L1 CM Flashcards
(323 cards)
1
Q
Black belts dedicate ____ of their time to quality improvement projects, proactively addressing process and quality problems.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 70%
D. 100%
A
D. 100%
2
Q
Green belts contribute ____ of their time to improvement projects while delivering their normal job functions.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 70%
D. 100%
A
B. 20%
3
Q
Black belts
A. Project sponsors or champions
B. Project coaches or leaders
C. Project team members
D. Not traditionally used
A
B. Project coaches or leaders
4
Q
Green belts
A. Project sponsors or champions
B. Project coaches or leaders
C. Project team members
D. Not traditionally used
A
C. Project team members
5
Q
Blue belts
A. Project sponsors or champions
B. Project coaches or leaders
C. Project team members
D. Not traditionally used
A
A. Project sponsors or champions
6
Q
IQ 200 system uses Auto Particle Recognition (APR) software that preclassifies urine particles in the photographs based on size, shape, texture and contrast into ____ categories.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15
A
C. 12
7
Q
Which of the following aids in differentiating a spherical transitional cell from a round renal tubular cell?
A. Spherical transitional cell is larger
B. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the renal tubular cell
C. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the spherical transitional cell
D. Round renal tubular cell is larger
A
B. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the renal tubular cell
8
Q
RTE cell from the proximal convoluted tubules:
A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these
A
A. Columnar or convoluted
9
Q
RTE cell from the distal convoluted tubules:
A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these
A
C. Round or oval
10
Q
RTE cells from the collecting duct:
A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these
A
B. Cuboidal
11
Q
Which of the tubules is impermeable to water?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule
A
C. Ascending loop of Henle
12
Q
Which part of the renal tubule is HIGHLY PERMEABLE to water and does not reabsorb sodium and chloride?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule
A
B. Descending loop of Henle
13
Q
RENAL STONE yellow-brown resembling an old soap and feel somewhat greasy:
A. Phosphate
B. Urate
C. Cystine
D. Calcium oxalate
A
C. Cystine
14
Q
Yellow to brownish red and are moderately hard stone:
A. Cystine stones
B. Calcium oxalate stones
C. Phosphate stones
D. Uric acid and urate stones
A
D. Uric acid and urate stones
15
Q
Unique portion of HCG:
A. Glycoprotein portion of alpha subunit
B. Glycoprotein portion of beta subunit
C. Amino acid portion of alpha subunit
D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit
A
D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit
16
Q
Urine for pregnancy test should have a specific gravity of at least:
A. 1.002
B. 1.003
C. 1.010
D. 1.015
A
D. 1.015
17
Q
SITUATION: A urine sample is received in the laboratory with the appropriate custody control form, and a request for drug of abuse screening. Which test result would be cause for REJECTING the sample?
A. Temperature after collection 95°F
B. pH 5.0
C. Specific gravity 1.005
D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL
A
D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL
18
Q
When testing for drugs of abuse in urine, which of the following test results indicate dilution and would be cause for REJECTING the sample?
A. Temperature upon sample submission 92°F
B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL
C. pH 5.8; temperature 94°F
D. Specific gravity 1.012, creatinine 25 mg/dL
A
B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL
19
Q
What is the most common cause of male infertility?
A. Mumps
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
C. Varicocele
D. Malignancy
A
C. Varicocele
20
Q
Which of the following is the most common cause of female infertility?
A. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
B. Failure to ovulate
C. Orchitis
D. Menopause
A
B. Failure to ovulate
LARSON page 436: Failure to ovulate is the most common female infertility problem.
21
Q
Initial magnification:
A. Ocular
B. Objective
C. Condenser
D. Rheostat
A
B. Objective
22
Q
Further magnification:
A. Ocular
B. Objective
C. Condenser
D. Rheostat
A
A. Ocular
23
Q
A drug test is valid for _________.
