L1 ISBB Flashcards by Karl Dashley Atinen

He was said to have been given the world’s first blood transfusion by his Jewish physician Giacomo di San Genesio, who made him drink the blood of three 10-year-old boys:

A. Pope Innocent VII
B. Pope Pius I
C. Pope Gregory III
D. Pope Boniface IV

A. Pope Innocent VII

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He carried out vein-to-vein transfusion of blood by using multiple syringes and a special cannula for puncturing the vein through the skin:

A. Unger
B. Edward Lindemann
C. Audrey Smith
D. Loutit and Mollison

B. Edward Lindemann

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What blood type is/are NOT possible for an offspring of heterozygous A and homozygous B parents?
1. A
2. B
3. O
4. AB

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 3

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A person’s saliva incubated with the following antibodies and tested with appropriate A, O, and B indicator cells: the following test results are obtained:

Antibody specificity: Test results:
Anti-A reactive
Anti-B inhibited
Anti-H inhibited

The person’s phenotype is:

A. A
B. B
C. O
D. Bombay phenotype

B. B

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Which of the following describes A1 subgroup?

A. Reacts with anti-A
B. Reacts with anti-A1 and anti-A
C. MF reaction with anti-A and anti-AB
D. Reacts with Anti-AB but no reaction with anti-A

B. Reacts with anti-A1 and anti-A

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All of the following statements are true regarding the A2 blood group, EXCEPT:

A. Dolichos biflorus lectin generally does not agglutinate A2 RBCs
B. A2 RBCs have more A antigen than A1 RBCs
C. A2 RBCs are agglutinated with anti-A antisera
D. Most A2 individuals have the same form of anti-B as A1 individuals

B. A2 RBCs have more A antigen than A1 RBCs

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What reaction would be the same for A1 and A2 subgroups?

A. Positive reaction with anti-A1 lectin
B. Positive reaction with A1 cells
C. Equal reaction with Anti-H
D. Positive reaction with Anti-A, B

D. Positive reaction with Anti-A, B

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Which of the following errors would cause the most severe reactions?

A. Group A blood given to group O patient
B. Group O blood given to group A patient
C. Group B blood given to group AB patient
D. Group O blood given to group B patient

A. Group A blood given to group O patient

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With regard to inheritance of the Rh system, which of the following applies?

A. Sex-linked dominant
B. Sex-linked recessive
C. Autosomal recessive
D. Autosomal codominant

D. Autosomal codominant

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What type of antigen characteristic of RBCs is unique to an individual or a related family of individuals and, therefore, is not commonly found on all cells (usually less than 1% of the population)?

A. Private antigen
B. Public antigen
C. Syngeneic antigen
D. Xenoantigen

A. Private antigen

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A patient has a positive antibody screen and positive antibody panel. The patient specimen is retested with antibody panel cells that have been treated with the enzyme ficin. The antibody panel is now negative. Which of the following antibodies would give you these results?

A. Anti-Jka
B. Anti-Xga
C. Anti-K
D. Anti-Sc1

B. Anti-Xga

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How can interfering anti-P1 antibodies be removed from a mixture of antibodies?

A. Neutralization with saliva
B. Agglutination with human milk
C. Combination with urine
D. Neutralization with hydatid cyst fluid

D. Neutralization with hydatid cyst fluid

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If group O blood is crossmatched with group B recipient, what is the expected result?

A. Major crossmatch will be incompatible
B. Minor crossmatch will be incompatible
C. Both major and minor crossmatch will be incompatible
D. Both major and minor crossmatch will be compatible

B. Minor crossmatch will be incompatible

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A patient needs few units of whole blood for tomorrow’s surgery. The antibody screen of the patient reveals two antibodies. Anti-Jka and Anti-K. The negative frequency of Jka antigen in the population is 75% and the positive frequency of K antigen in the population is 25%. How many units of blood are needed to screen to find 5 units of compatible blood?

A. 8 units
B. 9 units
C. 26 units
D. 27 units

B. 9 units

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Under extreme emergency condition when there is no time to determine ABO group for transfusion, the technologist should:

A. Refuse to release any blood until the patient’s sample has been typed
B. Release O, Rh-negative whole blood
C. Release O, Rh-negative red blood cells
D. Release O, Rh-positive red blood cells

C. Release O, Rh-negative red blood cells

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Two thousand cells were counted and one hundred od these cells appeared to contain fetal hemoglobin. Calculate the number of vials of Rh immune globulin.

A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10

C. 9

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What type of serological testing does the blood bank technologist perform when determining the blood group of a patient?

A. Genotyping
B. Phenotyping
C. Both
D. Polymerase chain reaction

B. Phenotyping

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If anti-K reacts 3+ with a donor cell with a genotype KK and 2+ with a Kk cell, the antibody is demonstrating:

A. Dosage
B. Linkage disequilibrium
C. Homozygosity
D. Heterozygosity

A. Dosage

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Carla expresses the blood group antigens Fya, Fyb, and Xga. James shows expressions of none of these antigens. What factors may account for the absence of these antigens in James?

A. Gender
B. Race
C. Gender and race
D. Medication

C. Gender and race

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Which of the following statements is true?

A. An individual with BO genotype is homozygous for B antigen
B. An individual with the BB genotype is homozygous for B antigen
C. An individual with the OO genotype is heterozygous for O antigen
D. An individual with the AB phenotype is homozygous for A and B antigens

B. An individual with the BB genotype is homozygous for B antigen

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Which genotype is heterozygous for C?

A. DCe/dce
B. DCE/DCE
C. Dce/dce
D. DCE/dCe

A. DCe/dce

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Which genotype will give rise to the Bombay phenotype?

A. HH only
B. HH and Hh
C. Hh and hh
D. hh only

D. hh only

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Meiosis in cell division is limited to the ova and sperm producing four gametes containing what complement of DNA?

A. 1N
B. 2N
C. 3N
D. 4N

A. 1N

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A cell that is not actively dividing is said to be in:

A. Interphase
B. Prophase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase

A. Interphase

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Which of the following describes the expression of most blood group antigens? A. Dominant B. Recessive C. Codominant D. Corecessive

A. Dominant

The alleged father of a child in a disputed case of paternity is blood group AB. The mother is group O and the child is group O. What type of exclusion is this? A. Direct/primary/first order B. Probability C. Random D. Indirect/Secondary/second order

D. Indirect/Secondary/second order

If the frequency of gene Y is 0.4 and the frequency of gene Z is 0.5, one would expect that they should occur together 0.2(20%) of the time. In actuality, they are found together 32% of the time. This is an example of: A. Crossing over B. Linkage disequilibrium C. Polymorphism D. Chimerism

B. Linkage disequilibrium

In the Hardy-Weinberg formula, p2 represents: A. The heterozygous population of one allele B. The homozygous population of one allele C. The recessive allele D. The dominant allele

B. The homozygous population of one allele

In this type of inheritance, the father carries the trait on his X chromosome. He has no sons with the trait because he passed his Y chromosome to his sons; however, all his daughters will express the trait. A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked dominant D. X-linked recessive

C. X-linked dominant

Why do IgM antibodies, such as those formed against the ABO antigens, have the ability to directly agglutinate RBCs and cause visible agglutination? A. IgM antibodies are larger molecules and have the ability to bind more antigen. B. IgM antibodies tend to clump together more readily to bind more antigen. C. IgM antibodies are found in greater concentrations than IgG antibodies. D. IgM antibodies are not limited by subclass specificity.

A. IgM antibodies are larger molecules and have the ability to bind more antigen.

Which of the following enhancement mediums decreases the zeta potential, allowing antibody and antigen to come closer together? A. LISS B. Polyethylene glycol C. Polybrene D. ZZAP

A. LISS

This type of antibody response is analogous to an anamnestic reaction. A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Anaphylactic

B. Secondary

Which antibodies to a component of complement are contained in the rabbit polyspecific antihuman globulin reagent for detection of in vivo sensitization? A. Anti-IgG and anti-C3a B. Anti-IgG and anti-C3d C. Anti-IgG and anti-IgM D. All of these

B. Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

The number of H antigen structures currently identified are: A. Two B. Four C. Six D. Eight

B. Four

Greatest amount of H antigen: A. A1 B. O C. AB D. B

B. O

Bombay phenotype antibodies include: A. Anti-A B. Anti-B C. Anti-H D. All of the choices

D. All of the choices

Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) or commonly known as: A. Cannabis B. Shabu C. Meth D. Ecstasy

D. Ecstasy

THERAPEUTIC DRUG MONITORING Anticoagulant suitable for most drug analysis. A. Heparin B. Citrate C. Oxalate D. EDTA

A. Heparin ## Footnote Serum or plasma is the specimen of choice for the determination of circulating concentrations of most drugs. Heparinized plasma is suitable for most drug analysis. The calcium-binding anticoagulants add a variety of anions and cations that may interfere with analysis or cause a drug to distribute differently between cells and plasma. As a result, ethylenediaminetetracetic acid (EDTA), citrated and oxalated plasma are not usually acceptable specimens

Agglutination reactions characterized by many small agglutinates in a background of free cells would be graded in tube testing as: A. 1+ B. 2+ C. 3+ D. 4+

A. 1+

An order for blood products for a recent recipient of a bone marrow graft was received in the transfusion service. Because these patients are especially susceptible to GVHD from a transfusion, which blood product would best prevent GVHD? A. Leukocyte reduction of the unit B. Washing the unit with normal saline C. Irradiation of the blood product D. Providing HLA-matched blood products

C. Irradiation of the blood product

Monospecific AHG reagents: A. Increase the dielectric constant in-vitro B. Contain either anti-IgG or anti-C3d antibody specificities C. Are not useful in identifying the molecule causing a positive DAT D. Contain human IgG or complement molecules

