L1 CM

Question 1

Black belts dedicate ____ of their time to quality improvement projects, proactively addressing process and quality problems.

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 70%
D. 100%

Answer 1

D. 100%

Question 2

Green belts contribute ____ of their time to improvement projects while delivering their normal job functions.

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 70%
D. 100%

Answer 2

B. 20%

Question 3

Black belts

A. Project sponsors or champions
B. Project coaches or leaders
C. Project team members
D. Not traditionally used

Answer 3

B. Project coaches or leaders

Question 4

Green belts

A. Project sponsors or champions
B. Project coaches or leaders
C. Project team members
D. Not traditionally used

Answer 4

C. Project team members

Question 5

Blue belts

A. Project sponsors or champions
B. Project coaches or leaders
C. Project team members
D. Not traditionally used

Answer 5

A. Project sponsors or champions

Question 6

IQ 200 system uses Auto Particle Recognition (APR) software that preclassifies urine particles in the photographs based on size, shape, texture and contrast into ____ categories.

A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15

Answer 6

C. 12

Question 7

Which of the following aids in differentiating a spherical transitional cell from a round renal tubular cell?

A. Spherical transitional cell is larger
B. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the renal tubular cell
C. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the spherical transitional cell
D. Round renal tubular cell is larger

Answer 7

B. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the renal tubular cell

Question 8

RTE cell from the proximal convoluted tubules:

A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these

Answer 8

A. Columnar or convoluted

Question 9

RTE cell from the distal convoluted tubules:

A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these

Answer 9

C. Round or oval

Question 10

RTE cells from the collecting duct:

A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these

Answer 10

B. Cuboidal

Question 11

Which of the tubules is impermeable to water?

A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule

Answer 11

C. Ascending loop of Henle

Question 12

Which part of the renal tubule is HIGHLY PERMEABLE to water and does not reabsorb sodium and chloride?

A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule

Answer 12

B. Descending loop of Henle

Question 13

RENAL STONE yellow-brown resembling an old soap and feel somewhat greasy:

A. Phosphate
B. Urate
C. Cystine
D. Calcium oxalate

Answer 13

C. Cystine

Question 14

Yellow to brownish red and are moderately hard stone:

A. Cystine stones
B. Calcium oxalate stones
C. Phosphate stones
D. Uric acid and urate stones

Answer 14

D. Uric acid and urate stones

Question 15

Unique portion of HCG:

A. Glycoprotein portion of alpha subunit
B. Glycoprotein portion of beta subunit
C. Amino acid portion of alpha subunit
D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit

Answer 15

D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit

Question 16

Urine for pregnancy test should have a specific gravity of at least:

A. 1.002
B. 1.003
C. 1.010
D. 1.015

Answer 16

D. 1.015

Question 17

SITUATION: A urine sample is received in the laboratory with the appropriate custody control form, and a request for drug of abuse screening. Which test result would be cause for REJECTING the sample?

A. Temperature after collection 95°F
B. pH 5.0
C. Specific gravity 1.005
D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL

Answer 17

D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL

Question 18

When testing for drugs of abuse in urine, which of the following test results indicate dilution and would be cause for REJECTING the sample?

A. Temperature upon sample submission 92°F
B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL
C. pH 5.8; temperature 94°F
D. Specific gravity 1.012, creatinine 25 mg/dL

Answer 18

B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL

Question 19

What is the most common cause of male infertility?

A. Mumps
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
C. Varicocele
D. Malignancy

Answer 19

C. Varicocele

Question 20

Which of the following is the most common cause of female infertility?

A. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
B. Failure to ovulate
C. Orchitis
D. Menopause

Answer 20

B. Failure to ovulate

LARSON page 436: Failure to ovulate is the most common female infertility problem.

Question 21

Initial magnification:

A. Ocular
B. Objective
C. Condenser
D. Rheostat

Answer 21

B. Objective

Question 22

Further magnification:

A. Ocular
B. Objective
C. Condenser
D. Rheostat

Answer 22

A. Ocular

Question 23

A drug test is valid for _________.

A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years

Answer 23

C. One year

Question 24

Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) or commonly known as:

A. Cannabis
B. Shabu
C. Meth
D. Ecstasy

Answer 24

D. Ecstasy

Question 25

Component(s) of the chain of infection:

A. Susceptible host
B. Entry portal
C. Transmission of the pathogen
D. All of these

Answer 25

D. All of these

Question 26

Biodegradable wastes like leftover food, used cooking oil, fish entrails, scale, fins, fruits, vegetable peelings, rotten fruits, and vegetables:

A. Orange
B. Red
C. Green
D. Black

Answer 26

C. Green

Question 27

Non-biodegradable wastes like paper or paper products (newspaper, tetra packs, etc.), bottles (glass and plastics), and packaging materials (Styropor, candy wrapper, aluminum cans):

A. Orange
B. Red
C. Green
D. Black

Answer 27

D. Black

Question 28

Radioactive wastes or medical equipment contaminated or exposed in radioactivity:

A. Orange
B. Red
C. Green
D. Black

Answer 28

A. Orange

Question 29

Pharmaceutical and chemical wastes:

A. Yellow
B. Yellow with black band
C. Red
D. Orange

Answer 29

B. Yellow with black band

Question 30

Infectious and pathological wastes such as used test strips, used beads or plates, used reaction pads or foils, used swabs, used gloves, used cord clamp, used plaster, used masks:

A. Yellow
B. Yellow with black band
C. Red
D. Orange

Answer 30

A. Yellow

Question 31

Aldosterone is involved in the reabsorption of:

A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Bicarbonate
D. Hydrogen ion

Answer 31

B. Sodium

Question 32

Refractive index compares the velocity of light in urine to the velocity of light in:

A. Air
B. Oil
C. Saline
D. Water

Answer 32

A. Air

Question 33

The principle of refractive index is to compare:

A. Light velocity in solutions with light velocity in solids
B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions
C. Light scattering by air with light scattering by solutions
D. Light scattering by particles in solution

Answer 33

B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions

Question 34

Which of the following conditions is associated with normal urine color but produces red fluorescence when urine is examined with an ultraviolet (Wood’s) lamp?

A. Acute intermittent porphyria
B. Lead poisoning
C. Erythropoietic porphyria
D. Porphyria cutanea tarda

Answer 34

B. Lead poisoning

Question 35

A brown or black pigment in urine can be caused by:

A. Gantrisin (Pyridium)
B. Phenolsulfonphthalein
C. Rifampin
D. Melanin

Answer 35

D. Melanin

Question 36

Urine that is dark red or port wine in color may be caused by:

A. Lead poisoning
B. Porphyria cutanea tarda
C. Alkaptonuria
D. Hemolytic anemia

Answer 36

B. Porphyria cutanea tarda

Question 37

Which of the following tests is affected least by standing or improperly stored urine?

A. Glucose
B. Protein
C. pH
D. Bilirubin

Answer 37

B. Protein

Question 38

Which of the following contributes to SG, but not to osmolality?

A. Protein
B. Salt
C. Urea
D. Glucose

Answer 38

A. Protein

Question 39

Urine with an SG consistently between 1.002 and 1.003 indicates:

A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Renal tubular failure
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Addison’s disease

Answer 39

C. Diabetes insipidus

Question 40

In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:

A. Consistently acid
B. Consistently alkaline
C. Neutral
D. Variable, depending upon diet

Answer 40

B. Consistently alkaline

Question 41

AAA is detected in urine by reaction with:

A. Sodium nitroprusside
B. o-Toluidine
C. m-Dinitrobenzene
D. m-Dinitrophenylhydrazine

Answer 41

A. Sodium nitroprusside

Question 42

Which of the following reagents is used to detect urobilinogen in urine?

A. p-Dinitrobenzene
B. p-Aminosalicylate
C. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
D. p-Dichloroaniline

Answer 42

C. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

Question 43

Which of the following dyes are used in Sternheimer–Malbin stain?

A. Hematoxylin and eosin
B. Crystal violet and safranin
C. Methylene blue and eosin
D. Methylene blue and safranin

Answer 43

B. Crystal violet and safranin

Question 44

Oval fat bodies are often seen in:

A. Chronic glomerulonephritis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Acute tubular nephrosis
D. Renal failure of any cause

Answer 44

B. Nephrotic syndrome

Question 45

The mucoprotein that forms the matrix of a hyaline cast is called:

A. Bence–Jones protein
B. β-Microglobulin
C. Tamm–Horsfall protein
D. Arginine-rich glycoprotein

Answer 45

C. Tamm–Horsfall protein

Question 46

A sediment with moderate hematuria and RBC casts most likely results from:

A. Chronic pyelonephritis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Acute glomerulonephritis
D. Lower urinary tract obstruction

Answer 46

C. Acute glomerulonephritis

Question 47

Urine sediment characterized by pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts indicates:

A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Polycystic kidney disease
D. Cystitis

Answer 47

B. Pyelonephritis

Question 48

Oval fat bodies are derived from:

A. Renal tubular epithelium
B. Transitional epithelium
C. Degenerated WBCs
D. Mucoprotein matrix

Answer 48

A. Renal tubular epithelium

Question 49

Which of the following conditions is associated with the greatest proteinuria?