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years
A
C. One year
24
Q
Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) or commonly known as:
A. Cannabis
B. Shabu
C. Meth
D. Ecstasy
A
D. Ecstasy
25
Component(s) of the chain of infection:
A. Susceptible host
B. Entry portal
C. Transmission of the pathogen
D. All of these
D. All of these
26
Biodegradable wastes like leftover food, used cooking oil, fish entrails, scale, fins, fruits, vegetable peelings, rotten fruits, and vegetables:
A. Orange
B. Red
C. Green
D. Black
C. Green
27
Non-biodegradable wastes like paper or paper products (newspaper, tetra packs, etc.), bottles (glass and plastics), and packaging materials (Styropor, candy wrapper, aluminum cans):
A. Orange
B. Red
C. Green
D. Black
D. Black
28
Radioactive wastes or medical equipment contaminated or exposed in radioactivity:
A. Orange
B. Red
C. Green
D. Black
A. Orange
29
Pharmaceutical and chemical wastes:
A. Yellow
B. Yellow with black band
C. Red
D. Orange
B. Yellow with black band
30
Infectious and pathological wastes such as used test strips, used beads or plates, used reaction pads or foils, used swabs, used gloves, used cord clamp, used plaster, used masks:
A. Yellow
B. Yellow with black band
C. Red
D. Orange
A. Yellow
31
Aldosterone is involved in the reabsorption of:
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Bicarbonate
D. Hydrogen ion
B. Sodium
32
Refractive index compares the velocity of light in urine to the velocity of light in:
A. Air
B. Oil
C. Saline
D. Water
A. Air
33
The principle of refractive index is to compare:
A. Light velocity in solutions with light velocity in solids
B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions
C. Light scattering by air with light scattering by solutions
D. Light scattering by particles in solution
B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions
34
Which of the following conditions is associated with normal urine color but produces red fluorescence when urine is examined with an ultraviolet (Wood’s) lamp?
A. Acute intermittent porphyria
B. Lead poisoning
C. Erythropoietic porphyria
D. Porphyria cutanea tarda
B. Lead poisoning
35
A brown or black pigment in urine can be caused by:
A. Gantrisin (Pyridium)
B. Phenolsulfonphthalein
C. Rifampin
D. Melanin
D. Melanin
36
Urine that is dark red or port wine in color may be caused by:
A. Lead poisoning
B. Porphyria cutanea tarda
C. Alkaptonuria
D. Hemolytic anemia
B. Porphyria cutanea tarda
37
Which of the following tests is affected least by standing or improperly stored urine?
A. Glucose
B. Protein
C. pH
D. Bilirubin
B. Protein
38
Which of the following contributes to SG, but not to osmolality?
A. Protein
B. Salt
C. Urea
D. Glucose
A. Protein
39
Urine with an SG consistently between 1.002 and 1.003 indicates:
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Renal tubular failure
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Addison’s disease
C. Diabetes insipidus
40
In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:
A. Consistently acid
B. Consistently alkaline
C. Neutral
D. Variable, depending upon diet
B. Consistently alkaline
41
AAA is detected in urine by reaction with:
A. Sodium nitroprusside
B. o-Toluidine
C. m-Dinitrobenzene
D. m-Dinitrophenylhydrazine
A. Sodium nitroprusside
42
Which of the following reagents is used to detect urobilinogen in urine?
A. p-Dinitrobenzene
B. p-Aminosalicylate
C. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
D. p-Dichloroaniline
C. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
43
Which of the following dyes are used in Sternheimer–Malbin stain?
A. Hematoxylin and eosin
B. Crystal violet and safranin
C. Methylene blue and eosin
D. Methylene blue and safranin
B. Crystal violet and safranin
44
Oval fat bodies are often seen in:
A. Chronic glomerulonephritis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Acute tubular nephrosis
D. Renal failure of any cause
B. Nephrotic syndrome
45
The mucoprotein that forms the matrix of a hyaline cast is called:
A. Bence–Jones protein
B. β-Microglobulin
C. Tamm–Horsfall protein
D. Arginine-rich glycoprotein
C. Tamm–Horsfall protein
46
A sediment with moderate hematuria and RBC casts most likely results from:
A. Chronic pyelonephritis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Acute glomerulonephritis
D. Lower urinary tract obstruction
C. Acute glomerulonephritis
47
Urine sediment characterized by pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts indicates:
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Polycystic kidney disease
D. Cystitis
B. Pyelonephritis
48
Oval fat bodies are derived from:
A. Renal tubular epithelium
B. Transitional epithelium
C. Degenerated WBCs
D. Mucoprotein matrix
A. Renal tubular epithelium
49
Which of the following conditions is associated with the greatest proteinuria?