B. Contain either anti-IgG or anti-C3d antibody specificities

What antibodies are present in polyspecific AHG reagent? A. Anti-IgG B. Anti-IgG and anti-C3d B. Anti-IgM and anti-IgG D. Anti-C3d

B. Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

An individual has the genotype of AO, hh. What antigens would be present on the red cells of this individual? A. A only B. A and O C. A and H D. None of the above

D. None of the above

An antibody commonly associated with delayed transfusion reactions is: A. Anti-Lu^a B. Anti-Jk^b C. Anti-S D. Anti-M

B. Anti-Jk^b

Which phenotype is associated with a resistance to Plasmodium vivax? A. Fy(a−b−) B. Le(a−b−) C. Jk(a−b−) D. Lu(a−b−)

A. Fy(a−b−)

Glycophorin A and glycophorin B possess antigen sites for which blood group system? A. Duffy B. Lewis C. Kidd D. MNS

D. MNS

Cold autoantibodies are usually of which specificity? A. I B. M C. P1 D. S

A. I

Select the disease commonly associated with the McLeod phenotype: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Hodgkin’s disease C. Chronic granulomatous disease D. PCH

C. Chronic granulomatous disease

Chronic granulomatous disease is associated with a depression of the antigens in the ____ blood group system. A. Duffy B. P C. Kidd D. Kell

D. Kell

In the gel test, a button of cells at the bottom of the well is a: A. 4+ positive reaction B. 1+ positive reaction C. Negative reaction D. Invalid reaction

C. Negative reaction

What plasma protein functions to bind hemoglobin following intravascular hemolysis? A. Albumin B. Transferrin C. Haptoglobin D. C-reactive protein

C. Haptoglobin

Which of the following adverse complications of transfusion is prevented by the irradiation of blood components? A. TRALI B. Febrile C. Hyperkalemia D. TA-GVHD

D. TA-GVHD

What blood group system antibodies are commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions? A. Rh B. MNS C. ABO D. Kidd

D. Kidd

Cells known to be actively phagocytic include: A. Neutrophils, monocytes, basophils B. Neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes C. Monocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils D. Lymphocytes, eosinophils, monocytes

B. Neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes

Which test is used to evaluate the cellular immune system in a patient? A. Skin test for commonly encountered antigens B. Determination of isohemagglutinin titer C. Immunoelectrophoresis of serum D. Lymphocyte proliferation to mitogen/antigen

A. Skin test for commonly encountered antigens

T cells are incapable of: A. Collaborating with B cells in antibody responses B. Secretion of immunoglobulins C. Secretion of cytokines D. Producing positive skin tests

B. Secretion of immunoglobulins

Some MHC class Ill genes code for? A. Antigens B. Antibodies C. Lymphocytes D. Complement

D. Complement

MHC Class I includes which molecules? A. Complement B. HLA-A, B, C C. Cytokines D. HLA-DP, DQ, DR

B. HLA-A, B, C

Treatment of lgG with papain results in how many fragments from each immunoglobulin molecule? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

B. 3

All of the following are immunologic functions of complement except: A. Induction of an antiviral state B. Opsonization C. Chemotaxis D. Anaphylatoxin formation

A. Induction of an antiviral state

Which complement component is found in both the classic and alternative pathways? A. C1 B. C4 C. Factor D D. C3

D. C3

Which immunoglobulin(s) help(s) initiate the classic complement pathway? A. IgA and IgD B. IgM only C. IgG and IgM D. IgG only

C. IgG and IgM

Which immunoglobulin class(es) has (have) a J chain? A. IgM B. IgE and IgD C. IgM and sIgA D. IgG3 and IgA

C. IgM and sIgA

Which of the following cell surface molecules is classified as an MHC class II antigen? A. HLA-A B. HLA-B C. HLA-C D. HLA-DR

D. HLA-DR

Which MHC class of molecule is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4-positive T cells? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. No MHC molecule is necessary for antigenrecognition

B. Class II

Which of the following are products of HLA class III genes? A. T-cell immune receptors B. HLA-D antigens on immune cells C. Complement proteins C2, C4, and Factor B D. Immunoglobulin VL regions

C. Complement proteins C2, C4, and Factor B

What molecule on the surface of most T cells recognizes antigen? A. IgT B. MHC protein C. CD3 D. TcR

D. TcR

What substance is detected by the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) and Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) tests for syphilis? A. Cardiolipin B. Anticardiolipin antibody C. Anti-T. pallidum antibody D. Treponema pallidum

B. Anticardiolipin antibody

What type of antigen is used in the RPR card test? A. Live treponemal organisms B. Killed suspension of treponemal organisms C. Cardiolipin D. Tanned sheep cells

C. Cardiolipin

What is the main difficulty associated with the development of an HIV vaccine? A. The virus has been difficult to culture; antigen extraction and concentration are extremely laborious B. Human trials cannot be performed C. Different strains of the virus are genetically diverse D. Anti-idiotype antibodies cannot be developed

C. Different strains of the virus are genetically diverse

Which method is used to test for HIV infection in infants who are born to HIV-positive mothers? A. ELISA B. Western blot test C. Polymerase chain reaction D. Viral culture

C. Polymerase chain reaction

Which hepatitis B marker is the best indicator of early acute infection? A. HBs Ag B. HBe Ag C. Anti-HBc D. Anti-HBs

A. HBs Ag

Which is the first antibody detected in serum after infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV)? A. Anti-HBs B. Anti-HBc IgM C. Anti-HBe D. All are detectable at the same time

B. Anti-HBc IgM

Which hepatitis antibody confers immunity against reinfection with hepatitis B virus? A. Anti-HBc IgM B. Anti-HBc IgG C. Anti-HBe D. Anti-HBs

D. Anti-HBs

A synonym for an antigenic determinant is: A. Immunogen B. Epitope C. Binding site D. Polysaccharide

B. Epitope

Bonding of antigen to antibody exists exclusively as: A. Hydrogen bonding B. Van der Waals forces C. Electrostatic forces D. Noncovalent bonding

D. Noncovalent bonding

The bonding of antigen to antibody is exclusively noncovalent. The four types of noncovalent bonds involved in antigen-antibody reactions are: A. Hydrophobic bonds B. Hydrogen bonds C. Van der Waals forces D. Electrostatic forces

D. Electrostatic forces

Chronic granulomatous disease represents a defect of: A. Oxidative metabolism B. Abnormal granulation of neutrophils C. Diapedesis D. Chemotaxis

A. Oxidative metabolism

The three complement activation pathways converge at the point of cleavage of complement component _____. A. C3 B. C5 C. C7 D. C8

A. C3

Which complement component is present in the greatest quantity in plasma? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 8

B. 3

Complement can be inactivated in human serum by heating to _____° C. A. 25 B. 37 C. 45 D. 56

D. 56

INACTIVATION OF SERUM: Heating at 56C for 30 minutes REINACTIVATION: Heating at 56C for 10 minutes A specimen should be reinactivated when more than ____ hour(s) has (have) elapsed since inactivation. A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8

C. 4

Speed and time of rotation for serum VDRL test: A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes

Speed and time of rotation for CSF VDRL test: A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

Speed and time of rotation for RPR: A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes

CSF VDRL test: A. Tube 1 B. Tube 2 C. Tube 3 D. Any of these tubes

A. Tube 1

What substance added to the antigen in the RPR test allows for more macroscopically visible flocculation? A. Latex particles B. Extracellular antigens C. Heparin-magnesium chloride particles D. Charcoal particles

D. Charcoal particles

In the RPR test, what is the gauge of the needle for antigen delivery? A. 16 B. 18 C. 20 D. 21

C. 20

LASER is an acronym for: A. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation B. Light augmentation by stimulated emitted radiation C. Light amplified by stimulated energy radiation D. Large angle stimulation by emitted radiation

A. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

The only serologic marker during the anti-core window period of hepatitis B (the time between disappearance of detectable HBsAg and appearance of detectable anti-HBs) may be: A. Anti-HBs B. Anti-HBc C. Anti-HBe D. HBsAg

B. Anti-HBc

Which surface marker is a reliable marker for the presence of high levels of hepatitis B virus (HBV) and a high degree of infectivity? A. HBe Ag B. HBs Ag C. HBc Ag D. Anti-HBs

A. HBe Ag

The most frequent malignancy observed in AIDS patients is: A. Pneumocystis jiroveci (P. carinii) B. Kaposi’s sarcoma C. Toxoplasmosis D. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

B. Kaposi’s sarcoma

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are responsible for all the following except: A. Contact sensitivity B. Elimination of tumor cells C. Rejection of foreign tissue grafts D. Serum sickness

D. Serum sickness

Patients with Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia exhibit abnormally large amounts of: A. IgM B. IgG C. IgE D. IgA

A. IgM

Anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated proteins) is specifically associated with which autoimmune disease? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Autoimmune hepatitis D. Goodpasture’s syndrome

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

Class I includes HLA-________ antigens. A. A,B and C B. B, C and D C. DR, DC(DQ), and A D. DR, DC(DQ), and SB

A. A,B and C

Which of the following tumor markers is used to monitor persons with breast cancer for recurrence of disease? A. Cathepsin-D B. CA-15-3 C. Retinoblastoma gene D. Estrogen receptor (ER)

B. CA-15-3

Which tumor marker is used to determine the usefulness of TRASTUZUMAB (HERCEPTIN) therapy for breast cancer? A. PR B. CEA C. HER-2/neu D. Myc

C. HER-2/neu

Which genotype(s) will give rise to the Bombay phenotype A. HH only B. HH and Hh C. Hh and hh D. hh only

D. hh only

Which of the following describes the expression of most blood group antigens? A. Dominant B. Recessive C. Codominant D. Corecessive

C. Codominant

B. Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

What antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual? A. Anti-A and anti-B B. Anti-H C. Anti-A,B D. Anti-A, B, and H