A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Chronic glomerulonephritis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Acute pyelonephritis

Answer 49

C. Nephrotic syndrome

Question 50

Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones are composed of:

A. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
B. Calcium oxalate
C. Calcium phosphate
D. Calcium carbonate

Answer 50

B. Calcium oxalate

Question 51

Stones may become large, forming casts of the kidney pelvis and showing STAGHORNS:

A. Calcium phosphate (apatite)
B. Monohydrate calcium oxalate (whewellite)
C. Dihydrate calcium oxalate (weddelite)
D. Triple phosphate (struvite)

Answer 51

D. Triple phosphate (struvite)

Question 52

Significance of white foam in urine:

A. Ammonia
B. Bilirubin
C. Protein
D. Urobilinogen

Answer 52

C. Protein

Question 53

Alkaptonuria, a rare hereditary disease, is characterized by the urinary excretion of:

A. Alkaptone
B. Phenylalanine
C. 5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid
D. Homogentisic acid

Answer 53

D. Homogentisic acid

Question 54

Which of the following stains is used to determine sperm viability?

A. Eosin Y
B. Hematoxylin
C. Papanicolaou
D. Methylene blue

Answer 54

A. Eosin Y

Question 55

Which condition is most often associated with gastric ulcers

A. Cancer of the stomach
B. H. pylori infection
C. Zollinger–Ellison (Z–E) syndrome
D. Pernicious anemia

Answer 55

B. H. pylori infection

Question 56

Which of the following is commonly associated with occult blood?

A. Colon cancer
B. Atrophic gastritis
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Pancreatitis

Answer 56

A. Colon cancer

Question 57

Which of the following semen analysis results is ABNORMAL?

A. Volume 1.0 mL
B. Liquefaction 40 minutes at room temperature
C. pH 7.6
D. Motility 50% progressive movement

Answer 57

A. Volume 1.0 mL

Question 58

CSF GLUTAMINE
Measurement of which of the following can be replaced by CSF glutamine analysis in children with Reye syndrome?

A. Ammonia
B. Lactate
C. Glucose
D. Alpha-ketoglutarate

Answer 58

A. Ammonia

Question 59

The amount of amniotic fluid increases in quantity throughout pregnancy, reaching a peak of approximately ____ mL during the third trimester, and then gradually decreases prior to delivery.

A. 400 to 800 mL
B. 800 mL to 1,200 mL
C. 1,200 to 1,500 mL
D. 2,000 to 4, 000 mL

Answer 59

B. 800 mL to 1,200 mL

Question 60

A maximum of _ mL of amniotic fluid is collected in sterile syringes.

A. 10 mL
B. 20 mL
C. 30 mL
D. 50 mL

Answer 60

C. 30 mL

Question 61

Which pair does NOT match with respect to amniotic fluid?

A. Colorless – normal
B. Dark red-brown – fetal death
C. Dark green – hemolytic disease of the newborn
D. Blood-streaked – traumatic tap

Answer 61

C. Dark green – hemolytic disease of the newborn

Question 62

A pleural fluid submitted to the laboratory is milky in appearance. Which test would be most useful in differentiating between a chylous and pseudochylous effusion?

A. Fluid to serum triglyceride ratio
B. Fluid WBC count
C. Fluid total protein
D. Fluid to serum LD ratio

Answer 62

A. Fluid to serum triglyceride ratio

Question 63

In which condition is the highest level of serum gastrin usually seen?

A. Atrophic gastritis
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
D. Cancer of the stomach

Answer 63

C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Question 64

Which is the reference method for determining fetal lung maturity?

A. Human placental lactogen
B. L/S ratio
C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin
D. Urinary estriol

Answer 64

B. L/S ratio

Question 65

Which test best correlates with the severity of HDN?

A. Rh antibody titer of the mother
B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin
D. Urinary estradiol

Answer 65

C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin

Question 66

Calcium pyrophosphate (pseudogout) in synovial fluid:
1. Needles
2. Rhomboid square, rods
3. Negative birefringence under compensated polarized light
4. Positive birefringence under compensated polarized light

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Answer 66

D. 2 and 4

Question 67

Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with an exudative effusion?

A. Congestive heart failure
B. Malignancy
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Cirrhosis

Answer 67

B. Malignancy

Question 68

Immunologic analysis has shown that ____ is a major constituent of mucus.

A. Bence-Jones protein
B. Albumin
C. Transferrin
D. Uromodulin

Answer 68

D. Uromodulin

Question 69

When semi-automated urine chemistry analyzers are used, the color that develops on the reaction pads is measured by:

A. Spectrophotometry.
B. Reflectance photometry.
C. Fluorescence photometry.
D. Comparing reaction pads with a color chart.

Answer 69

B. Reflectance photometry.

Question 70

The pathologic accumulation of fluid in a body cavity is called:

A. An abscess.
B. An effusion.
C. Pleocytosis.
D. Paracentesis.

Answer 70

B. An effusion.

Question 71

Thoracentesis refers specifically to the removal of fluid from the:

A. Abdominal cavity.
B. Pericardial cavity.
C. Peritoneal cavity.
D. Pleural cavity.

Answer 71

D. Pleural cavity.

Question 72

Which of the following parameters best identifies a fluid as a transudate or an exudate?

A. Color and clarity
B. Leukocyte and differential counts
C. Total protein and specific gravity measurements
D. Total protein ratio and lactate dehydrogenase ratio

Answer 72

D. Total protein ratio and lactate dehydrogenase ratio

Question 73

Chylous and pseudochylous effusions are differentiated by their:

A. Physical examinations.
B. Cholesterol concentrations.
C. Triglyceride concentrations.
D. Leukocyte and differential counts.

Answer 73

C. Triglyceride concentrations.

Question 74

Pleural fluid triglycerides <50 mg/dL:

A. Hemothorax
B. Hemorrhagic effusion
C. Chylous effusion
D. Pseudochylous effusion

Answer 74

D. Pseudochylous effusion

Question 75

Pleural fluid triglycerides >110 mg/dL:

A. Hemothorax
B. Hemorrhagic effusion
C. Chylous effusion
D. Pseudochylous effusion

Answer 75

C. Chylous effusion

Question 76

Which of the following conditions is most often associated with the formation of a transudate?

A. Pancreatitis
B. Surgical procedures
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Metastatic neoplasm

Answer 76

C. Congestive heart failure

Question 77

Which of the following proteins in the CSF is used to monitor the integrity of the blood-brain barrier?

A. Albumin
B. Transthyretin
C. Transferrin
D. Immunoglobulin G

Answer 77

A. Albumin

Question 78

An unknown fluid can be positively identified as CSF by determining the:

A. Lactate concentration.
B. Albumin concentration.
C. Presence of oligoclonal banding on electrophoresis.
D. Presence of carbohydrate-deficient transferrin on electrophoresis.

Answer 78

D. Presence of carbohydrate-deficient transferrin on electrophoresis.

Question 79

Which of the following is not a test to evaluate the surfactants present in the fetal pulmonary system?

A. ΔA450
B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
C. Phosphatidylglycerol detection
D. Foam stability index

Answer 79

A. ΔA450

Question 80

A ΔA450 value that falls into zone III indicates that the fetus is experiencing:

A. No hemolysis.
B. Mild hemolysis.
C. Moderate hemolysis.
D. Severe hemolysis.

Answer 80

D. Severe hemolysis.

Question 81

The concentration of which of the following substances can be used to positively identify a fluid as seminal fluid?

A. Acid phosphatase
B. Citric acid
C. Fructose
D. Zinc

Answer 81

A. Acid phosphatase

Question 82

Which of the following substances is responsible for the characteristic color of normal feces?

A. Bilirubin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Urobilin
D. Urobilinogen

Answer 82

C. Urobilin

Question 83

Which of the following substances is not a component of normal feces?

A. Bacteria
B. Blood
C. Electrolytes
D. Water

Answer 83

B. Blood

Question 84

Positive result in the Ictotest:

A. Green
B. Orange
C. Purple
D. Red

Answer 84

C. Purple

Question 85

All are components of CLINITEST, except:

A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose

Answer 85

D. Lactose

Question 86

Which of the following is a component of ACETEST?