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Chronic glomerulonephritis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
50
Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones are composed of:
A. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
B. Calcium oxalate
C. Calcium phosphate
D. Calcium carbonate
B. Calcium oxalate
51
Stones may become large, forming casts of the kidney pelvis and showing STAGHORNS:
A. Calcium phosphate (apatite)
B. Monohydrate calcium oxalate (whewellite)
C. Dihydrate calcium oxalate (weddelite)
D. Triple phosphate (struvite)
D. Triple phosphate (struvite)
52
Significance of white foam in urine:
A. Ammonia
B. Bilirubin
C. Protein
D. Urobilinogen
C. Protein
53
Alkaptonuria, a rare hereditary disease, is characterized by the urinary excretion of:
A. Alkaptone
B. Phenylalanine
C. 5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid
D. Homogentisic acid
D. Homogentisic acid
54
Which of the following stains is used to determine sperm viability?
A. Eosin Y
B. Hematoxylin
C. Papanicolaou
D. Methylene blue
A. Eosin Y
55
Which condition is most often associated with gastric ulcers
A. Cancer of the stomach
B. H. pylori infection
C. Zollinger–Ellison (Z–E) syndrome
D. Pernicious anemia
B. H. pylori infection
56
Which of the following is commonly associated with occult blood?
A. Colon cancer
B. Atrophic gastritis
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Pancreatitis
A. Colon cancer
57
Which of the following semen analysis results is ABNORMAL?
A. Volume 1.0 mL
B. Liquefaction 40 minutes at room temperature
C. pH 7.6
D. Motility 50% progressive movement
A. Volume 1.0 mL
58
CSF GLUTAMINE
Measurement of which of the following can be replaced by CSF glutamine analysis in children with Reye syndrome?
A. Ammonia
B. Lactate
C. Glucose
D. Alpha-ketoglutarate
A. Ammonia
59
The amount of amniotic fluid increases in quantity throughout pregnancy, reaching a peak of approximately ____ mL during the third trimester, and then gradually decreases prior to delivery.
A. 400 to 800 mL
B. 800 mL to 1,200 mL
C. 1,200 to 1,500 mL
D. 2,000 to 4, 000 mL
B. 800 mL to 1,200 mL
60
A maximum of _ mL of amniotic fluid is collected in sterile syringes.
A. 10 mL
B. 20 mL
C. 30 mL
D. 50 mL
C. 30 mL
61
Which pair does NOT match with respect to amniotic fluid?
A. Colorless – normal
B. Dark red-brown – fetal death
C. Dark green – hemolytic disease of the newborn
D. Blood-streaked – traumatic tap
C. Dark green – hemolytic disease of the newborn
62
A pleural fluid submitted to the laboratory is milky in appearance. Which test would be most useful in differentiating between a chylous and pseudochylous effusion?
A. Fluid to serum triglyceride ratio
B. Fluid WBC count
C. Fluid total protein
D. Fluid to serum LD ratio
A. Fluid to serum triglyceride ratio
63
In which condition is the highest level of serum gastrin usually seen?
A. Atrophic gastritis
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
D. Cancer of the stomach
C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
64
Which is the reference method for determining fetal lung maturity?
A. Human placental lactogen
B. L/S ratio
C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin
D. Urinary estriol
B. L/S ratio
65
Which test best correlates with the severity of HDN?
A. Rh antibody titer of the mother
B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin
D. Urinary estradiol
C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin
66
Calcium pyrophosphate (pseudogout) in synovial fluid:
1. Needles
2. Rhomboid square, rods
3. Negative birefringence under compensated polarized light
4. Positive birefringence under compensated polarized light
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
D. 2 and 4
67
Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with an exudative effusion?
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Malignancy
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Cirrhosis
B. Malignancy
68
Immunologic analysis has shown that ____ is a major constituent of mucus.
A. Bence-Jones protein
B. Albumin
C. Transferrin
D. Uromodulin
D. Uromodulin
69
When semi-automated urine chemistry analyzers are used, the color that develops on the reaction pads is measured by:
A. Spectrophotometry.
B. Reflectance photometry.
C. Fluorescence photometry.
D. Comparing reaction pads with a color chart.
B. Reflectance photometry.
70
The pathologic accumulation of fluid in a body cavity is called:
A. An abscess.
B. An effusion.
C. Pleocytosis.
D. Paracentesis.
B. An effusion.
71
Thoracentesis refers specifically to the removal of fluid from the:
A. Abdominal cavity.
B. Pericardial cavity.
C. Peritoneal cavity.
D. Pleural cavity.
D. Pleural cavity.
72
Which of the following parameters best identifies a fluid as a transudate or an exudate?