D. Anti-A, B, and H

Acquired B antigens have been found in: A. Bombay individuals B. Group O persons C. All blood groups D. Group A persons

D. Group A persons

Which blood group has the least amount of H antigen? A. A1B B. A2 C. B D. A1

A. A1B

Which donor unit is selected for a recipient with anti-c? A. r ́r B. R0R1 C. R2r ́ D. r ́ry

D. r ́ry

Which genotype usually shows the strongest reaction with anti-D? A. DCE/DCE B. Dce/dCe C. D--/D-- D. -CE/-ce

C. D--/D--

What is one possible genotype for a patient who develops anti-C antibody? A. R1r B. R1R1 C. r ́r D. rr

D. rr

What antibodies could an R1R1 make if exposed to R2R2 blood? A. Anti-e and anti-C B. Anti-E and anti-c C. Anti-E and anti-C D. Anti-e and anti-c

B. Anti-E and anti-c

What techniques are necessary for weak D testing? A. Saline + 22°C incubation B. Albumin or LISS + 37°C incubation C. Saline + 37°C incubation D. 37°C incubation + IAT

D. 37°C incubation + IAT

How can interfering anti-P1 antibody be removed from a mixture of antibodies? A. Neutralization with saliva B. Agglutination with human milk C. Combination with urine D. Neutralization with hydatid cyst fluid

D. Neutralization with hydatid cyst fluid

Which of the following antibodies characteristically gives a refractile mixed-field appearance? A. Anti-K B. Anti-Di C. Anti-Sd D. Anti-s

C. Anti-Sd

The k (Cellano) antigen is a high-frequency antigen and is found on most red cells. How often would one expect to find the corresponding antibody? A. Often B. Rarely C. It depends upon the population, because certainracial and ethnic groups show a higher frequencyof anti-k D. Impossible to determine without consultingregional blood group antigen charts

B. Rarely

What ABO types may donate to any other ABO type? A. A negative, B negative, AB negative, O negative B. O negative C. AB negative D. AB negative, A negative, B negative

B. O negative

What may be found in the serum of a person who is exhibiting signs of TRALI (transfusion-related acute lung injury)? A. Red blood cell alloantibody B. IgA antibody C. Antileukocyte antibody D. Allergen

C. Antileukocyte antibody

Which type of transfusion reaction occurs in about 1% of all transfusions, results in a temperature rise of 1°C or higher, is associated with blood component transfusion, and is not related to the patient’s medical condition? A. Immediate hemolytic B. Delayed hemolytic C. Febrile nonhemolytic reaction D. Transfusion-related acute lung injury

C. Febrile nonhemolytic reaction

What would be the result of group A blood given to an O patient? A. Nonimmune transfusion reaction B. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction C. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction D. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

B. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction

LEUKOREDUCED RED CELLS is a product in which the absolute WBC count in the unit is reduced to ____, and contains at least ____ of the original RBC mass. A. 1 x 10 10th, 85% B. 3.0 x 10 11th, 85% C. 5.5 x 10 10th, 85% D. 5 x 10 6th, 85%

D. 5 x 10 6th, 85%

Standards require that granulocyte components collected by apheresis contain a minimum of ____ granulocytes in about 75% of units tested. A. 1.0 x 10 10th B. 5.5 x 10 10th C. 3.0 x 10 10th D. 1.5 x 10 10th

A. 1.0 x 10 10th

RANDOM-DONOR PLATELETS (RDP) must contain at least: A. 3.0 x 10 10th platelets B. 5.5 x 10 10th platelets C. 3.0 x 10 11th platelets D. 5.5 x 10 11th platelets

B. 5.5 x 10 10th platelets

SINGLE-DONOR PLATELETS (SDP) must contain at least: A. 3.0 x 10 10th platelets B. 5.5 x 10 10th platelets C. 3.0 x 10 11th platelets D. 5.5 x 10 11th platelets

C. 3.0 x 10 11th platelets

Which transfusion reaction presents with fever, maculopapular rash, watery diarrhea, abnormal liver function, and pancytopenia? A. Transfusion-associated sepsis B. Transfusion-related acute lung injury C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease D. Transfusion-associated allergic reaction

C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease

Which animals were immunized that led to the discovery of the Rh blood group? A. Rhesus macaque monkeys B. Mice and rats C. Frogs D. Guinea pigs and rabbits

D. Guinea pigs and rabbits

A 63-year-old man with a hemoglobin value of 130 g/L (13 g/dL) and pulse of 80 beats/min, who received human pituitary growth hormone (PGH) when he was 10 years old, presents for whole blood donation. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD,) or temporarily defer (TD) the donor? A. Accept the donor B. TD, because of the human PGH C. PD, because of the human PGH D. PD, because of the high hemoglobin value

C. PD, because of the human PGH

A 38-year-old female weighing 153 lbs, who received the rubella vaccine 2 months previously, presents to donate whole blood. She also received 2 units of packed cells after the delivery of her eighth child 8 weeks ago. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor? A. Accept the donor B. TD because of the packed cells 8 weeks ago C. PD because of receiving blood products D. TD because of the rubella vaccine

B. TD because of the packed cells 8 weeks ago

A 22-year-old female with a cousin with AIDS who had taken aspirin the day before and with needle marks on both arms presents to donate WHOLE BLOOD. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor? A. PD, needle marks on both arms B. TD, needle marks on both arms C. PD, cousin with AIDS D. TD, because of the aspirin

A. PD, needle marks on both arms

Individuals with a ________ are prone to developing severe, recurrent life-threatening infections with encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and may also be subject to immune complex diseases; such complexes can lodge in the kidney and result in glomerulonephritis: A. C1 deficiency B. C2 deficiency C. C3 deficiency D. C5 deficiency

C. C3 deficiency

A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least ____ Todd units in an adult. A. 200 Todd units B. 240 Todd units C. 320 Todd units D. 340 Todd units

B. 240 Todd units

A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least ____ Todd units in a child. A. 200 Todd units B. 240 Todd units C. 320 Todd units D. 340 Todd units

C. 320 Todd units

Most common and easiest method to detect varicella-zoster virus (VZV) antibodies: A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) B. Fluorescent ab to membrane ag (FAMA) C. Hemagglutination D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) ## Footnote VARICELLA-ZOSTER VIRUS ANTIBODIES 1. ELISA - MOST COMMON, automated, provides objective results, and does not require viral culture -------------- 2. FAMA (fluorescent antibody to membrane antigen) - REFERENCE METHOD, most sensitive and reliable; requires live, virus-infected cells and is not suitable for large-scale routine testing

It is considered as the reference method for VZV antibody; most sensitive and most reliable: A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) B. Fluorescent ab to membrane ag (FAMA) C. Hemagglutination D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

B. Fluorescent ab to membrane ag (FAMA) ## Footnote VARICELLA-ZOSTER VIRUS ANTIBODIES 1. ELISA - MOST COMMON, automated, provides objective results, and does not require viral culture -------------- 2. FAMA (fluorescent antibody to membrane antigen) - REFERENCE METHOD, most sensitive and reliable; requires live, virus-infected cells and is not suitable for large-scale routine testing

An immunocompromised patient was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hemorrhagic cystitis. Which combination of virus and specimen would be most appropriate to diagnose a viral cause of this disorder? A. BK virus—urine B. Human papilloma virus—skin C. Hepatitis B virus—serum D. Epstein–Barr virus—serum

A. BK virus—urine

Discovery of genetic principles underlying the generation of antibodies with different specificities: A. Gerald Edelman B. Cesar Milstein C. Susumu Tonegawa D. Louis Pasteur

C. Susumu Tonegawa

Father of Immunology: (Stevens, Turgeon) A. Edward Jenner B. Louis Pasteur C. Ellie Metchnikoff D. Susumu Tonegawa

B. Louis Pasteur

Which immunoglobulin class(es) has (have) a J chain? A. IgM B. IgE and IgD C. IgM and sIgA D. IgG3 and IgA

C. IgM and sIgA

All of the following statements are true for IgE, except: A. Most heat-stable of all immunoglobulins B. Activate mast cells and basophils C. Least abundant immunoglobulin in the serum D. Serve a protective role by triggering an acute inflammatory reaction that recruits neutrophils and eosinophils to the area

A. Most heat-stable of all immunoglobulins

Individuals with a _________ are prone to developing severe, recurrent life-threatening infections with encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and may also be subject to immune complex diseases; such complexes can lodge in the kidney and result in glomerulonephritis: A. C1 deficiency B. C2 deficiency C. C3 deficiency D. C5 deficiency

C. C3 deficiency

CONVERGENCE OF THE THREE PATHWAYS It serves as the pivotal point for all three complement pathways: A. C1 B. C2 C. C3 D. C5

C. C3

Current recommendations include the combined detection of mannan and anti-mannan antibodies for the specific identification of _____ species in serum samples: A. Bordetella B. Candida C. Cryptococcus D. Mycobacterium

B. Candida

Signal amplification differs from target amplification when designing protocols for identification of nucleic acids. Which of the following is an example of a signal amplification technique? A. Branched-chain DNA detection B. Ligase chain reaction C. Polymerase chain reaction D. Reverse-transcriptase PCR

A. Branched-chain DNA detection

Which technique involves PROBE amplification rather than target amplification? A. Southern blot B. PCR C. Transcription-mediated amplification D. Ligase chain reaction

D. Ligase chain reaction

Which technique is used to detect DNA containing a specific base sequence by applying a labeled probe to DNA bands immobilized onto nitrocellulose paper following electrophoresis? A. Southern blot B. Northern blot C. Dot blot D. Western blot

A. Southern blot

MINIMUM precentrifugation time for specimens drawn in serum separator tubes is: A. 10 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 20 minutes D. 30 minutes

D. 30 minutes ## Footnote Specimens drawn in serum separator tubes (SSTs) generally clot within 30 minutes. Consequently, to prevent latent fibrin formation in the serum, the minimum precentrifugation time for an SST is 30 minutes.