A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose

Answer 86

D. Lactose

Question 87

Green with carbocyanine:

A. DNA
B. DNA and nuclear membrane
C. Nuclear membrane and mitochondria
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane

Answer 87

D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane

Question 88

Orange with phenathridine:

A. DNA
B. DNA and nuclear membrane
C. Nuclear membrane and mitochondria
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane

Answer 88

A. DNA

Question 89

Enumeration of bacteria in automated slideless microscopy:

A. Spectrophotometric method
B. Small particle histogram
C. Nitrite determination
D. Reflectance photometry

Answer 89

B. Small particle histogram

Question 90

Living sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:

A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background

Answer 90

A. Unstained, bluish-white

Question 91

Dead sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:

A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background

Answer 91

D. Red on a purple background

Question 92

URINE REAGENT PADS
Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:

A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite

Answer 92

B. Ketone and leukocytes

Question 93

CSF VDRL test:

A. Tube 1
B. Tube 2
C. Tube 3
D. Any of these tubes

Answer 93

A. Tube 1

Question 94

Excess CSF should be:

A. Discarded
B. Refrigerated
C. Frozen
D. Maintained at room temperature

Answer 94

C. Frozen

Question 95

Benedict’s test 1+:

A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange

Answer 95

B. Green

Question 96

Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as TRISOMY 21 (DOWN SYNDROME), amniocentesis may be indicated at:

A. 1 to 7 weeks gestation
B. 7 to 14 weeks gestation
C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation
D. 20 to 42 weeks gestation

Answer 96

C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation

Question 97

Dense crystalline concretions in sputum:

A. Asthma
B. Broncholithiasis
C. Fungal pneumonia
D. Tuberculosis

Answer 97

B. Broncholithiasis

Question 98

Normal neutral fats with increased amount of fatty acids:

A. Malabsorption
B. Maldigestion
C. Both of these
D. None of these

Answer 98

A. Malabsorption

QUALITATIVE FECAL FATS
⬆ 1st slide (neutral fats) Maldigestion
⬆ 2nd slide (fatty acids) Malabsorption
—–
An increased amount of total fat on the second slide with normal fat content on the first slide is an indication of malabsorption, whereas maldigestion is indicated by increased neutral fat on the first slide.

Question 99

Bacterial, viral, and protozoan infections produce increased secretion of water and electrolytes, which override the reabsorptive ability of the large intestine, leading to:

A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these

Answer 99

B. Secretory diarrhea

Question 100

Secretory diarrhea is caused by:

A. Antibiotic administration
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Celiac sprue
D. Vibrio cholerae

Answer 100

D. Vibrio cholerae

Question 101

Maldigestion (impaired food digestion) and malabsorption (impaired nutrient absorption by the intestine) contribute to:

A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these

Answer 101

A. Osmotic diarrhea

Question 102

Positive lactoferrin agglutination test in patient stool:

A. Fecal fats - steatorrhea
B. Fecal occult blood - colorectal cancer
C. Fecal leukocytes - diarrhea caused by Vibrio
D. Fecal leukocytes - diarrhea caused by Salmonella

Answer 102

D. Fecal leukocytes - diarrhea caused by Salmonella

Question 103

Wet preparation for demonstration of fecal leukocytes:

A. Methylene blue
B. Gram stain
C. Wright’s stain
D. All of these

Answer 103

A. Methylene blue

Question 104

Low to absent fructose level in the semen:

A. Low sperm concentration
B. Low sperm motility
C. Low sperm viability
D. Presence of antisperm antibodies

Answer 104

A. Low sperm concentration

Question 105

Specimens for fructose levels should be tested within 2 hours of collection or ____ to prevent fructolysis.

A. Refrigerated
B. Frozen
C. Incubated at 37C
D. Maintained at room temperature

Answer 105

B. Frozen

Question 106

Specimens can be screened for the presence of fructose using the resorcinol test that produces an ____color when fructose is present.

A. Blue
B. Black
C. Green
D. Orange

Answer 106

D. Orange

Question 107

Urine for pregnancy test should have a specific gravity of at least:

A. 1.002
B. 1.003
C. 1.010
D. 1.015

Answer 107

D. 1.015

Question 108

Refractometer results are valid up to ____; specimen with greater than (your answer) should be diluted and remeasured.

A. 1.020
B. 1.025
C. 1.030
D. 1.035

Answer 108

D. 1.035

Question 109

Specific gravity of 1.022 ± 0.001:

A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose

Answer 109

C. 5% NaCl

Question 110

Specific gravity of 1.034 ± 0.001:

A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose

Answer 110

D. 9% sucrose

Question 111

Specific gravity of 1.015 ± 0.001:

A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose

Answer 111

B. 3% NaCl

Question 112

Most frequently performed chemical analysis on urine:

A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Uric acid
D. Blood

Answer 112

B. Glucose

Question 113

Most frequently performed chemical test on CSF:

A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Uric acid
D. Blood

Answer 113

A. Protein

Question 114

Most frequently requested test in synovial fluid:

A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Uric acid
D. Blood

Answer 114

B. Glucose

Question 115

Positive result for the guaiac test for fecal occult blood:

A. Green
B. Blue
C. Purple
See more

Answer 115

B. Blue

Question 116

Unique portion of HCG:

A. Glycoprotein portion of alpha subunit
B. Glycoprotein portion of beta subunit
C. Amino acid portion of alpha subunit
D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit

Answer 116

D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit

Question 117

The most abundant amino acid in the body, being involved in more metabolic processes than any other amino acid:

A. Alanine
B. Asparagine
C. Cysteine
D. Glutamine

Answer 117

D. Glutamine

Question 118

Thyroid hormones are derived from which of the following?

A. Histidine
B. Cholesterol
C. Tyrosine
D. Phenylalanine

Answer 118

C. Tyrosine

Question 119

Precursor for serotonin and melatonin:

A. Glutamine
B. Threonine
C. Tryptophan
D. Tyrosine

Answer 119

C. Tryptophan

Question 120

In the tolbutamide tolerance test, blood specimens are obtained for glucose and insulin before ________ of 1 g of a water-soluble form of tolbutamide and at 2, 15, 30, 60, 90, and 120 minutes afterwards.

A. Oral administration
B. Intramuscular injection
C. Intravenous injection
D. Sublingual administration

Answer 120

C. Intravenous injection

Question 121

A specimen delivered to the laboratory with a request for prostatic acid phosphatase and glycoprotein p30 was collected to determine:

A. Prostatic infection
B. Presence of antisperm antibodies
C. A possible rape
D. Successful vasectomy

Answer 121

C. A possible rape

Question 122

Barbiero’s test:

A. Iodine, potassium iodide
B. Picric acid, trichloroacetic acid
C. Ammonium sulfate
D. Acetic acid

Answer 122

B. Picric acid, trichloroacetic acid

Question 123

Florence test:

A. Iodine, potassium iodide
B. Picric acid, trichloroacetic acid
C. Ammonium sulfate
D. Acetic acid

Answer 123

A. Iodine, potassium iodide

Question 124

Normal synovial fluid does not clot; however, fluid from a diseased joint may contain fibrinogen and will clot. Therefore, fluid is often collected in a syringe that has been moistened with:

A. EDTA
B. SPS
C. Heparin
D. Sodium fluoride

Answer 124

C. Heparin

Question 125

PHASE OF GASTRIC SECRETION that involves VAGUS NERVE STIMULATION caused by stimuli such as taste, smell, or sight:

A. Cephalic phase
B. Gastric phase
C. Intestinal phase
D. None of these

Answer 125

A. Cephalic phase

Question 126

Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5 or 1.0 pH unit with gastric stimulation:

A. Achlorhydria
B. Hypochlorhydria
C. Anacidity

Answer 126

A. Achlorhydria

Question 127

Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5, although it decreases 1.0 pH unit or more upon gastric stimulation:

A. Achlorhydria
B. Hypochlorhydria
C. Anacidity

Answer 127

B. Hypochlorhydria

Question 128

Failure of the stomach acidity to fall lower than 6.0 in a stimulation test:

A. Achlorhydria
B. Hypochlorhydria
C. Anacidity

Answer 128

C. Anacidity

Question 129

The presence of dysmorphic red blood cells in the urine sediment is indicative of which of the following?

A. A coagulation disorder
B. Menstrual contamination
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Glomerular bleeding

Answer 129

D. Glomerular bleeding

Question 130

GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing hemoglobin degradation products are associated with:

A. Cystitis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Acute interstitial nephritis
D. Acute tubular necrosis

Answer 130

D. Acute tubular necrosis

Question 131

Most common type of microscopy performed in the urinalysis laboratory:

A. Bright-field microscopy
B. Phase-contrast microscopy
C. Polarizing microscopy
D. Interference-contrast microscope

Answer 131

A. Bright-field microscopy

Question 132

Enhances visualization of elements with low refractive indices, such as hyaline casts, mixed cellular casts, mucous threads, and Trichomonas:

A. Bright-field microscopy
B. Phase-contrast microscopy
C. Polarizing microscopy
D. Interference-contrast microscope

Answer 132

B. Phase-contrast microscopy

Question 133

The most appropriate method for collecting a urine specimen from a patient with an indwelling catheter is:

A. Remove the catheter, cut the tip, and submit it for culture
B. Disconnect the catheter from the bag, and aseptically collect urine from the terminal end ofthe catheter
C. Aseptically collect urine directly from the drainage bag
D. Aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing

Answer 133

D. Aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing

Question 134

Preanalytical (preexamination) variables in laboratory testing include:

A. Result accuracy
B. Report delivery to the ordering physician
C. Test turnaround time
D. Specimen acceptability

Answer 134

D. Specimen acceptability

Question 135

The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is:

A. Secretion of creatinine
B. Improperly timed urine specimens
C. Refrigeration of the urine
D. Time of collecting blood sample

Stras

Answer 135

B. Improperly timed urine specimens

Question 136

Which of the tubules is impermeable to water?