A. Color and clarity
B. Leukocyte and differential counts
C. Total protein and specific gravity measurements
D. Total protein ratio and lactate dehydrogenase ratio
D. Total protein ratio and lactate dehydrogenase ratio
73
Chylous and pseudochylous effusions are differentiated by their:
A. Physical examinations.
B. Cholesterol concentrations.
C. Triglyceride concentrations.
D. Leukocyte and differential counts.
C. Triglyceride concentrations.
74
Pleural fluid triglycerides <50 mg/dL:
A. Hemothorax
B. Hemorrhagic effusion
C. Chylous effusion
D. Pseudochylous effusion
D. Pseudochylous effusion
75
Pleural fluid triglycerides >110 mg/dL:
A. Hemothorax
B. Hemorrhagic effusion
C. Chylous effusion
D. Pseudochylous effusion
C. Chylous effusion
76
Which of the following conditions is most often associated with the formation of a transudate?
A. Pancreatitis
B. Surgical procedures
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Metastatic neoplasm
C. Congestive heart failure
77
Which of the following proteins in the CSF is used to monitor the integrity of the blood-brain barrier?
A. Albumin
B. Transthyretin
C. Transferrin
D. Immunoglobulin G
A. Albumin
78
An unknown fluid can be positively identified as CSF by determining the:
A. Lactate concentration.
B. Albumin concentration.
C. Presence of oligoclonal banding on electrophoresis.
D. Presence of carbohydrate-deficient transferrin on electrophoresis.
D. Presence of carbohydrate-deficient transferrin on electrophoresis.
79
Which of the following is not a test to evaluate the surfactants present in the fetal pulmonary system?
A. ΔA450
B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
C. Phosphatidylglycerol detection
D. Foam stability index
A. ΔA450
80
A ΔA450 value that falls into zone III indicates that the fetus is experiencing:
A. No hemolysis.
B. Mild hemolysis.
C. Moderate hemolysis.
D. Severe hemolysis.
D. Severe hemolysis.
81
The concentration of which of the following substances can be used to positively identify a fluid as seminal fluid?
A. Acid phosphatase
B. Citric acid
C. Fructose
D. Zinc
A. Acid phosphatase
82
Which of the following substances is responsible for the characteristic color of normal feces?
A. Bilirubin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Urobilin
D. Urobilinogen
C. Urobilin
83
Which of the following substances is not a component of normal feces?
A. Bacteria
B. Blood
C. Electrolytes
D. Water
B. Blood
84
Positive result in the Ictotest:
A. Green
B. Orange
C. Purple
D. Red
C. Purple
85
All are components of CLINITEST, except:
A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose
D. Lactose
86
Which of the following is a component of ACETEST?
A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose
D. Lactose
87
Green with carbocyanine:
A. DNA
B. DNA and nuclear membrane
C. Nuclear membrane and mitochondria
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane
88
Orange with phenathridine:
A. DNA
B. DNA and nuclear membrane
C. Nuclear membrane and mitochondria
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane
A. DNA
89
Enumeration of bacteria in automated slideless microscopy:
A. Spectrophotometric method
B. Small particle histogram
C. Nitrite determination
D. Reflectance photometry
B. Small particle histogram
90
Living sperm cells in the Modified Bloom's test:
A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background
A. Unstained, bluish-white
91
Dead sperm cells in the Modified Bloom's test:
A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background
D. Red on a purple background
92
URINE REAGENT PADS
Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:
A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite
B. Ketone and leukocytes
93
CSF VDRL test:
A. Tube 1
B. Tube 2
C. Tube 3
D. Any of these tubes
A. Tube 1
94
Excess CSF should be:
A. Discarded
B. Refrigerated
C. Frozen
D. Maintained at room temperature
C. Frozen
95
Benedict’s test 1+:
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange
B. Green
96
Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as TRISOMY 21 (DOWN SYNDROME), amniocentesis may be indicated at:
A. 1 to 7 weeks gestation
B. 7 to 14 weeks gestation
C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation
D. 20 to 42 weeks gestation
C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation
97
Dense crystalline concretions in sputum:
A. Asthma
B. Broncholithiasis
C. Fungal pneumonia
D. Tuberculosis
B. Broncholithiasis
98
Normal neutral fats with increased amount of fatty acids:
A. Malabsorption
B. Maldigestion
C. Both of these
D. None of these
A. Malabsorption
## Footnote
QUALITATIVE FECAL FATS
⬆ 1st slide (neutral fats) Maldigestion
⬆ 2nd slide (fatty acids) Malabsorption
-----
An increased amount of total fat on the second slide with normal fat content on the first slide is an indication of malabsorption, whereas maldigestion is indicated by increased neutral fat on the first slide.
