute
15 seconds
5 seconds

219

24. When being vectored to an ASR final approach, somewhere in the radar pattern the radar controller will specify ______. (F/1/3)

a. Runway to which approach will be conducted
b. MDA
c. Missed approach point

220

25. A PAR approach starts when the aircraft is in range of the precision radar and _____. (F/1/4)

contact is established with the final controller

221

26. Controllers will normally expect an aircraft on no-gyro vectors to use _____ bank turns in the pattern and _____ bank turns on final. (F/1/5)

standard rate
half-standard rate

222

27. On final for a no-gyro ASR, begin using half-standard rate turns _____. (F/1/6)

only when directed by the controller

223

28. What is the missed approach point for an instrument approach? (G/1/1)

The latest point where the decision is made to land. The instrument approach final ends at either DA or the MAP.
a. Decision Altitude
b. MAP identification
1) Fix (DME/NAVAID)
2) Timing

224

29. When transitioning to visual references during an actual instrument final approach, a good technique is to start peeking outside ______. (G/1/2)

when you get within 100-200 feet above the reported weather ceiling

225

30. If a runway has centerline lights, the lights are ______ from the threshold to the 3000 feet remaining point, ______ until 1000 feet of runway remaining, and are ______ the last 1000 feet of runway remaining. (G/1/3)

white
alternate white and red
red

226

32. You experience a bird strike departing Abilene Regional. You do a controllability check and determine the minimum controllable airspeed is 110 KIAS so you must maintain 130 KIAS until final approach. The only recovery option is the VOR or GPS-A approach at Abilene. What category approach minimums should you use? (G/2/2)

Since your minimum circling airspeed in this scenario is 130 KIAS, you must use the Category C minimums.

227

33. What are climbout instructions? (G/3/1)

-Instructions issued by the controller when flying multiple approaches
-Constitute an ATC clearance
-Supersede published missed approach instructions

228

34. When can you make the first turn when executing climbout instructions? (G/3/2)

a. Make first turn when:
1) Past departure end of runway (if visible) and 400 feet AGL
2) 400 feet AGL otherwise

229

35. You are flying a circling maneuver and lose visual references. In what direction do you make a climbing turn during the missed approach? (G/3/3)

Toward the landing runway
a. Initiate this turn as soon as the initial climb is established for the missed approach

230

1. How fast do you transition to instrument references during an instrument takeoff (ITO)? What is the pitch attitude for an ITO?

a. Transition at the rate outside references become unreliable.
b. Rotate to 7-10° nose high at 85 KIAS.

231

2. What are the approved USAF methods of instrument departures?

a. Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
b. Published Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)
c. Specific ATC Departure Instructions
d. Diverse Departures
e. Special MAJCOM Certification

232

3. The maximum length of an inbound leg of a holding pattern above 14,000 feet MSL is ______.

1.5 minutes

233

4. When can you descend from the turn completion altitude on a non-DME high altitude, teardrop instrument penetration?

When established on the inbound segment of the approach

234

5. You are cleared for an enroute descent at “pilot’s discretion” from FL 190 to 7000 feet MSL. Can you temporarily level off at 11,000 feet?

Yes, you may level off at an intermediate altitude, but once you leave that altitude you cannot return to it.

235

6. When do you begin timing outbound on a procedure turn?

a. Outbound abeam IAF
b. Wings-level outbound if you cannot determine abeam

236

7. You are cleared for the approach at 3000 feet MSL. When can you descend in the holding pattern?

After crossing the IAF (holding fix)

237

9. On the GPS display, how do you identify the MAP?

The MAP is the waypoint suffixed with a lower case “m”.

238

10. How much bank should you use to make corrections on a radar final approach?

Bank angle equal to the number of degrees to be turned, not to exceed half standard rate

239

11. What is the T-6A configuration and airspeed for an instrument final approach at the FAF? What are the descent rates for nonprecision and precision final approaches?

a. At the FAF:
1) Gear-down
2) Flaps-TO
3) 110 KIAS

b. Descent rates on final:
1) Nonprecision 800 – 1000 fpm
2) Precision 400 – 600 fpm

240

12. At what rate do you transition from instrument to visual references when landing from an instrument approach?

a. At the rate visual references become reliable
b. Opposite to rate of transition to instruments during an instrument takeoff

241

13. What should you do to safely transition to land from the MDA if you are past the VDP with visual glidepath indicators giving you an above glidepath indication?

Accept a long landing. Do not attempt to capture the on-glidepath visual indication by making a large increase in your descent rate.