A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule

Stras

Answer 136

C. Ascending loop of Henle

Question 137

The primary chemical affected by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is:

A. Chloride
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Hydrogen

Stras

Answer 137

B. Sodium

Question 138

The primary inorganic substance found in urine is:

A. Sodium
B. Phosphate
C. Chloride
D. Calcium

Stras

Answer 138

C. Chloride

Question 139

Employers are required to provide free immunization for:

A. HIV
B. HTLV-1
C. HBV
D. HCV

Stras

Answer 139

C. HBV

Question 140

The classification of a fire that can be extinguished with water is:

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

Stras

Answer 140

A. Class A

Question 141

The testing of sample from an outside agency and the comparison of results with participating laboratories is called:

A. External QC
B. Electronic QC
C. Internal QC
D. Proficiency testing

Stras

Answer 141

D. Proficiency testing

Proficiency Testing (External Quality Assessment)
External QA (not External QC)
PT or EQA is the testing of unknown samples received from an outside agency, and provides unbiased validation of the quality of patient test results. The laboratory accuracy is evaluated and compared with other laboratories using the same method of analysis.

Question 142

The NPFA classification symbol contains information on all of the following except:

A. Fire hazards
B. Biohazards
C. Reactivity
D. Health hazards

Stras

Answer 142

B. Biohazards

Question 143

The first thing to do when a fire is discovered is to:

A. Rescue persons in danger
B. Activate the alarm system
C. Close doors to other areas
D. Extinguish the fire if possible

Stras

Answer 143

A. Rescue persons in danger

Question 144

Employees should not work with radioisotopes if they are:

A. Wearing contact lenses
B. Allergic to iodine
C. Sensitive to latex
D. Pregnant

Stras

Answer 144

D. Pregnant

Question 145

Centrifuging an uncapped specimen may produce a biologic hazard in the form of:

A. Vectors
B. Sharps contamination
C. Aerosols
D. Specimen contamination

Stras

Answer 145

C. Aerosols

Question 146

All of the following should be discarded in biohazardous waste containers except:

A. Urine specimen containers
B. Towels used for decontamination
C. Disposable lab coats
D. Blood collection tubes

Stras

Answer 146

A. Urine specimen containers

Question 147

The best way to break the chain of infection is:
A. Hand sanitizing
B. Personal protective equipment
C. Aerosol prevention
D. Decontamination

Stras

Answer 147

A. Hand sanitizing

Question 148

In the urinalysis laboratory the primary source in the chain of infection would be:

A. Patients
B. Needlesticks
C. Specimens
D. Biohazardous waste

Stras

Answer 148

C. Specimens

Question 149

Variables that are included in the MDRD-IDSM estimated creatinine clearance calculations include all of the following except:

A. Serum creatinine
B. Weight
C. Age
D. Gender

Stras

Answer 149

B. Weight

Question 150

A patient with a viscous orange specimen may have been:

A. Treated for a urinary tract infection
B. Taking vitamin B pills
C. Eating fresh carrots
D. Taking antidepressants

Stras

Answer 150

A. Treated for a urinary tract infection

Question 151

All of the following are variables included in the Cockroft and Gault formula EXCEPT:

A. Age and sex
B. Serum creatinine
C. Urine creatinine
D. Body weight in kilograms

Answer 151

C. Urine creatinine

Question 152

The modification of diet in renal disease (MDRD) formula for calculating eGFR requires which four parameters?

A. Urine creatinine, serum creatinine, height, weight
B. Serum creatinine, age, gender, race
C. Serum creatinine, height, weight, age
D. Urine creatinine, gender, weight, age

Answer 152

B. Serum creatinine, age, gender, race

Question 153

The color of urine containing porphyrins will be:

A. Yellow-brown
B. Green
C. Orange
D. Port wine

Stras

Answer 153

D. Port wine

Question 154

The principle of refractive index is to compare:

A. Light velocity in solutions with light velocity insolids
B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions
C. Light scattering by air with light scattering by solutions
D. Light scattering by particles in solution

Stras

Answer 154

B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions

Question 155

The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is the:

A. Bilirubin
B. pH
C. Leukocyte esterase
D. Glucose

Stras

Answer 155

C. Leukocyte esterase

Question 156

The principle of the protein error of indicators reaction is that:

A. Protein keeps the pH of the urine constant.
B. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator.
C. The indicator accepts hydrogen ions from albumin.
D. Albumin changes the pH of the urine.

Stras

Answer 156

B. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator.

Question 157

The primary reason for performing a Clinitest is to:

A. Check for high ascorbic acid levels
B. Confirm a positive reagent strip glucose
C. Check for newborn galactosuria
D. Confirm a negative glucose reading

Stras

Answer 157

C. Check for newborn galactosuria

Question 158

The most significant reagent strip test that is associated with a positive ketone result is:

A. Glucose
B. Protein
C. pH
D. Specific gravity

Stras

Answer 158

A. Glucose

Question 159

An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of:

A. Cirrhosis of the liver
B. Hemolytic disease
C. Hepatitis
D. Biliary obstruction

Stras

Answer 159

D. Biliary obstruction

Question 160

All of the following can be detected by the leukocyte esterase reaction except:

A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Basophils

Stras

Answer 160

C. Lymphocytes

Question 161

Which of the following should be used to reduce lightintensity in bright-field microscopy?

A. Centering screws
B. Aperture diaphragm
C. Rheostat
D. Condenser aperture diaphragm

Stras

Answer 161

C. Rheostat

Question 162

Nuclear detail can be enhanced by:

A. Prussian blue
B. Toluidine blue
C. Acetic acid
D. Both B and C

Stras

Answer 162

D. Both B and C

Question 163

Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is:

A. Hyposthenuric
B. Hypersthenuric
C. Highly acidic
D. Highly alkaline

Stras

Answer 163

B. Hypersthenuric

Question 164

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets maybe accomplished by all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Observation of budding in yeast cells
B. Increased refractility of oil droplets
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid

Stras

Answer 164

C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid

Question 165

A finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of:

A. Glomerular bleeding
B. Renal calculi
C. Traumatic injury
D. Coagulation disorders

Stras

Answer 165

A. Glomerular bleeding

Question 166

Following an episode of hemoglobinuria, RTE cells may contain:

A. Bilirubin
B. Hemosiderin granules
C. Porphobilinogen
D. Myoglobin

Stras

Answer 166

B. Hemosiderin granules

Question 167

The predecessor of the oval fat body is the:

A. Histiocyte
B. Urothelial cell
C. Monocyte
D. Renal tubular cell

Stras

Answer 167

D. Renal tubular cell

Question 168

The primary component of urinary mucus is:

A. Bence Jones protein
B. Microalbumin
C. Uromodulin
D. Orthostatic protein

Stras

Answer 168

C. Uromodulin

Question 169

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is seen with:

A. Wegener granulomatosis
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Goodpasture syndrome
D. Diabetic nephropathy

Stras

Answer 169

C. Goodpasture syndrome

Question 170

Anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody is diagnostic for:

A. IgA nephropathy
B. Wegener granulomatosis
C. Henoch-Schönlein purpura
D. Goodpasture syndrome

Stras

Answer 170

B. Wegener granulomatosis

Question 171

The only protein produced by the kidney is:

A. Albumin
B. Uromodulin
C. Uroprotein
D. Globulin

Stras

Answer 171

B. Uromodulin

Question 172

The most common composition of renal calculi is:

A. Calcium oxalate
B. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
C. Cystine
D. Uric acid

Stras

Answer 172

A. Calcium oxalate

Question 173

The best specimen for early newborn screening is a:

A. Timed urine specimen
B. Blood specimen
C. First morning urine specimen
D. Fecal specimen

Stras

Answer 173

B. Blood specimen

Question 174

Hurler, Hunter, and Sanfilippo syndromes are hereditary disorders affecting metabolism of:

A. Porphyrins
B. Purines
C. Mucopolysaccharides
D. Tryptophan

Stras

Answer 174

C. Mucopolysaccharides

Question 175

A bright-field microscope is easily adapted for dark-field microscopy by replacing the:

A. Ocular
B. Objective
C. Condenser
D. Polarizing filters

Answer 175

C. Condenser

Question 176

Seventy (70) percent recirculated to the cabinet work area through HEPA; 30% balance can be exhausted through HEPA back into the room or to outside through a canopy unit:

A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2

Answer 176

B. BSC Class II, A1

Question 177

Thirty (30) percent recirculated, 70% exhausted. Exhaust cabinet air must pass through a dedicated duct to the outside through a HEPA filter.