99
Bacterial, viral, and protozoan infections produce increased secretion of water and electrolytes, which override the reabsorptive ability of the large intestine, leading to:
A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these
B. Secretory diarrhea
100
Secretory diarrhea is caused by:
A. Antibiotic administration
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Celiac sprue
D. Vibrio cholerae
D. Vibrio cholerae
101
Maldigestion (impaired food digestion) and malabsorption (impaired nutrient absorption by the intestine) contribute to:
A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these
A. Osmotic diarrhea
102
Positive lactoferrin agglutination test in patient stool:
A. Fecal fats - steatorrhea
B. Fecal occult blood - colorectal cancer
C. Fecal leukocytes - diarrhea caused by Vibrio
D. Fecal leukocytes - diarrhea caused by Salmonella
D. Fecal leukocytes - diarrhea caused by Salmonella
103
Wet preparation for demonstration of fecal leukocytes:
A. Methylene blue
B. Gram stain
C. Wright's stain
D. All of these
A. Methylene blue
104
Low to absent fructose level in the semen:
A. Low sperm concentration
B. Low sperm motility
C. Low sperm viability
D. Presence of antisperm antibodies
A. Low sperm concentration
105
Specimens for fructose levels should be tested within 2 hours of collection or ____ to prevent fructolysis.
A. Refrigerated
B. Frozen
C. Incubated at 37C
D. Maintained at room temperature
B. Frozen
106
Specimens can be screened for the presence of fructose using the resorcinol test that produces an ____color when fructose is present.
A. Blue
B. Black
C. Green
D. Orange
D. Orange
107
Urine for pregnancy test should have a specific gravity of at least:
A. 1.002
B. 1.003
C. 1.010
D. 1.015
D. 1.015
108
Refractometer results are valid up to ____; specimen with greater than (your answer) should be diluted and remeasured.
A. 1.020
B. 1.025
C. 1.030
D. 1.035
D. 1.035
109
Specific gravity of 1.022 ± 0.001:
A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose
C. 5% NaCl
110
Specific gravity of 1.034 ± 0.001:
A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose
D. 9% sucrose
111
Specific gravity of 1.015 ± 0.001:
A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose
B. 3% NaCl
112
Most frequently performed chemical analysis on urine:
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Uric acid
D. Blood
B. Glucose
113
Most frequently performed chemical test on CSF:
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Uric acid
D. Blood
A. Protein
114
Most frequently requested test in synovial fluid:
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Uric acid
D. Blood
B. Glucose
115
Positive result for the guaiac test for fecal occult blood:
A. Green
B. Blue
C. Purple
See more
B. Blue
116
Unique portion of HCG:
A. Glycoprotein portion of alpha subunit
B. Glycoprotein portion of beta subunit
C. Amino acid portion of alpha subunit
D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit
D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit
117
The most abundant amino acid in the body, being involved in more metabolic processes than any other amino acid:
A. Alanine
B. Asparagine
C. Cysteine
D. Glutamine
D. Glutamine
118
Thyroid hormones are derived from which of the following?
A. Histidine
B. Cholesterol
C. Tyrosine
D. Phenylalanine
C. Tyrosine
119
Precursor for serotonin and melatonin:
A. Glutamine
B. Threonine
C. Tryptophan
D. Tyrosine
C. Tryptophan
120
In the tolbutamide tolerance test, blood specimens are obtained for glucose and insulin before ________ of 1 g of a water-soluble form of tolbutamide and at 2, 15, 30, 60, 90, and 120 minutes afterwards.