According to CLSI, the MAXIMUM time limit for separating serum or plasma from cells is: A. 15 minutes from the time of collection B. 30 minutes from the time of collection C. 1 hour from the time of collection D. 2 hours from the time of collection

D. 2 hours from the time of collection ## Footnote All specimens should be transported to the laboratory promptly. According to Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines, unless conclusive evidence indicates that longer times do not affect the accuracy of test results, specimens should be separated from the cells as soon as possible, with a maximum time limit of 2 hours.

Another formula to compute for FMH = (Fetal cells divided by 2,000) x 5,000 mL 5,000 ML OR 5 LITERS MATERNAL BLOOD VOLUME A Kleihauer–Betke acid elution test identifies 40 fetal cells in 2,000 maternal red cells. How many full doses of RhIg are indicated? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

D. 4

Most blood group system genes and their resulting genetic traits display what type of inheritance? A. Sex-linked dominant B. Sex-linked recessive C. Autosomal recessive D. Autosomal codominant

D. Autosomal codominant

Which of the following red cell typings are most commonly found in the African American donor population? A. Lu(a-b-) B. Jk(a-b-) C. Fy(a-b-) D. K-k-

C. Fy(a-b-)

Antibodies from which of the following blood group systems are notorious for causing delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions? A. Rh B. KEL C. FY D. JK

D. JK

Which of the following genes is not in the MHC class I region? A. HLA-A B. HLA-8 C. HLA-C D. HLA-DR

D. HLA-DR

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is associated with antibody specificity toward which of the following? A. KEL system antigens B. FY system antigens C. P antigen D. I antigen

C. P antigen

Which of the following immunoglobulins is most efficient at activating complement via the classical pathway? A. lgG2 B. lgG4 C. lgM D. lgA

C. lgM

Which of the following immunoglobulins is most efficient at causing direct hemagglutination? A. lgG B. lgM C. lgA D. lgE

B. lgM

Appropriate antigen-antibody ratios are important to avoid an excess of unbound antibody, which is known as: A. Dosage effect B. pH effect C. Postzone effect D. Prozone effect

D. Prozone effect

Low ionic strength saline (LISS) acts as an enhancement medium and facilitates antibody uptake by: A. Activating complement B. Increasing flexibility in hinge region C. Removing water molecules D. Reducing zeta potential

D. Reducing zeta potential ## Footnote Low ionic strength saline (LISS) facilitates hemagglutination by decreasing ionic strength and reducing the zeta potential, allowing for antibodies to react with their respective red cell antigens. LISS may also increase antibody uptake and reduce incubation times.

Which WBC is capable of further differentiation in tissues? A. Neutrophil B. Eosinophil C. Basophil D. Monocyte

D. Monocyte

Antigenic groups identified by different sets of antibodies reacting in a similar manner to certain standard cell lines best describes: A. Cytokines B. Clusters of differentiation (CD) C. Neutrophilic granules D. Opsonins

B. Clusters of differentiation (CD)

Which of the following best describes a hapten? A. Cannot react with antibody B. Antigenic only when coupled to a carrier C. Has multiple determinant sites D. A large chemically complex molecule

B. Antigenic only when coupled to a carrier

Which best describes an epitope? A. A peptide that must be at least 10,000 MW B. An area of an immunogen recognized only by T cells C. A segment of sequential amino acids only D. A key portion of the immunogen

D. A key portion of the immunogen

HLA molecules A, B, and C belong to which MHC class? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV

A. Class I

The structure formed by the fusion of engulfed material and enzymatic granules within the phagocytic cell is called a: A. Phagosome B. Lysosome C. Vacuole D. Phagolysosome

D. Phagolysosome

A 40-year-old male who is a smoker develops symptoms of premature emphysema. The symptoms may be caused by a deficiency of which of the following acute-phase reactants A. Haptoglobin B. Alpha1-antitrypsin C. Fibrinogen D. Ceruloplasmin

B. Alpha1-antitrypsin

Which is a distinguishing feature of a pre-B cell? A. μ chains in the cytoplasm B. Complete IgM on the surface C. Presence of CD21 antigen D. Presence of CD25 antigen

A. μ chains in the cytoplasm

The subclasses of IgG differ mainly in: A. The type of L chain B. The arrangement of disulfide bonds C. The ability to act as opsonins D. Molecular weight

B. The arrangement of disulfide bonds

All of the following are true of IgE except that it: A. Fails to fix complement. B. Is heat stable. C. Attaches to tissue mast cells. D. Is found in the serum of allergic persons.

B. Is heat stable.

Why might a colony stimulating factor be given to a cancer patient? A. Stimulate activity of NK cells B. Increase production of certain types of leukocytes C. Decrease the production of TNF D. Increase production of mast cells

B. Increase production of certain types of leukocytes

Mannose-binding protein in the lectin pathway is most similar to which classical pathway component? A. C3 B. C1rs C. C1q D. C4

C. C1q

Which of the following describes the role of properdin in the alternative pathway? A. Stabilization of C3/C5 convertase B. Conversion of B to Bb C. Inhibition of C3 convertase formation D. Binding and cleavage of Factor B

A. Stabilization of C3/C5 convertase

A lack of C1-INH might result in which of the following conditions? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria B. Hemolytic uremic syndrome C. Hereditary angioedema D. Increased bacterial infections

C. Hereditary angioedema

Which technique represents a single-diffusion reaction? A. Radial immunodiffusion B. Ouchterlony diffusion C. Immunoelectrophoresis D. Immunofixation electrophoresis

A. Radial immunodiffusion

Reactions involving IgG may need to be enhanced for which reason? A. It is only active at 25°C. B. It may be too small to produce lattice formation. C. It has only one antigen-binding site. D. It is only able to produce visible precipitation reactions.

B. It may be too small to produce lattice formation.

What is the immune phenomenon associated with the Arthus reaction? A. Tissue destruction by cytotoxic T cells B. Removal of antibody-coated RBCs C. Deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels D. Release of histamine from mast cells

C. Deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels

Which of the following would be considered an organ-specific autoimmune disease? A. SLE B. RA C. GPA D. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

D. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Which of the following would be considered a significant finding in Graves disease? A. Increased TSH levels B. Antibody to TSHR C. Decreased T3 and T4 D. Antithyroglobulin antibody

B. Antibody to TSHR

Anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated proteins) is specifically associated with which autoimmune disease? A. RA B. MG C. Autoimmune hepatitis D. Goodpasture’s syndrome

A. RA

Forward-angle light scatter is an indicator of cell: A. Granularity. B. Density. C. Size. D. Number.

C. Size.

Destruction of the myelin sheath of axons caused by the presence of antibody is characteristic of which disease? A. MS B. MG C. Graves disease D. Goodpasture’s syndrome

A. MS

Antimitochondrial antibodies are strongly associated with which disease? A. Autoimmune hepatitis B. Celiac disease C. Primary biliary cirrhosis D. Goodpasture’s syndrome

C. Primary biliary cirrhosis

What is the primary goal of TQM? A. Precise test results B. Increased laboratory productivity C. Improved patient outcomes D. Reproducible test results

C. Improved patient outcomes

Antigen receptors on T lymphocytes bind HLA class II + peptide complexes with the help of which accessory molecule? A. CD2 B. CD3 C. CD4 D. CD8

C. CD4

Suppose a 30-year-old man was found to be a suitable donor for a kidney transplant to his younger sister. This transplant would be an example of a(an): A. Autograft B. Allograft C. Isograft D. Xenograft

B. Allograft

A woman with breast cancer is treated with a monoclonal antibody to HER2. This is an example of: A. Cancer vaccine B. An immunotoxin C. Passive immunotherapy D. Active immunotherapy

C. Passive immunotherapy

Each of the following markers is correctly paired with a disease in which it can be used for patient monitoring except: A. CEA/choriocarcinoma B. CA 15-3/breast adenocarcinoma C. CA 125/ovarian adenocarcinoma D. CA 19-9/pancreatic adenocarcinoma

A. CEA/choriocarcinoma

Which of the following is a marker used in immunohistochemical staining to identify tumors of epithelial origin? A. Cytokeratins B. Vimentin C. CD45 D. CD10

A. Cytokeratins

Which of the following enzymes is used to detect the presence of H. pylori infections? A. DNase B. Hyaluronidase C. Urease D. Peptidase

C. Urease

Antibodies to which of the following viral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection? A. gp120 B. gp160 C. gp41 D. p24

D. p24

The antigenic component of the hepatitis B vaccine differs from those of many of the conventional vaccines in that it consists of a: A. Live, attenuated virus. B. Inactivated virus. C. Cryptic antigen. D. Recombinant antigen.