A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2

Answer 177

C. BSC Class II, B1

Question 178

No recirculation; total exhaust to the outside through a HEPA filter.

A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2

Answer 178

D. BSC Class II, B2

Question 179

All of the following are soluble in ether, except:

A. Amorphous urates
B. Chyle
C. Lipids
D. Lymphatic fluid

Answer 179

A. Amorphous urates

Question 180

The concentration of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is generally at a particular level in serum about 2 to 3 days after implantation. This is the concentration at which most sensitive laboratory assays can give a positive serum hCG result. What is the lowest level of hormone for which most current serum hCG tests can give a positive result?

A. 25 mIU/mL
B. 50 mIU/mL
C. 100 mIU/mL
D. 100,000 mIU/mL

Answer 180

A. 25 mIU/mL

Question 181

The presence of ____ increases the OD of the amniotic fluid. Specimens are centrifuged at 2,000 g for 10 minutes and examined using a wavelength of 650 nm.

A. Bilirubin
B. Oxyhemoglobin
C. Lamellar bodies
D. None of these

Answer 181

C. Lamellar bodies

Question 182

The traditional diluent of choice for quantifying spermatozoa in seminal fluid contains:

A. Sodium bicarbonate and formalin
B. Methylene blue
C. Dilute acetic acid
D. Normal saline

Answer 182

A. Sodium bicarbonate and formalin

Question 183

Living sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:

A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background

Answer 183

A. Unstained, bluish-white

Question 184

Dead sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:

A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background

Answer 184

D. Red on a purple background

Question 185

Stains used for evaluation of sperm morphology, EXCEPT:

A. Pap’s stain
B. Wright’s
C. Giemsa
D. Shorr
E. Eosin-nigrosin

Answer 185

E. Eosin-nigrosin

Question 186

As little as 0.1 mL of CSF combined with one drop of ____ produces an adequate cell yield when processed with the cytocentrifuge.

A. 10% formalin
B. 40% formalin
C. 10% albumin
D. 30% albumin

Answer 186

D. 30% albumin

Question 187

A DAILY CONTROL SLIDE FOR BACTERIA IN CSF:

A. 95% ethanol
B. 30% albumin
C. 0.2 mL saline and 2 drops 95% ethanol
D. 0.2 mL saline and 2 drops 30% albumin

Answer 187

D. 0.2 mL saline and 2 drops 30% albumin

Question 188

For post-vasectomy semen analysis, specimens are routinely tested at monthly intervals, beginning at ____ months post-vasectomy and continuing until ____ consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa.

A. 2 months, 2 months
B. 2 months, 3 months
C. 3 months, 2 months
D. 3 months, 3 months

Answer 188

A. 2 months, 2 months

Question 189

A specimen delivered to the laboratory with a request for prostatic acid phosphatase and glycoprotein p30 was collected to determine:

A. Prostatic infection
B. Presence of antisperm antibodies
C. A possible rape
D. Successful vasectomy

Answer 189

C. A possible rape

Question 190

Reasons for analyzing amniotic fluid include the following EXCEPT:

A. To diagnose genetic and congenital neural tube disorders
B. To assess fetal liver maturity
C. To assess fetal lung maturity
D. To detect fetal distress from hemolytic disease of the newborn

Answer 190

B. To assess fetal liver maturity

Question 191

Bilirubin is detected spectrophotometrically in amniotic fluid at:

A. 365 nm
B. 550 nm
C. 410 nm
D. 450 nm

Answer 191

D. 450 nm

Question 192

All of these phospholipids have a role in fetal lung maturity EXCEPT:

A. Lecithin
B. Sphingomyelin
C. Phosphatidylglycerol
D. Lamellar bodies

Answer 192

B. Sphingomyelin

The role of sphingomyelin is not established. It only serve as a control on which to base the rise in lecithin.
Fetal lung surfactants are produced by fetal type II pneumocytes of the fetal lung and are stored as lamellar bodies after about 20 weeks of gestation.

Question 193

A ΔA450 value that falls into zone I indicates:

A. A normal finding without significant hemolysis
B. Moderate hemolysis
C. Severe hemolysis
D. High fetal risk

Answer 193

A. A normal finding without significant hemolysis

Question 194

Bright red blood and mucus in feces are most often seen with:

A. Malabsorption
B. Dysentery
C. Creatorrhea
D. Upper GI tract bleeding

Answer 194

B. Dysentery

Question 195

Over half the volume of semen is produced in the:

A. Epididymis
B. Prostate gland
C. Seminal vesicles
D. Vasa deferentia

Answer 195

C. Seminal vesicles

Question 196

Fructose is contained in the portion of semen produced by the:

A. Bulbourethral glands
B. Epididymis
C. Prostate gland
D. Seminal vesicles

Answer 196

D. Seminal vesicles

Question 197

The process of spermatozoa formation is under control of all of these hormones EXCEPT:

A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Luteinizing hormone
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone
D. Testosterone

Answer 197

A. Human chorionic gonadotropin

Question 198

PLEASE ALSO INDICATE NORMAL VOLUME
Which semen volume is within normal limits?

A. 0.5 mL
B. 1.5 mL
C. 4.0 mL
D. 6.0 mL

Answer 198

C. 4.0 mL

2-5 mL

Question 199

Meningitis results in:

A. Decreased CSF glucose and decreased CSF protein
B. Decreased CSF glucose and increased CSF protein
C. Increased CSF glucose and decreased CSF protein
D. Increased CSF glucose and increased CSF protein

Answer 199

B. Decreased CSF glucose and increased CSF protein

Question 200

The protocol for the performance of CSF analysis when three tubes are collected is which order for cell counts, chemistries, microbiology?

A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 1, 3
C. 3, 1, 2
D. 3, 2, 1

Answer 200

C. 3, 1, 2

Question 201

If only a small amount of CSF is obtained, which is the most important procedure to perform first?

A. Cell count
B. Chemistries
C. Immunology
D. Microbiology

Answer 201

D. Microbiology

Question 202

How will erythrocytes appear in hypertonic urine?

A. Biconcave discs
B. Crenated
C. Lysed
D. Swollen

Answer 202

B. Crenated

Question 203

Testing specimens that contain high levels of ascorbate may effect the reading of all of these EXCEPT:

A. Bilirubin
B. Glucose
C. Nitrite
D. Urobilinogen

Answer 203

D. Urobilinogen

Question 204

Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:

A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite

Answer 204

B. Ketone and leukocytes

Question 205

The presence of waxy casts in a microscopic examination of urine is consistent with a diagnosis of:

A. Strenuous exercise
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Chronic renal failure

Answer 205

D. Chronic renal failure

Question 206

In salicylate overdose, what is the first acid-base disturbance present?

A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

Answer 206

D. Respiratory alkalosis

SALICYLATE POISONING
Initial is RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS followed by METABOLIC ACIDOSIS

Question 207

The L-pyrolidonyl-b-naphthylamide (PYR) hydrolysis test is a presumptive test for which of the following streptococci?

A. Groups A and B
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae and group C
C. Group A and Enterococcus
D. Group A and Streptococcus bovis

Answer 207

C. Group A and Enterococcus

Question 208

All of the following characteristics are consistent with the appearance of normal cerebrospinal fluid except:

A. Crystal clear
B. CSF protein of 20 mg/dL
C. IgG index of 0.70 or less
D. WBC count greater than 100/uL

Answer 208

D. WBC count greater than 100/uL

Question 209

In patients with developing subclinical hypothyroidism, TSH levels will likely be ______, and fT4 will likely be ______.

A. Decreased, increased
B. Increased, decreased
C. Decreased, normal
D. Increased, normal

Answer 209

D. Increased, normal

Question 210

Which of the following sets of results most closely indicates an exudate?

A. Clear, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.8, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.7, WBC count of 1000/uL
B. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.4, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.5, WBC count of 800/uL
C. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.8, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.7, WBC count of 2500/uL
D. Clear, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.45, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.40, WBC count of 800/uL

Answer 210

C. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.8, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.7, WBC count of 2500/uL

Question 210

Which of the following pairings of crystals and causes is not correct?

A. Calcium oxalate crystals and antifreeze ingestion
B. Uric acid crystals and patients receivingchemotherapy
C. Cystine crystals and not clinically significant
D. Amorphous phosphate crystals and not clinically significant

Answer 210

C. Cystine crystals and not clinically significant

Question 211

An ammonia-like odor is characteristically associated with urine from patients with:

A. Phenylketonuria
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Bacterial infection
D. Yeast infection

Answer 211

C. Bacterial infection

Question 212

Which of the following collection methods would yield the most sterile urine sample?