A. Oral administration
B. Intramuscular injection
C. Intravenous injection
D. Sublingual administration
C. Intravenous injection
121
A specimen delivered to the laboratory with a request for prostatic acid phosphatase and glycoprotein p30 was collected to determine:
A. Prostatic infection
B. Presence of antisperm antibodies
C. A possible rape
D. Successful vasectomy
C. A possible rape
122
Barbiero’s test:
A. Iodine, potassium iodide
B. Picric acid, trichloroacetic acid
C. Ammonium sulfate
D. Acetic acid
B. Picric acid, trichloroacetic acid
123
Florence test:
A. Iodine, potassium iodide
B. Picric acid, trichloroacetic acid
C. Ammonium sulfate
D. Acetic acid
A. Iodine, potassium iodide
124
Normal synovial fluid does not clot; however, fluid from a diseased joint may contain fibrinogen and will clot. Therefore, fluid is often collected in a syringe that has been moistened with:
A. EDTA
B. SPS
C. Heparin
D. Sodium fluoride
C. Heparin
125
PHASE OF GASTRIC SECRETION that involves VAGUS NERVE STIMULATION caused by stimuli such as taste, smell, or sight:
A. Cephalic phase
B. Gastric phase
C. Intestinal phase
D. None of these
A. Cephalic phase
126
Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5 or 1.0 pH unit with gastric stimulation:
A. Achlorhydria
B. Hypochlorhydria
C. Anacidity
A. Achlorhydria
127
Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5, although it decreases 1.0 pH unit or more upon gastric stimulation:
A. Achlorhydria
B. Hypochlorhydria
C. Anacidity
B. Hypochlorhydria
128
Failure of the stomach acidity to fall lower than 6.0 in a stimulation test:
A. Achlorhydria
B. Hypochlorhydria
C. Anacidity
C. Anacidity
129
The presence of dysmorphic red blood cells in the urine sediment is indicative of which of the following?
A. A coagulation disorder
B. Menstrual contamination
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Glomerular bleeding
D. Glomerular bleeding
130
GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing hemoglobin degradation products are associated with:
A. Cystitis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Acute interstitial nephritis
D. Acute tubular necrosis
D. Acute tubular necrosis
131
Most common type of microscopy performed in the urinalysis laboratory:
A. Bright-field microscopy
B. Phase-contrast microscopy
C. Polarizing microscopy
D. Interference-contrast microscope
A. Bright-field microscopy
132
Enhances visualization of elements with low refractive indices, such as hyaline casts, mixed cellular casts, mucous threads, and Trichomonas:
A. Bright-field microscopy
B. Phase-contrast microscopy
C. Polarizing microscopy
D. Interference-contrast microscope
B. Phase-contrast microscopy
133
The most appropriate method for collecting a urine specimen from a patient with an indwelling catheter is:
A. Remove the catheter, cut the tip, and submit it for culture
B. Disconnect the catheter from the bag, and aseptically collect urine from the terminal end ofthe catheter
C. Aseptically collect urine directly from the drainage bag
D. Aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing
D. Aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing
134
Preanalytical (preexamination) variables in laboratory testing include:
A. Result accuracy
B. Report delivery to the ordering physician
C. Test turnaround time
D. Specimen acceptability
D. Specimen acceptability
135
The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is:
A. Secretion of creatinine
B. Improperly timed urine specimens
C. Refrigeration of the urine
D. Time of collecting blood sample
## Footnote
Stras
B. Improperly timed urine specimens
136
Which of the tubules is impermeable to water?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule
## Footnote
Stras
C. Ascending loop of Henle
137
The primary chemical affected by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is:
A. Chloride
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Hydrogen
## Footnote
Stras
B. Sodium
138
The primary inorganic substance found in urine is:
A. Sodium
B. Phosphate
C. Chloride
D. Calcium
## Footnote
Stras
C. Chloride
139
Employers are required to provide free immunization for:
A. HIV
B. HTLV-1
C. HBV
D. HCV
## Footnote
Stras
C. HBV
140
The classification of a fire that can be extinguished with water is:
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
## Footnote
Stras
A. Class A
141
The testing of sample from an outside agency and the comparison of results with participating laboratories is called:
A. External QC
B. Electronic QC
C. Internal QC
D. Proficiency testing
## Footnote
Stras
D. Proficiency testing
## Footnote
Proficiency Testing (External Quality Assessment)
External QA (not External QC)
PT or EQA is the testing of unknown samples received from an outside agency, and provides unbiased validation of the quality of patient test results. The laboratory accuracy is evaluated and compared with other laboratories using the same method of analysis.