D. Recombinant antigen.

The hemorrhagic problems associated with scurvy are due to a deficiency of ______, which is a cofactor required for collagen synthesis. A. Vitamin C B. Prothrombin C. Vitamin K D. Protein C

A. Vitamin C

Of the following therapeutic agents, those considered to be anti-platelet medications are: A. Aspirin and Plavix B. Coumadin and heparin C. Heparin and protamine sulfate D. Tissue plasminogen activator and streptokinase

A. Aspirin and Plavix

Gaucher disease: A. Monocyte-macrophage series B. Neutrophilic series C. Lymphocytic series D. Erythrocytic series

A. Monocyte-macrophage series

Niemann-Pick disease: A. Monocyte-macrophage series B. Neutrophilic series C. Lymphocytic series D. Erythrocytic series

A. Monocyte-macrophage series

Chédiak-Higashi syndrome: A. Monocyte-macrophage series B. Neutrophilic series C. Lymphocytic series D. Erythrocytic series

B. Neutrophilic series

Chronic granulomatous disease: A. Monocyte-macrophage series B. Neutrophilic series C. Lymphocytic series D. Erythrocytic series

B. Neutrophilic series

Lazy leukocyte syndrome: A. Monocyte-macrophage series B. Neutrophilic series C. Lymphocytic series D. Erythrocytic series

B. Neutrophilic series

A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least _____ Todd units in an adult. A. 200 Todd units B. 240 Todd units C. 320 Todd units D. 340 Todd units

B. 240 Todd units

A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least _____ Todd units in a child. A. 200 Todd units B. 240 Todd units C. 320 Todd units D. 340 Todd units

C. 320 Todd units

Interpret the following results for EBV infection: IgG and IgM antibodies to viral capsid antigen (VCA) are positive. A. Infection in the past B. Infection with a mutual enhancer virus such as HIV C. Current infection D. Impossible to interpret; need more information

C. Current infection

Antigen receptors on T lymphocytes bind HLA class II molecules with the help of which accessory molecule? a. CD2 b. CD3 c. CD4 d. CD8

c. CD4

What molecule on the surface of most T cells recognizes antigen? a. IgT b. MHC protein c. CD3 d. TcR

d. TcR

Antibody E (Anti-E) is for a. bacteria b. parasite c. virus

b. parasite ## Footnote Antibody E or IgE

Which of the following cells expresses HLA class II antigens? A. B cells B. Erythrocytes C. Platelets D. T cells

A. B cells

Select the term that describes the unique part of the antigen that is recognized by a corresponding antibody. A. Immunogen B. Epitope C. Avidity D. Clone

B. Epitope

An epitope is also termed a(n): A. Binding site B. Allotype C. Antigenic determinant D. Immunogen

C. Antigenic determinant

An order for blood products for a recent recipient of a bone marrow graft was received in the transfusion service. Because these patients are especially susceptible to GVHD from a transfusion, which blood product would best prevent GVHD A. Leukocyte reduction of the unit B. Washing the unit with normal saline C. Irradiation of the blood product D. Providing HLA-matched blood products

C. Irradiation of the blood product

Which of the following describes the expression of most blood group inheritance? A. Dominant B. Sex-linked C. Recessive D. Codominant

D. Codominant

What is the best source of an HLA-matched kidney? A. Mother B. Father C. Cousin D. Sibling

D. Sibling

Which of the following is not a basic component of a QA program? A. Calibration B. Preventive maintenance C. Viral marker testing D. Record keeping

C. Viral marker testing

Most commonly encountered autoimmune hemolytic anemia: A. Drug-induced AIHA B. Cold AIHA C. Warm AIHA D. Mixed-type AIHA

C. Warm AIHA

Most common type of DNA change that can lead to leukemia. A part of one chromosome breaks off and becomes attached to a different chromosome A. Addition B. Deletion C. Inversion D. Translocation

D. Translocation

Part of a chromosome is lost. This may result in the cell losing a gene that helped keep its growth in check, for example, a tumor suppressor gene. A. Addition B. Deletion C. Inversion D. Translocation

B. Deletion

This occurs when part of a chromosome gets turned around, so it is now in reverse order. This can result in the loss of a gene (or genes) because the cell can no longer read its instructions in protein translation. A. Addition B. Deletion C. Inversion D. Translocation

C. Inversion

An extra chromosome or part of a chromosome is gained. This can lead to too many copies of certain genes within the cell. A. Addition B. Deletion C. Inversion D. Translocation

A. Addition

A stained blood film is held up to the light and observed to be bluer than normal. What microscopic abnormality might be expected on this film? A. Rouleaux B. Spherocytosis C. Reactive lymphocytosis D. Toxic granulation

A. Rouleaux

What could be the possible interpretation? HBsAg: negative Anti-HBc: positive Anti-HBs: positive A. Recovering from acute HBV infection B. Immune because of natural infection C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination D. Chronically infected

B. Immune because of natural infection

What could be the possible interpretation? HBsAg: negative Anti-HBc: negative Anti-HBs: positive A. Recovering from acute HBV infection B. Immune because of natural infection C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination D. Chronically infected

C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination

STUDY THE CHOICES Which description best fits the Donath-Landsteiner antibody? A. lgM cold agglutinin B. Biphasic lgM hemolysin C. lgG biphasic hemolysin D. lgG warm agglutinin

C. lgG biphasic hemolysin

Which of the following cytokines is most responsible for eosinophil differentiation and release from the bone marrow? A. IL-1 B. IL-2 C. IL-4 D. IL-5

D. IL-5

Which of the following is characteristic of cellular changes as megakaryoblasts mature into megakaryocytes within the bone marrow? A. Progressive decrease in overall cell size B. Increasing basophilia of cytoplasm C. Nuclear division without cytoplasmic maturation D. Fusion of the nuclear lobes

C. Nuclear division without cytoplasmic maturation

STUDY THE CHOICES Hemolysis in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is: A. Temperature-dependent B. Complement-independent C. Antibody-mediated D. Caused by a red cell membrane defect

D. Caused by a red cell membrane defect ## Footnote RBC membrane defect increases susceptibility to complement mediated lysis.

Which of the following is most closely associated with iron deficiency anemia? A. Iron overload in tissue B. Macrocytes C. Basophilic stippling D. Chronic blood loss

D. Chronic blood loss

Which of the following is the most characteristic finding in autoimmune hemolytic anemia: A. Increased reticulocyte count B. Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia C. Peripheral spherocytosis D. Positive direct antiglobulin test

D. Positive direct antiglobulin test

Which of the following tumors are associated with erythrocytosis due to excessive erythropoietin production? A. Renal cell carcinoma B. Sarcoma C. Basal cell carcinoma D. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung

A. Renal cell carcinoma

Which abnormal RBC morphology is associated with pyruvate kinase deficiency? A. Acanthocytes B. Dacryocytes C. Echinocytes D. Drepanocytes

C. Echinocytes

What is the specificity of cold autoagglutinin disease? A. Anti-i B. Anti-H C. Anti-Pr D. Anti-I

D. Anti-I

In a patient with an increased red cell mass into the 99th percentile and serum erythropoietin level below reference range for normal, which of the following criteria confirms a diagnosis of polycythemia vera? A. Bone marrow panmyelosis B. Inv(16) mutation C. JAK2 V617F mutation D. BCR/ABL 1 translocation

C. JAK2 V617F mutation

The Philadelphia chromosome is formed by a translocation between: A. Chromosome 22 and chromosome 9 B. Chromosome 21 and chromosome 9 C. Chromosome 21 and chromosome 6 D. Chromosome 22 and chromosome 6

A. Chromosome 22 and chromosome 9

Increased numbers of basophils are often seen in: A. Acute infections B. Chronic myelocytic leukemia C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia D. Erythroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic disease of the newborn)

B. Chronic myelocytic leukemia ## Footnote Basophils may be increased in CML as well as immature neutrophils and eosinophils.

Which of the following is most closely associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia? A. Ringed sideroblasts B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation C. Micromegakaryocytes D. BCR/ABL fusion gene

D. BCR/ABL fusion gene

QUANTITATIVE PLATELET DISORDER The disease state that presents with a quantitative platelet disorder is: A. von Willebrand disease B. Hemophilia A C. Glanzmann thrombasthenia D. May-Hegglin anomaly

D. May-Hegglin anomaly ## Footnote Incorrect Glanzmann's = Qualitative or Functional Platelet Disorder

Evidence of a hemolytic event is present in the peripheral blood smear when which of the following is seen? A. Basophilic stippling B. Increased polychromasia C. Increased target cells D. Stomatocytes

B. Increased polychromasia ## Footnote due to bone marrow response to blood loss

A common source of interference in measuring hemoglobin concentration is: A. Hemolysis B. Very high WBC count C. Cold agglutinins D. Clumped platelets

B. Very high WBC count

Individuals who lack the Duffy antigen on the surface of their red blood cells are protected against which species of Plasmodium: A. P. vivax B. P. falciparum C. P. malariae D. P.ovale

A. P. vivax

Most blood group system genes and their resulting genetic traits display what type of inheritance? A. Sex-linked dominant B. Sex-linked recessive C. Autosomal recessive D. Autosomal codominant

D. Autosomal codominant

Which of the following genes is not in the MHC class I region A. HLA-A B. HLA-B C. HLA-C D. HLA-DR

D. HLA-DR

Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin-A? A. M,N B. Le^a, Le^b C. S, s D. P, P1, Pk

A. M,N

Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i? A. Associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia B. Found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis C. Detected at lower temperatures in the serum of normal individuals D. Found only in the serum of group O individuals

B. Found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis

Which of the following antigens is most likely to be involved in hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn? A. Le^a B. P1 C. M D. K

D. K

Mixed field agglutination encountered in ABO forward typing with no history of transfusion would most likely be due to: A. Bombay phenotype (Oh) B. T activation C. A3 red cells D. Positive indirect antiglobulin test

C. A3 red cells

A patient's serum sample is reactive with all cells except the autocontrol when tested by polyethylene glycol-antihuman globulin (PEG-AHG). The patient's phenotype is confirmed as: C-E+c+e+ K-k+, Kp(a-b+) Js(a-b+) Fy(a-b+) Jk(a-b-)🌼 M+N+S+s+ Phenotypically similar cells are tested and found to be nonreactive. In what population of donors are we most likely to find a compatible donor for this patient? A. African B. Middle Eastern C. South American D. Polynesian