A. Random
B. Catheterization
C. Suprapubic aspiration
D. Clean-catch midstream

Answer 212

C. Suprapubic aspiration

Question 213

The clarity of a urine sample should be determined after:

A. The sample has been centrifuged
B. Thorough mixing of the specimen
C. The addition of 3% sulfosalicylic acid
D. The specimen is heated to body temperature

Answer 213

B. Thorough mixing of the specimen

Question 214

Following a severe crush injury, a patient is transported to the emergency room where a blood sample and a urine sample are collected. The patient’s urine sample appears reddish-brown, which may be due to the presence of:

A. Stercobilin
B. Porphyrins
C. Myoglobin
D. Fresh blood

Answer 214

C. Myoglobin

Question 215

AFTER A MEAL, WHAT IS THE URINE PH?
A random urine specimen collected shortly after the patient ate lunch appeared cloudy. Results of the reagent test strip were normal. The most likely cause of the sample’s turbidity is the presence of:

A. Bacteria
B. White blood cells
C. Amorphous urates
D. Amorphous phosphates

Answer 215

D. Amorphous phosphates

(alkaline tide -> alkaline urine -> phosphates)

Question 216

AMBULATORY - NOT CONFINED IN BED, ABLE TO WALK
If an ambulatory, adult patient is suspected of having a urinary tract infection, which of the following collection methods would be most appropriate to obtain a urine sample?

A. Random
B. Catheterization
C. Suprapubic aspiration
D. Clean-catch midstream

Answer 216

D. Clean-catch midstream

Question 217

Which of the following collection methods would account for diurnal variation when quantitatively measuring urinary analytes?

A. Random
B. First morning
C. 24-hour timed
D. Two-hour timed

Answer 217

C. 24-hour timed

Question 218

A urine sample collected from a 5-day-old baby has a noticeably sweet odor reminiscent of caramel or burnt sugar. This odor is most commonly associated with:

A. Cystinuria
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Maple syrup urine disease

Answer 218

D. Maple syrup urine disease

Question 219

After receiving a timed urine for quantitative analysis, the laboratorian must first:

A. Subculture the urine for bacteria
B. Add the appropriate preservative
C. Screen for albumin using a dipstick
D. Measure and record the total volume

Answer 219

D. Measure and record the total volume

Question 220

Patients that take high doses of vitamin C may have a false-negative result for which of the following urine reagent test strip analytes?

A. pH
B. Ketones
C. Bilirubin
D. Specific gravity

Answer 220

C. Bilirubin

Question 221

Which of the following substances would most likely be found in the urine of a patient with anorexia nervosa?

A. Protein
B. Ketones
C. Glucose
D. Bilirubin

Answer 221

B. Ketones

Anorexia nervosa is a psychiatric disease in which patients restrict their food intake relative to their energy requirements through eating less, exercising more, and/or purging food through laxatives and vomiting.

Question 222

A urine specimen with an elevated urobilinogen concentration but a negative bilirubin result may indicate the patient has:

A. Gallstones
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Liver cirrhosis

Answer 222

C. Hemolytic anemia

Question 223

Which of the following cells is most commonly associated with a non-clean-catch specimen and/or vaginal contamination?
A. White blood cells
B. Renal epithelial cells
C. Squamous epithelial cells
D. Transitional epithelial cells

Answer 223

C. Squamous epithelial cells

Question 224

Which of the following contaminants has a dimpled center and can appear as a Maltese cross under polarized light?

A. Oil droplets
B. Air bubbles
C. Glass shards
D. Starch crystals

Answer 224

D. Starch crystals

Question 225

A green-colored amniotic fluid is received in the laboratory for testing. The color of this specimen indicates the presence of:

A. Blood
B. Bilirubin
C. Meconium
D. Hemoglobin

Answer 225

C. Meconium

Question 226

Which of the following normally accounts for the largest fraction of CSF total proteins?

A. Albumin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Haptoglobin
D. Transthyretin

Answer 226

A. Albumin

Question 227

Normal CSF contains all of the following proteins except:

A. Transferrin
B. Transthyretin
C. Albumin
D. Fibrinogen

Answer 227

D. Fibrinogen

Question 228

CSF TUBE 1
If glucose testing cannot be performed immediately, CSF should be stored:

A. At room temperature
B. In a refrigerator
C. In a freezer
D. In an incubator

Answer 228

C. In a freezer

Question 229

The only biological waste that does not have to be discarded in a container with a biohazard symbol is:

A. Urine.
B. Serum.
C. Feces.
D. Serum tubes.

Answer 229

A. Urine.

Question 230

When combining acid and water:

A. Acid is added to water.
B. Water is added to acid.
C. Water is slowly added to acid.
D. Both solutions are combined simultaneously.

Answer 230

A. Acid is added to water.

Question 231

Which of the following enzymes is used to detect the presence of H. pylori infections?

A. DNase
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Urease
D. Peptidase

Answer 231

C. Urease

Question 232

Antibodies to which of the following viral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection?

A. gp120
B. gp160
C. gp41
D. p24

Answer 232

D. p24

Question 233

The antigenic component of the hepatitis B vaccine differs from those of many of the conventional vaccines in that it consists of a:

A. Live, attenuated virus.
B. Inactivated virus.
C. Cryptic antigen.
D. Recombinant antigen.

Answer 233

D. Recombinant antigen.

Question 234

Factors needed in the computation using COCKROFT - GAULT formula, EXCEPT:

a. Age
b. Plasma Creatinine
c. 24-hour urine volume
d. Body weight

Answer 234

c. 24-hour urine volume

Question 235

Blood flows through the nephron in the following order:

a. Efferent arteriole, peritibular capillaries, vasa recta, afferent arteriole
b. peritibular capillaries, afferent arteriole, vasa recta, efferent arteriole
c. Afferent arteriole, peritibular capillaries, vasa recta, efferent arteriole
d. Efferent arteriole, vasa recta, peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole

Answer 235

c. Afferent arteriole, peritibular capillaries, vasa recta, efferent arteriole

Should be:
Afferent arteriole, Efferent arteriole, peritibular capillaries, vasa recta

Question 236

Which of the tubules is impermeable to water?

a. Proximal convulated tubule
b. Descending loop of Henle
c. Ascending loop of Henle
d. Distal convulated tubule

Answer 236

c. Ascending loop of Henle

Question 237

Glucose will appear in the urine when the:

a. Blood level of glucose is 200 mg/dl
b. Tm for glucose is reached
c. Renal threshold for glucose is exceeded
d. All of the above

Answer 237

d. All of the above

Question 238

Renal tubular acidosis can be caused by the:

a. Production of excessively acidic urine due to increased filtration of hydrogen ions
b. Production of excessively acidic urine due to increased secretion of hydrogen ions
c. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to impaired production of ammonia
d. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to increased production of ammonia

Answer 238

c. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to impaired production of ammonia

Question 239

Clearance tests used to determine the glomerular filtration rate must measure substances that are:

a. Not filtered by the glomerulus
b. Completely reabsorbed by the proximal convulated tubule
c. Secreted in the distal convulated tubule
d. Neither reabsorbed or secreted by the tubules

Answer 239

d. Neither reabsorbed or secreted by the tubules

Question 240

Osmolality is a measure of:

a. Dissolved particles, including ions
b. Undissolved molecules only
c. Total salt concentration
d. Molecule size

Answer 240

a. Dissolved particles, including ions

Question 241

Which of the following urinary parameters are measured during the course of concentration and dilution test to assess renal tubular function?

a. Urea, nitrogen, creatinine
b. Osmolality and SG
c. Sodium and Chloride
d. Sodium and osmolality

Answer 241

b. Osmolality and SG

Question 242

It corrects renal blood flow in the following ways: causing Vasodilation of afferent arterioles and Constriction of the efferent arterioles, stimulating reabsorption of sodium and water in the PCT, and triggering the release of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex and antidiuretic hormone by the hormone by the hypothalamus.

a. Renin
b. Angiotensin I
c. Angiotensin II
d. Aldosterone

Answer 242

c. Angiotensin II

Question 243

An unidentified fluid is received in the laboratory with a request to determine whether the fluid is urine or another body fluid. Using routine laboratory tests, what tests would determine that the fluid is most probably urine?

a. Glucose and ketones
b. Urea and creatinine
c. Uric acid and amino acids
d. Protein and amino acids

Answer 243

b. Urea and creatinine

Question 244

A cloudy specimen received in the laboratory may have been preserved using:

a. Boric acid
b. Chloroform
c. Refrigeration
d. Formalin

Answer 244

c. Refrigeration

Question 245

For general screening the most frequently collected specimen is a:

a. Random one
b. First morning
c. Midstream clean-catch
d. Timed

Answer 245

a. Random one

Question 246

If a patient fails to discard the first specimen when collecting a timed specimen, the:

a. Specimen must be recollected
b. Results will be falsely elevated
c. Results will be falsely decreased
d. Both A and B