142
The NPFA classification symbol contains information on all of the following except:
A. Fire hazards
B. Biohazards
C. Reactivity
D. Health hazards
## Footnote
Stras
B. Biohazards
143
The first thing to do when a fire is discovered is to:
A. Rescue persons in danger
B. Activate the alarm system
C. Close doors to other areas
D. Extinguish the fire if possible
## Footnote
Stras
A. Rescue persons in danger
144
Employees should not work with radioisotopes if they are:
A. Wearing contact lenses
B. Allergic to iodine
C. Sensitive to latex
D. Pregnant
## Footnote
Stras
D. Pregnant
145
Centrifuging an uncapped specimen may produce a biologic hazard in the form of:
A. Vectors
B. Sharps contamination
C. Aerosols
D. Specimen contamination
## Footnote
Stras
C. Aerosols
146
All of the following should be discarded in biohazardous waste containers except:
A. Urine specimen containers
B. Towels used for decontamination
C. Disposable lab coats
D. Blood collection tubes
## Footnote
Stras
A. Urine specimen containers
147
The best way to break the chain of infection is:
A. Hand sanitizing
B. Personal protective equipment
C. Aerosol prevention
D. Decontamination
## Footnote
Stras
A. Hand sanitizing
148
In the urinalysis laboratory the primary source in the chain of infection would be:
A. Patients
B. Needlesticks
C. Specimens
D. Biohazardous waste
## Footnote
Stras
C. Specimens
149
Variables that are included in the MDRD-IDSM estimated creatinine clearance calculations include all of the following except:
A. Serum creatinine
B. Weight
C. Age
D. Gender
## Footnote
Stras
B. Weight
150
A patient with a viscous orange specimen may have been:
A. Treated for a urinary tract infection
B. Taking vitamin B pills
C. Eating fresh carrots
D. Taking antidepressants
## Footnote
Stras
A. Treated for a urinary tract infection
151
All of the following are variables included in the Cockroft and Gault formula EXCEPT:
A. Age and sex
B. Serum creatinine
C. Urine creatinine
D. Body weight in kilograms
C. Urine creatinine
152
The modification of diet in renal disease (MDRD) formula for calculating eGFR requires which four parameters?
A. Urine creatinine, serum creatinine, height, weight
B. Serum creatinine, age, gender, race
C. Serum creatinine, height, weight, age
D. Urine creatinine, gender, weight, age
B. Serum creatinine, age, gender, race
153
The color of urine containing porphyrins will be:
A. Yellow-brown
B. Green
C. Orange
D. Port wine
## Footnote
Stras
D. Port wine
154
The principle of refractive index is to compare:
A. Light velocity in solutions with light velocity insolids
B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions
C. Light scattering by air with light scattering by solutions
D. Light scattering by particles in solution
## Footnote
Stras
B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions
155
The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is the:
A. Bilirubin
B. pH
C. Leukocyte esterase
D. Glucose
## Footnote
Stras
C. Leukocyte esterase
156
The principle of the protein error of indicators reaction is that:
A. Protein keeps the pH of the urine constant.
B. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator.
C. The indicator accepts hydrogen ions from albumin.
D. Albumin changes the pH of the urine.
## Footnote
Stras
B. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator.
157
The primary reason for performing a Clinitest is to:
A. Check for high ascorbic acid levels
B. Confirm a positive reagent strip glucose
C. Check for newborn galactosuria
D. Confirm a negative glucose reading
## Footnote
Stras
C. Check for newborn galactosuria
158
The most significant reagent strip test that is associated with a positive ketone result is:
A. Glucose
B. Protein
C. pH
D. Specific gravity
## Footnote
Stras
A. Glucose
159
An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of:
A. Cirrhosis of the liver
B. Hemolytic disease
C. Hepatitis
D. Biliary obstruction
## Footnote
Stras
D. Biliary obstruction
160
All of the following can be detected by the leukocyte esterase reaction except:
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Basophils
## Footnote
Stras
C. Lymphocytes
161
Which of the following should be used to reduce lightintensity in bright-field microscopy?