D. Polynesian ## Footnote Fy (a-b-) Blacks Jk (a-b-) Polynesians, Filipinos, Indonesians, Chinese, Japanese

In an emergency situation, what type of blood should be given to a female patient of child-bearing age if the ABO group and Rh type are unknown? A. Group 0, Whole Blood B. Group 0, Rh-negative Red Blood Cells C. Group 0, Rh-positive Red Blood Cells D. Group 0, Washed Red Blood Cells

B. Group 0, Rh-negative Red Blood Cells

A patient admitted to the trauma unit requires emergency release of Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP). Which of the following blood groups of FFP should be issued? A. A B. B C. AB D. O

C. AB

Severe intravascular hemolysis is most likely caused by antibodies of which blood group system? A. ABO B. Rh C. KEL D. FY

A. ABO

Which of the following blood group systems is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions? A. LE B. JK C. LU D. I

B. JK

ISBT BEGINNING WITH 030: A. ABO B. Scianna C. John Milton Hagen D. Rh-associated glycoprotein (RHAG)

D. Rh-associated glycoprotein (RHAG)

What is the maximum volume of blood that can be collected from a 110-lb donor, including samples for processing? A. 450 mL B. 500 mL C. 525 mL D. 550 mL

C. 525 mL

What are the possible ABO phenotypes of the offspring from the mating of a group A to a group B individual? A. O, A, B B. A, B C. A, B, AB D. O, A, B, AB

D. O, A, B, AB

An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions: Anti-A 4+ Anti-B 4+ Anti-A1 Neg A1 cells 2+ B cells Neg The reactions above may be seen in a patient who is: A. A1 with acquired B B. A2B with anti-A1 C. AB with increased concentrations of protein in the serum D. AB with an autoantibody

B. A2B with anti-A1

Which of the following ABO blood groups contains the least amount of H substance? A. A1B B. A2 C. B D. O

A. A1B

How are Rh antigens inherited? A. Autosomal recessive alleles B. Sex-linked genes C. Codominant alleles D. X-linked

C. Codominant alleles

Biochemically speaking, what type of molecules are Rh antigens? A. Glycophorins B. Simple sugars C. Proteins D. Lipids

C. Proteins

Anti-LW will not react with which of the following? A. Rh-positive RBCs B. Rh-negative RBCs C. Rh null RBCs D. Rh:33 RBCs

C. Rh null RBCs

Which of the following most commonly causes an individual to type RhD positive yet possess anti-D? A. Genetic weak D B. Partial D C. C in trans to RHD D. D epitopes on RhCE protein

B. Partial D

The antibody to this high-prevalence antigen demonstrates mixed-field agglutination that appears shiny and refractile under the microscope: A. Vel B. JMH C. Jr^a D. Sd^a

D. Sd^a

Which of the following is the most common antibodyseen in the blood bank after ABO and Rh antibodies? A. Anti-Fy^a B. Anti-k C. Anti-Js^a D. Anti-K

D. Anti-K

Anti-Sd^a has been identified in patient ALF. What substance would neutralize this antibody and allow detection of other alloantibodies? A. Saliva B. Hydatid cyst fluid C. Urine D. Human breast milk

C. Urine

Which of the following is a method for determining approximate volume of fetal-maternal bleed? A. Kleihauer-Betke test B. Eluate testing C. Nucleic acid amplification testing D. Antibody screening

A. Kleihauer-Betke test

Which genotype(s) will give rise to the Bombay phenotype A. HH only B. HH and Hh C. Hh and hh D. hh only

D. hh only

A cell that is not actively dividing is said to be in: A. Interphase B. Prophase C. Anaphase D. Telophase

A. Interphase

Which of the following enhancement mediums decreases the zeta potential, allowing antibody and antigen to come closer together? A. LISS B. Polyethylene glycol C. Polybrene D. ZZAP

A. LISS

What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results as well as the autocontrol are positive? A. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb theserum at 4°C B. Retype the sample using a different lot numberof reagents C. Use polyclonal typing reagents D. Report the sample as group AB

A. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb theserum at 4°C

Which donor unit is selected for a recipient with anti-c? A. r ́r B. R0R1 C. R2r ́ D. r ́ry

D. r ́ry

Which genotype usually shows the strongest reaction with anti-D? A. DCE/DCE B. Dce/dCe C. D--/D-- D. -CE/-ce

C. D--/D--

What corrective action should be taken when rouleaux causes positive test results? A. Perform a saline replacement technique B. Perform an autoabsorption C. Run a panel D. Perform an elution

A. Perform a saline replacement technique

A patient types as AB positive. Two units of blood have been ordered by the physician. Currently, the inventory shows: No AB units 10 A-positive units 1 A-negative unit 5 B-positive units 20 O-positive units Which should be set up for the major crossmatch? A. A-positive units B. O-positive units C. B-positive units D. Call another blood supplier for type-specific blood

A. A-positive units

A Kleihauer–Betke acid elution test identifies 40 fetal cells in 2,000 maternal red cells. How many full doses of RhIg are indicated? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

D. 4 ## Footnote Another formula to compute for FMH = (Fetal cells divided by 2,000) x 5,000 mL 5,000 ML OR 5 LITERS MATERNAL BLOOD VOLUME

A donor who has just donated 2 units of Apheresis Red Blood Cells will be deferred from further blood donation for a minimum of how many weeks? A. 8 B. 12 C. 16 D. 24

C. 16

The transport temperature for Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced is: A. 1-6°C B. 1-10°C C. 18-20°C D. 20-24°C

B. 1-10°C

A unit of Red Blood Cells expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small aliquots using a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in: A. 6 hours B. 12 hours C. 5 days D. 35 days

D. 35 days

Upon inspection, a unit of Apheresis Platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appears normal. The technologist should: A. Issue without concern B. Filter to remove the clots C. Centrifuge to express off the clots D. Quarantine for Gram stain and culture

D. Quarantine for Gram stain and culture

Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced must be prepared by a method known to reduce the leukocyte count to: A. <8.3 X 10^5 B. <5.0 x 10^6 C. <5.5 X 10^10 D. < 3.0 x 10^11

B. <5.0 x 10^6

lastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing units of FFP in 37°C water baths because they prevent: A. The FFP bag from cracking when it contacts the warm water B. Water from slowly dialyzing across the bag membrane C. The entry ports from becoming contaminated with water D. The label from peeling off as the water circulates in the bath

C. The entry ports from becoming contaminated with water

Quality control of Apheresis Granulocytes must demonstrate which of the following granulocyte counts in 75% of units tested: A. 1.0 X 10^10 B. 2.0 X 10^ 10 C. 3.0 X 10^10 D. 4.0 x 10^10

A. 1.0 X 10^10

An important determinant of platelet viability during storage is: A. Plasma potassium concentration B. Plasma pH C. Prothrombin time D. Activated partial thromboplastin time

B. Plasma pH

What percentage of red blood cells must be retained when preparing Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced? A. 50% B. 70% C. 85% D. 100%

C. 85%

In a quality assurance program, Cryoprecipitated AHF must contain a minimum of how many international units of Factor VIII: A. 60 B. 70 C. 80 D. 90

C. 80

Transfusion of which of the following is needed to help correct hypofibrinogenemia due to DIC? A. Whole Blood B. Fresh Frozen Plasma C. Cryoprecipitated AHF D. Platelets

C. Cryoprecipitated AHF

Which of the following transfusion reactions is characterized by high fever, shock, hemoglobinuria, DIC and renal failure? A. Bacterial contamination B. Circulatory overload C. Febrile D. Anaphylactic

A. Bacterial contamination

Hemoglobinuria, hypotension and generalized bleeding are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions? A. Allergic B. Circulatory overload C. Hemolytic D. Anaphylactic

C. Hemolytic

Which of the following transfusion reactions occurs after infusion of only a few milliliters of blood and gives no history of fever? A. Febrile B. Circulatory overload C. Anaphylactic D. Hemolytic

C. Anaphylactic

Hives and itching are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions? A. Febrile B. Allergic C. Circulatory overload D. Bacterial

B. Allergic

Symptoms of dyspnea, hypoxemia, and pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion is most likely which type of reaction? A. Anaphylactic B. Hemolytic C. Febrile D. TRALI

D. TRALI

Congestive heart failure, severe headache and/or peripheral edema occurring soon after transfusion is indicative of which type of transfusion reaction? A. Hemolytic B. Febrile C. Anaphylactic D. TACO

D. TACO

RBCs that have been leukoreduced must contain less than ______ and retain at least ______ of original RBCs. A. 8 × 10^6 / 85% B. 8 × 10^6 / 90% C. 5 × 10^6 / 85% D. 5 × 10^6 / 80%

C. 5 × 10^6 / 85%

Which of the following can be given to an apheresis donor to increase the number of circulating granulocytes? A. DDAVP B. Hydroxyethyl starch (HES) C. Immune globulin D. G-CSF

D. G-CSF

What component is most frequently involved with transfusion-associated sepsis? A. Plasma B. Packed red blood cells C. Platelets D. Whole blood

C. Platelets

The HLA genes are located on which chromosome? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

C. 6

The majority of HLA antibodies belongs to what im- munoglobulin class? A. IgD B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM

C. IgG

Of the following diseases, which one has the highest relative risk in association with an HLA antigen? A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Juvenile diabetes C. Narcolepsy D. Rheumatoid arthritis

A. Ankylosing spondylitis

Cold AIHA is sometimes associated with infection by: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae C. Escherichia coli D. Group A Streptococcus

B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

The blood group involved in the autoantibody specificityin PCH is: A. P B. ABO C. Rh D. Lewis

A. P

Which of the following blood groups reacts best with ananti-H or anti-IH? A. O B. B C. A2 D. A1

A. O

The first retrovirus to be associated with human disease was: A. HCV B. HIV C. HTLV-I D. WNV

C. HTLV-I

Individuals exposed to EBV maintain an asymptomatic latent infection in: A. B cells B. T cells C. All lymphocytes D. Monocytes