Answer 246

d. Both A and B

Question 247

The primary cause of unsatisfactory results in an unpreserved routine specimen not tested for 8 hours is:

a. Bacterial growth
b. Glycolysis
c. Decreased pH
d. Chemical oxidation

Answer 247

a. Bacterial growth

Question 248

Urine specimen collection for drug testing requires the collector to do all of the following except:

a. Inspect the specimen color
b. Perform reagent strip testing
c. Read the specimen temperature
d. Fill out a chain-of-custody form

Answer 248

b. Perform reagent strip testing

Question 249

After receiving a 24-hour urine for quantitative total protein analysis, the technologist must first:

a. Subculture urine for bacteria
b. Add the appropriate preservative
c. Screen for albumin using a dipstick
d. Measure the total volume

Answer 249

d. Measure the total volume

Question 250

A clean-catch urine is submitted to the laboratory for routine urinalysis and culture. The routine urinalysis is done first, and 3 hours later, the specimen is sent to the microbiology department for culture. The specimen should:

a. Be centrifuged, and the supernatant cultured
b. Be rejected due to time delay
c. Not be cultured if no bacteria seen
d. Be processed for culture only if nitrate is positive

Answer 250

b. Be rejected due to time delay

Question 251

Aldosterone is involved in the reabsorption of:

A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Bicarbonate
D. Hydrogen ion

Answer 251

B. Sodium

Question 252

Testing specimens that contain high levels of ascorbate may effect the reading of all of these EXCEPT:

A. Bilirubin
B. Glucose
C. Nitrite
D. Urobilinogen

Answer 252

D. Urobilinogen

Question 253

Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:

A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite

Answer 253

B. Ketone and leukocytes

Question 254

Which of the following diseases results in the production and excretion of large amounts of homogentisic acid?

A. Melanuria
B. Tyrosyluria
C. Alkaptonuria
D. Maple syrup urine disease

Answer 254

C. Alkaptonuria

Question 255

Which of the following is the urine specimen of choice for cytology studies?

a. First morning specimen
b. Random specimen
c. Midstream “clean catch” collection
d. Timed collection

Answer 255

b. Random specimen

Question 256

Formed elements in sputum are best studied by which cytological techniques?

a. Gram stain
b. Giemsa stain
c. Wright’s stain
d. Pap’s stain

Answer 256

d. Pap’s stain

Question 257

Fluid:serum protein and lactic dehydrogenase ratios are performed on serous fluids:

a. When malignancy is suspected
b. To classify transudates and exudates
c. To determine the type of serous fluid
d. When a traumatic tap has occurred

Answer 257

b. To classify transudates and exudates

Question 258

The recommended test for determining whether peritoneal fluid is a transudate or an exudate is the:

a. Fluid: serum albumin ratio
b. Serum: ascites albumin gradient
c. Fluid: serum lactic dehydrogenase ratio
d. absolute neutrophil count

Answer 258

b. Serum: ascites albumin gradient

Question 259

Which type of urine sample is needed for a D-xylose absorption test on an adult patient?

a. 24-hour urine sample collected with 20 ml of 6 N HCl
b. 2 hour timed postprandial urine preserved with boric acid
c. 5 hour timed urine kept under refrigeration
d. Random urine preserved with formalin

Answer 259

c. 5 hour timed urine kept under refrigeration

Question 260

iQ 200 preclassifies (autoclassified by the analyzer) the following urine particles except:

a. Nonsquamous epithelial cells
b. Unclassified casts
c. Bacteria
d. Uric acid crystals

Answer 260

d. Uric acid crystals

Question 261

Which of the following urine sediment particles cannot be autovalidated but will be flagged and must be reviewed by laboratory personnel?

a. RBC’s
b. WBC’s
c. RTEs
d. Squamous epithelial cells

Answer 261

c. RTEs

Question 262

Sensitivity of the Multistix protein reagent pad:

A. 1 to 5 mg/dL albumin
B. 10 to 15 mg/dL albumin
C. 15 to 30 mg/dL albumin
D. 30 to 45 mg/dL albumin

Answer 262

C. 15 to 30 mg/dL albumin

Question 263

Sensitivity of the Multistix bilirubin reagent pad:

A. 0.1 to 0.5 mg/dL
B. 0.4 to 0.8 mg/dL
C. 4 to 8 mg/dL
D. 8 to 16 mg/dL

Answer 263

B. 0.4 to 0.8 mg/dL

Question 264

Albumin reagent strips utilizing the dye ________ has a higher sensitivity and specificity for albumin:

A. DIDNTB
B. TMB
C. DBDH
D. Tetrabromphenol blue

Answer 264

A. DIDNTB

Question 265

Moderate hemolysis and require careful monitoring anticipating an early delivery or exchange transfusion upon delivery:

A. Zone 1 of Liley graph
B. Zone 2 of Liley graph
C. Zone 3 of Liley graph
D. None of these

Answer 265

B. Zone 2 of Liley graph

Question 266

Amniotic fluid bilirubin is measured by:

A. Turbidimetric method
B. Dye-binding method
C. Spectrophotometric analysis
D. Fluorometric analysis

Answer 266

C. Spectrophotometric analysis

Question 267

All are components of CLINITEST, except:

A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose

Answer 267

D. Lactose

Question 268

Which of the following is a component of ACETEST?

A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose

Answer 268

D. Lactose

Question 269

The only tissue in the body that is hypertonic with respect to normal plasma (i.e., its osmolality is greater than 290 mOsm/kg):

A. Glomerulus
B. Convoluted tubules
C. Renal cortex
D. Renal medulla

Answer 269

D. Renal medulla

Question 270

Blood vessel that supply blood to the kidney:

A. Renal artery
B. Renal vein
C. Peritubular capillaries
D. None of these

Answer 270

A. Renal artery

Question 271

The following are all bacterial phenotypic characteristics except:

A. Microscopic morphology and staining characteristics
B. Environmental requirements for growth
C. Nutritional requirements and metabolic capabilities
D. The presence of a particular nucleic acid sequence

Answer 271

D. The presence of a particular nucleic acid sequence

Question 272

Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:

A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite

Answer 272

B. Ketone and leukocytes

Question 273

If an ambulatory, adult patient is suspected of having a urinary tract infection, which of the following collection methods would be most appropriate to obtain a urine sample?

A. Random
B. Catheterization
C. Suprapubic aspiration
D. Clean-catch midstream

Answer 273

D. Clean-catch midstream

Question 274

Refractive index is a comparison of light:

A. Velocity in solutions to light velocity in solids
B. Velocity in air to light velocity in solutions
C. Scattering by air to light scattering by solutions
D. Scattering by particles in solution

Answer 274

B. Velocity in air to light velocity in solutions

Question 275

After receiving a timed urine for quantitative analysis, the laboratorian must first:

A. Subculture the urine for bacteria
B. Add the appropriate preservative
C. Screen for albumin using a dipstick
D. Measure and record the total volume

Answer 275

D. Measure and record the total volume

Question 276

Urine reagent test strips should be stored in a tightly-sealed container in/on the:

A. Freezer (-20°C)
B. Refrigerator (5°C)
C. Benchtop (20°C)
D. Incubator (37°C)

Answer 276

C. Benchtop (20°C)

Question 277

Centrifugation for urine microscopic examination:

A. RCF of 100 for 2 minutes
B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes
C. RCF of 500 for 5 minutes
D. RCF of 500 for 10 minutes

Answer 277

B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes

Question 278

For good fixation it is recommended that the tissue be no larger than:

A. 2 cm square and 1-2 mm thick
B. 2 cm square and 3-4 mm thick
C. 3 cm square and 1-2 mm thick
D. 3 cm square and 3-4 mm thick

Answer 278

B. 2 cm square and 3-4 mm thick

Question 279

Pathologically, these casts are increased in congestive heart failure:

A. Hyaline cast
B. Granular cast
C. Cellular cast
D. Waxy cast

Answer 279

A. Hyaline cast

Question 280

Examination for casts should be performed:

A. After adding glacial acetic acid to the sediment
B. Under high dry power (40x obj.) with bright light
C. After adding Sternheimer-Malbin stain to the supernatant
D. Using subdued lighting and low power (10x obj.) magnification

Answer 280

D. Using subdued lighting and low power (10x obj.) magnification

Question 281

Following ingestion of ethylene glycol (antifreeze), which of the following crystals may be found in the urine?

A. Yellow-brown spherules
B. Colorless, dumbbells/rings
C. Colorless, rosettes/rhomboids
D. Flat plates with notched corners

Answer 281

B. Colorless, dumbbells/rings

Question 282

Which of the following contaminants has a dimpled center and can appear as a Maltese cross under polarized light?

A.Oil droplets
B. Air bubbles
C. Glass shards
D. Starch crystals

Answer 282

D. Starch crystals

Question 283

BE CAREFUL IN ANSWERING

Which of the following must exhibit rapid motility in order to be identified in a urine sediment?

A. Yeast
B. Bacteria
C. Spermatozoa
D. Trichomonas

Answer 283

D. Trichomonas

Question 284

A 21-year-old patient had glucose in their urine and a low fasting blood glucose. These findings are most consistent with:

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Renal glycosuria
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Nephrotic syndrome

Answer 284

B. Renal glycosuria

Question 285

Which of the following normally accounts for the largest fraction of CSF total proteins?

A. Albumin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Haptoglobin
D. Transthyretin

Answer 285

A. Albumin

Question 286

Normal CSF contains all of the following proteins except:

A. Transferrin
B. Transthyretin
C. Albumin
D. Fibrinogen

Answer 286

D. Fibrinogen

Question 287

Increased presence of fetal fibronection (fFN) in cervicovaginal secretions from a 24-year-old female at 35 weeks’ gestation indicates an increased risk for:

A. Preterm delivery
B. Bacterial vaginosis
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Hemolytic disease of the newborn

Answer 287

A. Preterm delivery

Question 288

PLS INDICATE CSF TUBE #

If glucose testing cannot be performed immediately, CSF should be stored:

A. At room temperature
B. In a refrigerator
C. In a freezer
D. In an incubator

Answer 288

C. In a freezer

Tube 1

Question 289

The dimensions of a standard Neubauer hemacytometer chamber are:

A. 3.0 mm x 3.0 mm x 0.1 mm
B. 2.0 mmx 2.0 mm x 0.1 mm
C. 1.0 mm x 1.0 mm x 0.1 mm
D. 0.1 mm x 0.1 mm x 0.1 mm

Answer 289

A. 3.0 mm x 3.0 mm x 0.1 mm

Question 290

Synovial fluid is typically collected using a sterile needle and syringe and then transferred to collection tubes for testing. Which of the following anticoagulants would be appropriate to use for the aliquot sent for a manual cell count and crystal evaluation?

A. Liquid EDTA
B. Lithium heparin
C. Sodium fluoride
d. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate

Answer 290

A. Liquid EDTA

Question 291

What substance gives feces its normal color?

A. Uroerythrin
B. Urochrome
C. Urobilin
D. Urobilinogen

Answer 291

C. Urobilin

Question 292

Which of the following calculations may be useful in determining if there is a breach in the blood-brain barrier?

A. CSF lgG index
B. Total protein ratio
C. CSF/serum albumin index
D. Lactate dehydrogenase ratio

Answer 292

C. CSF/serum albumin index

Question 293

The presence of macrophages in CSF is associated with a:

A. Viral infection
B. Bacterial infection
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Traumatic lumbar puncture

Answer 293

C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

NEGATIVE FOR ERYTHROPHAGES IN TRAUMATIC TAP

Question 294

When using preservatives, what is the appropriate ratio of fixative to stool?

A. One part fixative to one part stool
B. Two parts fixative to one part stool
C. Three parts fixative to one part stool
D. Four parts fixative to one part stool

Answer 294

C. Three parts fixative to one part stool

Question 295

The reduviid bug is the vector for transmitting which of the following parasites?

A. Leishmania donovani
B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
E. Leishmania tropica

Answer 295

D. Trypanosoma cruzi

Question 296

The infective stage of the Plasmodium parasite and the Babesia parasite for humans is the:

A. Merozoite
B. Trophozoite
C. Gametocyte
D. Sporozoite

Answer 296

D. Sporozoite

Question 297

Ziemann’s dots, band form trophozoites, and 72-hour periodicity of paroxysms is indicative of infection with which Plasmodium species?

A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium malariae

Answer 297

D. Plasmodium malariae

Question 298

These two nematodes are similar in that they are both suspected of being transport hosts of Dientamoeba fragilis.

A. Trichinella and Dracunculus
B. Necator and Trichuris
C. Strongyloides and Ancylostoma
D. Ascaris and Enterobius

Answer 298

D. Ascaris and Enterobius

Question 299

Which of these parasites are contracted via skin penetration?

A. Enterobius, Necator, Dracunculus
B. Ascaris, Trichinella, Ancylostoma
C. Trichuris, Strongyloides, Enterobius
D. Ancylostoma, Strongyloides, Necator

Answer 299

D. Ancylostoma, Strongyloides, Necator

Question 300

All of the following microfilariae lack a sheath except:

A. Mansonella ozzardi
B. Mansonella perstans
C. Onchocera volvulus
D. Brugia malayi

Answer 300

D. Brugia malayi

Question 301

Which of the following filarial nematodes is transmitted by the Chrysops fly?

A. Onchocerca volvulus
B. Mansonella ozzardi
C. Loa loa
D. Brugia malayi

Answer 301

C. Loa loa

Question 302

Which of the following filarial nematode infections is diagnosed by using skin snips rather than a peripheral blood smear?

A. Onchocerca volvulus
B. Loa loa
C. Mansonella perstans
D. Wuchereria bancrofti

Answer 302

A. Onchocerca volvulus

Question 303

Consumption of the infective larval stage encysted on aquatic plants that have not been cooked results in infection with:

A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Heterophyes heterophyes
D. Paragonimus westermani

Answer 303

B. Fasciola hepatica

Question 304

The infective form of Schistosoma mansoni is which of the following?

A. Cercaria swimming in water
B. Metacercaria on or in fish
C. Metacercaria encysted on waterchestnuts or vegetables
D. Cercaria on water chestnuts, bambooshoots, or vegetables

Answer 304

A. Cercaria swimming in water

Question 305

Pinworm disease may be diagnosed by which procedure?

A. Direct fecal smear
B. Cellophane tape test
C. Fecal concentration methods
D. Egg-count technique

Answer 305

B. Cellophane tape test

Question 306

The definitive host for Plasmodium vivax is a:

A. Flea
B. Human
C. Mosquito
D. Fish

Answer 306

C. Mosquito

Question 307

Xenodiagnosis is used for which parasite?

A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Loa loa
D. Wuchereria bancrofti

Answer 307

B. Trypanosoma cruzi

Question 308

Each of the following microfilaria has a sheath EXCEPT:

A. Brugia malayi
B. Loa loa
C. Mansonella ozzardi
D. Wuchereria bancrofti

Answer 308

C. Mansonella ozzardi

Question 309

Visceral larval migrans is caused by:

A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Ancylostoma braziliense
C. Dirofilaria spp.
D. Toxocara canis

Answer 309

D. Toxocara canis

Question 310

In the urinalysis laboratory the primary source in the chain of infection would be:

A. Patients
B. Needlesticks
C. Specimens
D. Biohazardous waste

Answer 310

C. Specimens

Question 311

All of the following should be discarded in biohazardous waste containers except:

A. Urine specimen containers
B. Towels used for decontamination
C. Disposable lab coats
D. Blood collection tubes

Answer 311

A. Urine specimen containers

Question 312

Centrifuging an uncapped specimen may produce a biologic hazard in the form of:

A. Vectors
B. Sharps contamination
C. Aerosols
D. Specimen contamination

Answer 312

C. Aerosols

Question 313

An employee who accidentally spills acid on his arm should immediately:

A. Neutralize the acid with a base
B. Hold the arm under running water for 15 minutes
C. Consult the MSDSs
D. Wrap the arm in gauze and go to the emergency department

Answer 313

B. Hold the arm under running water for 15 minutes

Question 314

Employees should not work with radioisotopes if they are:

A. Wearing contact lenses
B. Allergic to iodine
C. Sensitive to latex
D. Pregnant

Answer 314

D. Pregnant

Question 315

The NPFA classification symbol contains information on all of the following except:

A. Fire hazards
B. Biohazards
C. Reactivity
D. Health hazards

Answer 315

B. Biohazards

Question 316

The primary inorganic substance found in urine is:

A. Sodium
B. Phosphate
C. Chloride
D. Calcium

Answer 316

C. Chloride

Question 317

Which of the following would be least affected in a specimen that has remained unpreserved at room temperature for more than 2 hours?

A. Urobilinogen
B. Ketones
C. Protein
D. Nitrite

Answer 317

C. Protein

Question 318

The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is:

A. Secretion of creatinine
B. Improperly timed urine specimens
C. Refrigeration of the urine
D. Time of collecting blood sample

Answer 318

B. Improperly timed urine specimens

Question 319

Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is:

A. Hyposthenuric
B. Hypersthenuric
C. Highly acidic
D. Highly alkaline

Answer 319

B. Hypersthenuric

Question 320

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets maybe accomplished by all of the following except:

A. Observation of budding in yeast cells
B. Increased refractility of oil droplets
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid

Answer 320

C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid

Question 321

All of the following contribute to urinary crystals formation except:

A. Protein concentration
B. pH
C. Solute concentration
D. Temperature

Answer 321

A. Protein concentration

Question 322

Which type of analytical error can be prevented by a good quality control program?

A. Instrument not properly calibrated
B. Presence of interfering substances in sample
C. Presence of bubbles in the light path of a photometric method
D. Analyte concentration so high it depletes the active reagent

Answer 322

A. Instrument not properly calibrated