A. B cells

Which of the following practices has been useful in reducing the incidence of transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)? A. Use of Fresh Frozen Plasma from male donors B. Use of Fresh Frozen Plasma from female donors C. Pathogen reduction treatment of Fresh Frozen Plasma D. Leukocyte-reduced Fresh Frozen Plasma

A. Use of Fresh Frozen Plasma from male donors

The red cells of a nonsecretor (se/se) will most likely type as: A. Le (a-b-) B. Le (a+b+) C. Le (a+b-) D. Le (a-b+)

C. Le (a+b-)

Which of the following red cell typings are most commonly found in the African American donor population? A. Lu (a-b-) B. Jk (a-b-) C. Fy (a-b-) D. K-k-

C. Fy (a-b-)

The reason that group O individuals have the most amount of H antigen on their red cells compared to other ABO phenotypes is: A. Group O individuals produce more precursor type I chain B. Group A, B and AB individuals are heterozygous for the H gene C. The O gene produces more transferase enzyme, which produces more H antigen D. H antigen is left unchanged by the absence of A and/or B transferase enzymes

D. H antigen is left unchanged by the absence of A and/or B transferase enzymes

Why does vaccination against hepatitis B virus (HBV) also prevent hepatitis D virus (HDV) infections? A. An immunogen from HBV in thevaccine is also associated with HDV. B. The HBV vaccine induces formationof heterophile antibodies that crossreact with HDV. C. The HBV vaccine stimulates liver cells to produce antiviral molecules active against all hepatitis viruses. D. HDV requires the host to be concurrently infected with HBV.

D. HDV requires the host to be concurrently infected with HBV.

What antigens would be found in the saliva of an individual with the genotype Sese Lele AO HH? A. A, H B. Le^b, A, H C. Le^a, Le^b, A, H D. Le^a

C. Le^a, Le^b, A, H

Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i? A. Often associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn B. Reacts best at room temperature or 4°C C. Reacts best at 37°C D. Is usually lgG

B. Reacts best at room temperature or 4°C

The K (KEL1) antigen is: A. Absent from the red cells of neonates B. Strongly immunogenic C. Destroyed by enzymes D. Has a frequency of 50% in the random population

B. Strongly immunogenic

Which of the following is the preferred specimen for the initial compatibility testing in exchange transfusion therapy? A. Maternal serum B. Eluate prepared from infant's red blood cells C. Paternal serum D. Infant's post-exchange serum

A. Maternal serum

A characteristic of the Xg^a antigen is that the Xg^a antigen: A. Has a higher frequency in women than in men B. Has a higher frequency in men than in women C. Is enhanced by enzymes D. Is usually a saline reacting antibody

A. Has a higher frequency in women than in men

Anti-E will react with which of the following cells? A. R0R0 B. R1R1 C. R2R2 D. rr

C. R2R2

What antibody can an R1r patient make if transfused with R2R2 blood? A. Anti-D B. Anti-C C. Anti-E D. Anti-c E. Anti-e

C. Anti-E

Platelets must be kept in constant motion for which of the following reasons? A. Maintain the pH so the platelets will be alive before transfusion B. Keep the platelets in suspension and prevent clumping of the platelets C. Mimic what is going on in the blood vessels D. Preserve the coagulation factors and platelet viability

A. Maintain the pH so the platelets will be alive before transfusion

Nonspecific immunity includes all of the following except: A. Inflammation B. Phagocytosis by neutrophils C. B cell activation to produce antibodies D. Resident normal flora

C. B cell activation to produce antibodies

Most laboratories use which type of fire extinguisher? A. Type A B. Type B C. Type C D. Combination ABC

D. Combination ABC

What temperature is used to achieve DNA denaturation to a single strand? A. 74 °C B. 92 °C C. 94 °C D. 102 °C

C. 94 °C

A widely used hemagglutination test for detecting antibody to Treponema pallidum is: A. MHA-TP test B. FTA-ABS test C. VDRL test D. Hemagglutination inhibition assay

A. MHA-TP test ## Footnote VDRL Flocculation

D. Charcoal particles

What is the "M" component in monoclonal gammopathies? a. IgM produced in excess b. u Heavy chain produced in excess c. Maligant proliferation of B cells d. Monoclonal antibody or cell line

d. Monoclonal antibody or cell line ## Footnote refers to any monoclonal protein or cell line produced in a monoclonal gammopathy such as multiple myeloma.

The HLA genes are located on which chromosome? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

C. 6

The majority of HLA antibodies belong to what immunoglobulin class? A. IgD B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM

C. IgG

What is the test of choice for HLA antigen testing? A. Agglutination B. Molecular C. Cytotoxicity D. ELISA

B. Molecular

What is the classical test for HLA antigen typing? A. Agglutination B. Molecular C. Cytotoxicity D. ELISA

C. Cytotoxicity

With cold-reactive autoantibodies, the protein coating the patient’s cells and detected in the DAT is: A. C3 B. IgG C. C4 D. IgM

A. C3

Penicillin given in massive doses has been associated with RBC hemolysis. Which of the classic mechanisms is typically involved in the hemolytic process? A. Immune complex. B. Drug adsorption. C. Membrane modification. D. Autoantibody formation.

B. Drug adsorption.

Which of the following can be given to an apheresis donor to increase the number of circulating granulocytes? A. DDAVP B. Hydroxyethyl starch (HES) C. Immune globulin D. G-CSF

D. G-CSF

The most common anticoagulant used for apheresis procedures is: A. Heparin B. Sodium fluoride C. Warfarin D. Citrate

D. Citrate

The minimum interval allowed between plateletpheresis component collection procedures is: A. 1 day B. 2 days C. 7 days D. 8 weeks

B. 2 days

Pain at infusion site and hypotension are observed with what type of reaction? A. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction B. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction C. Allergic reaction D. Febrile nonhemolytic reaction

B. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

Irradiation of blood is performed to prevent: A. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction B. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease D. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload

C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease

Absolute IgA deficiency is a classic example of a severe allergic reaction. A result indicating an absolute IgA deficiency is: A. <0.05 mg/dL B. <0.50 mg/dL C. <0.50 gm/dL D. <5 mg/dL

A. <0.05 mg/dL

Nonimmune hemolysis can be caused during transfusion by: A. Use of small bore size needle B. Use of an infusion pump C. Improper use of a blood warmer D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The only presenting sign most often accompanying a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction is: A. Renal failure B. Unexplained decrease in hemoglobin C. Active bleeding D. Hives

B. Unexplained decrease in hemoglobin

C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease

Which of the following lists the correct shelf life for the component? A. Deglycerolized RBCs - 24 hours B. RBCs (CPD) - 35 days C. Platelet concentrate - 10 days D. FFP - 5 years E. RBCs (CPDA-1) - 21 days

A. Deglycerolized RBCs - 24 hours

What blood group system antibodies are commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions? A. Rh B. MNS C. ABO D. Kidd

D. Kidd

In FPIA, increased Ag: a. Increased fluorescence b. Decreased fluorescence c. Increased fluorescence polarization d. Decreased fluorescence polarization

d. Decreased fluorescence polarization

Which test is recommended for testing cerebrospinal fluid for detection fo neurosyphilis? a. RPR b. VDRL c. FTA-ABS d. Enzyme immunoassay

b. VDRL

For diagnosis of late latent or teritary syphilis, the most appropriate assay is: a. RPR b. VDRL c. FTA-ABS d. FTA-ABS IgM

c. FTA-ABS

A widely used hemagglutination test for detecting antibody to Treponema pallidum is: a. MHA - TP test b. FTA-ABS test c. VDRL test d. Hemagglutination inhibition assay

a. MHA - TP test

Which of the following is the most sensitive test to detect congenital syphilis? a. VDRL b. RPR c. MHA-TP d. PCR

d. PCR

Tumor markers found in the circulation are most frequently measured by: a. Immunoassays b. Thin layer chromatography c. High pressure liquid chromatography d. Colorimetry

a. Immunoassays

Which of the following tumor markers is used to monitor persons with breast cancer for recurrence of disease? a. Cathepsin b. CA - 15-3 c. Retinoblastoma gene d. Estrogen receptor (ER)

b. CA - 15-3

Which tumor marker is used to determine the usefulness of TRASTUZUMAB (HERCEPTIN) therapy for breast cancer? a. PR b. CEA c. HER-2/neu d. Myc

c. HER-2/neu

A 55 year old male with early stage prostate cancer diagnosed by biopsy had his prostate gland removed (simple prostatectomy). His PSA prior to surgery was 10.0 ng/mL. If the surgery was successful in completely removing the tumor cells, what would the PSA result be 1 month after surgery? a. Undetectable b. 1-3 ng/mL c. Less than 4 ng/mL d. Less than 10 ng/mL

a. Undetectable

A patient has a prostate-specific antigen level of 60 ng/mL the day before surgery to remove a localized prostate tumor. One week following surgery, the serum PSA was determined to be 8 ng/mL by the same method. What is the most likely cause of these results? a. Incomplete removal of the malignancy b. Cross reactivity of the anitbody with another tumor antigen c. Testing too soon after surgery d. Hook effect with the PSA assay

c. Testing too soon after surgery

Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody is seen with: A. Wegener granulomatosis B. IgA nephropathy C. Goodpasture syndrome D. Diabetic nephropathy

C. Goodpasture syndrome

Antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody is diagnostic for: A. IgA nephropathy B. Wegener granulomatosis C. Henoch-Schönlein purpura D. Goodpasture syndrome

B. Wegener granulomatosis

Mucopolysaccharidoses, EXCEPT: A. Hunter syndrome B. Hurler syndrome C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome D. Sanfilippo syndrome

C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

A complete deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase results in which disease? A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome B. Modification of diet in renal disease C. Maple syrup urine disease D. Reye’s syndrome E. Megaloblastic anemia

A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Which of the following is considered a primary lymphoid organ? A. Peyer patch B. Thymus C. Lymph node D. Spleen E. Appendix

B. Thymus

Which of the following is a characteristic of fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)? A. Semiconductor nanocrystals B. Method of tagging antibodies with super paramagnetic particles C. Technology based on two different 200-nm latex particles D. Molecular cytogenetic technique

D. Molecular cytogenetic technique

The technique that uses fluorescent DNA probes to detect chromosomal abnormalities within cells in cytogenetic studies is referred to as: A. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) B. Karyotype in situ hybridization (KISH) C. Fluorescence in situ PCR D. Microarray

A. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)

A. Southern blot

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) involves three processes. Select the order in which these occur. A. Extension→Annealing→Denaturation B. Annealing→Denaturation→Extension C. Denaturation→Annealing→Extension D. Denaturation→Extension→Annealing

C. Denaturation→Annealing→Extension

In the PCR cycle, how is denaturation accomplished? A. Heat B. Alkali treatment C. Addition of sulfonylurea D. Formamide

A. Heat

What is the unique characteristic of the DNA polymerase, Taq DNA polymerase, used in PCR? A. It can be enzyme labeled B. It is more efficient than eukaryotic polymerases C. It is heat stable D. It works with DNA of any species

C. It is heat stable

Which method is most useful for confirmation that a culture isolate is Group B streptococcus? A. Southern blotting B. Polymerase chain reaction C. Direct hybridization D. Probe capture assay

C. Direct hybridization

Which region determines whether an immunoglobulin molecule can fix complement? A. VH B. CH C. VL D. CL

B. CH

Macrophages produce which of the following proteins during antigen processing? A. IL-1 and IL-6 B. γ-Interferon C. IL-4, IL-5, and IL-10 D. Complement components C1 and C3

A. IL-1 and IL-6

Which method is used to test for HIV infection in infants who are born to HIV-positive mothers? A. ELISA B. Western blot test C. Polymerase chain reaction D. Viral culture

C. Polymerase chain reaction

A newborn is to be tested for a vertically transmitted HIV infection. Which of the following tests is most useful? A. HIV PCR B. CD4 count C. Rapid HIV antibody test D. HIV IgM antibody test

A. HIV PCR

Can Rh positive blood be transfused to an Rh negative person? A. Never, under no circumstances B. Only if Rh positive blood has been previously administered C. May be transfused to males or females past childbearing age D. Depend on the responder status of the individual

C. May be transfused to males or females past childbearing age Rh positive blood may be transfused to Rh negative males or to females past childbearing age. These Rh negative individuals, however, must not have anti-D.

The rosette test will detect a fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH) as small as: A. 10 mL B. 15 mL C. 20 mL D. 30 mL

A. 10 mL The rosette test is a sensitive method that can measure a FMH ≥ 10 mL.

A fetal screen yielded negative results on a mother who is O negative and infant who is O positive. What course of action should be taken? A. Perform a Kleihauer-Betke test B. Issue one full dose of Rhig C. Perform a DAT on the infant D. Perform an antibody screen on the mother

B. Issue one full dose of Rhig The fetal screen or rosette test is negative, indicating the fetal maternal blood is negligible in a possible RhiG candidate, standard practice is to issue one dose of RhiG

Anti-LW will not react with which of the following? A. Rh-positive RBCs B. Rh-negative RBCs C. Rh null RBCs D. Rh:33 RBCs

C. Rh null RBCs

LW, G, f, V and vs antigens are associated with: A. Rh blood group system B. Lewis system

A. Rh blood group system LW -Originally identified as the Rh blood group system G -Present on most D+ and all C+ cells f -cis-product antigen; c and e are inherited as a haplotype V -Found in 30% of blacks and <1% of whites VS -es, occurs in 32% in blacks

Inheritance of sese and the Lewis gene produces which of the following phenotype: A. Le (a+ b-) B. Le (a+b+) C. Le (a-b+) D. Le (a-b-)

A. Le (a+ b-)

Inheritance of Sese and the Lewis gene produces which of the following phenotype: A. Le (a+ b-) B. Le (a+b+) C. Le (a-b+) D. Le (a-b-)

C. Le (a-b+)

A whole-blood donor currently on clopidogrel (Plavix) is precluded (prevented) from donating which product? A. Platelets B. Red blood cells C. FFP D. Cryoprecipitate

A. Platelets

A donor bag is half filled during donation when the blood flow stops. Select the correct course of action. A. Closely observe the bag for at least 3 minutes; ifblood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle B. Remove the needle immediately and discontinuethe donation C. Check and reposition the needle if necessary; ifblood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle D. Withdraw the needle and perform a secondvenipuncture in the other arm

C. Check and reposition the needle if necessary; ifblood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle

All of the following apply to a double red cell unit apheresis collection except: A. The hematocrit must be at least 38% B. The weight for a female is at least 150 lb C. The height for a male is at least 5 ft 1 in. D. The deferral period following collection is16 weeks

A. The hematocrit must be at least 38%

Who is the best candidate for a predeposit autologous donation? A. A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in 2 weeks; he has alloanti-k B. A 23-year-old female leukemia patient with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dL C. A 12-year-old boy who has hemophilia D. A 53-year-old woman who has septicemia

A. A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in 2 weeks; he has alloanti-k

Which of the following donors could be accepted for whole-blood donation? A. A construction worker who was incarcerated for opiate abuse B. A triathlete with a pulse of 45 C. A man who is currently taking finasteride (Propecia) D. A woman in her 14th week of pregnancy

B. A triathlete with a pulse of 45

A woman begins to breathe rapidly while donating blood. Choose the correct course of action. A. Continue the donation; rapid breathing is not areason to discontinue a donation B. Withdraw the needle, raise her feet, andadminister ammonia C. Discontinue the donation and provide a paper bag D. Tell her to sit upright and apply a cold compressto her forehead

C. Discontinue the donation and provide a paper bag

PLS CHECK MEANING OF PRECLUDE BEFORE ANSWERING Which of the following precludes acceptance of a plateletpheresis donor? A. Platelet count of 75 × 10^9/L in a donor who is a frequent platelet donor B. Plasma loss of 800 mL from plasmapheresis1 week ago C. Plateletpheresis performed 4 days ago D. Aspirin ingested 7 days ago

A. Platelet count of 75 × 10^9/L in a donor who is a frequent platelet donor

PCR involving the sequential use of two primer sets: A. Multiplex PCR B. Nested PCR C. Arbitrary primed PCR D. RT-PCR

B. Nested PCR

The method considered to be the “gold standard” of molecular methods is: A. DNA sequencing B. Southern blot C. Northern blot D. Dot blot

A. DNA sequencing

A unit tests positive for syphilis using the rapid plasma reagin test (RPR). The microhemagglutinin assay-Treponema pallidum (MHA-TP) on the same unit is negative. What is the disposition of the unit? A. The unit may be used to prepare components B. The donor must be contacted and questioned further; if the RPR result is most likely a falsepositive, then the unit may be used C. The unit must be discarded D. Cellular components may be prepared but must be irradiated before issue

A. The unit may be used to prepare components

John Smith donated a unit of whole blood in May. Red blood cells made from the whole blood were transfused to a recipient of a community hospital in June with no apparent complications. The blood supplier notified the medical director of the hospital that the donor reported high-risk behavior with another male in April, although viral tests remain negative and the donor is healthy. What course of action should be taken? A. No action should be taken B. The recipient’s physician should be notified C. The recipient’s physician and the recipientshould be notified D. The recipient should be notified

B. The recipient’s physician should be notified

An EIA screening test for HTLV I/II was performed on a whole-blood donor. The results of the EIA were repeatedly reactive but the confirmatory test was negative. On the next donation, the screening test was negative by two different EIA tests. The donor should be: A. Accepted B. Deferred C. Told that only plasma can be made from his donation D. Told to come back in 6 months

A. Accepted

Currently, nucleic acid amplification testing (NAT) testing is performed to detect which viruses? A. HIV and HTLV-I B. HTLV I/II C. HIV, HCV, and WNV D. HIV, HBV, and WNV

C. HIV, HCV, and WNV

Which immunization has the longest deferral period? A. HBIG B. Rubella vaccine C. Influenza vaccine D. Yellow fever vaccine

A. HBIG

Immunoassay method for thyroxine similar to ELISA in that there is a double-antibody system that forms a “sandwich” with the hormone: A. Chemiluminescence B. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA) C. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

Immunoassay method for thyroxine: addition of luminol or acridium esters substrate forms an oxidized product that emits light for short time. A. Chemiluminescence B. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA) C. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

A. Chemiluminescence

Immunoassay method for thyroxine: antibody-bound labeled thyroxine rotates slowly, emitting lower energy light. A. Chemiluminescence B. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA) C. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

B. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)

Immunoassay method for thyroxine: fluorogenic substrate–labeled thyroxine competing with patient T4 for antibody in a homogeneous assay; only unbound, leftover labeled T4 reacts with enzyme to form fluorescent product. A. Chemiluminescence B. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA) C. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

C. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay

All of the following are reasons for performing an adsorption, except: A. Separation of mixtures of antibodies B. Removal of interfering substances C. Confirmation of weak antigens on red cells D. Identification of antibodies causing a positive DAT

D. Identification of antibodies causing a positive DAT

How often can a blood donor donate whole blood? A. Every 24 hours B. Once a month C. Every 8 weeks D. Twice a year

C. Every 8 weeks

Following PLASMAPHERESIS, how long must a person wait before being eligible to donate a unit of whole blood? A. 8 weeks B. 2 weeks C. 48 hours D. 24 hours

C. 48 hours

L1 ISBB Flashcards

(382 cards)