A. Centering screws
B. Aperture diaphragm
C. Rheostat
D. Condenser aperture diaphragm
## Footnote
Stras
C. Rheostat
162
Nuclear detail can be enhanced by:
A. Prussian blue
B. Toluidine blue
C. Acetic acid
D. Both B and C
## Footnote
Stras
D. Both B and C
163
Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is:
A. Hyposthenuric
B. Hypersthenuric
C. Highly acidic
D. Highly alkaline
## Footnote
Stras
B. Hypersthenuric
164
Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets maybe accomplished by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Observation of budding in yeast cells
B. Increased refractility of oil droplets
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid
## Footnote
Stras
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
165
A finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of:
A. Glomerular bleeding
B. Renal calculi
C. Traumatic injury
D. Coagulation disorders
## Footnote
Stras
A. Glomerular bleeding
166
Following an episode of hemoglobinuria, RTE cells may contain:
A. Bilirubin
B. Hemosiderin granules
C. Porphobilinogen
D. Myoglobin
## Footnote
Stras
B. Hemosiderin granules
167
The predecessor of the oval fat body is the:
A. Histiocyte
B. Urothelial cell
C. Monocyte
D. Renal tubular cell
## Footnote
Stras
D. Renal tubular cell
168
The primary component of urinary mucus is:
A. Bence Jones protein
B. Microalbumin
C. Uromodulin
D. Orthostatic protein
## Footnote
Stras
C. Uromodulin
169
Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is seen with:
A. Wegener granulomatosis
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Goodpasture syndrome
D. Diabetic nephropathy
## Footnote
Stras
C. Goodpasture syndrome
170
Anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody is diagnostic for:
A. IgA nephropathy
B. Wegener granulomatosis
C. Henoch-Schönlein purpura
D. Goodpasture syndrome
## Footnote
Stras
B. Wegener granulomatosis
171
The only protein produced by the kidney is:
A. Albumin
B. Uromodulin
C. Uroprotein
D. Globulin
## Footnote
Stras
B. Uromodulin
172
The most common composition of renal calculi is:
A. Calcium oxalate
B. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
C. Cystine
D. Uric acid
## Footnote
Stras
A. Calcium oxalate
173
The best specimen for early newborn screening is a:
A. Timed urine specimen
B. Blood specimen
C. First morning urine specimen
D. Fecal specimen
## Footnote
Stras
B. Blood specimen
174
Hurler, Hunter, and Sanfilippo syndromes are hereditary disorders affecting metabolism of:
A. Porphyrins
B. Purines
C. Mucopolysaccharides
D. Tryptophan
## Footnote
Stras
C. Mucopolysaccharides
175
A bright-field microscope is easily adapted for dark-field microscopy by replacing the:
A. Ocular
B. Objective
C. Condenser
D. Polarizing filters
C. Condenser
176
Seventy (70) percent recirculated to the cabinet work area through HEPA; 30% balance can be exhausted through HEPA back into the room or to outside through a canopy unit:
A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2
B. BSC Class II, A1
177
Thirty (30) percent recirculated, 70% exhausted. Exhaust cabinet air must pass through a dedicated duct to the outside through a HEPA filter.
A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2
C. BSC Class II, B1
178
No recirculation; total exhaust to the outside through a HEPA filter.
A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2
D. BSC Class II, B2
179
All of the following are soluble in ether, except:
A. Amorphous urates
B. Chyle
C. Lipids
D. Lymphatic fluid
A. Amorphous urates
180
The concentration of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is generally at a particular level in serum about 2 to 3 days after implantation. This is the concentration at which most sensitive laboratory assays can give a positive serum hCG result. What is the lowest level of hormone for which most current serum hCG tests can give a positive result?
A. 25 mIU/mL
B. 50 mIU/mL
C. 100 mIU/mL
D. 100,000 mIU/mL
A. 25 mIU/mL
181
The presence of ____ increases the OD of the amniotic fluid. Specimens are centrifuged at 2,000 g for 10 minutes and examined using a wavelength of 650 nm.
A. Bilirubin
B. Oxyhemoglobin
C. Lamellar bodies
D. None of these
C. Lamellar bodies
182
The traditional diluent of choice for quantifying spermatozoa in seminal fluid contains:
A. Sodium bicarbonate and formalin
B. Methylene blue
C. Dilute acetic acid
D. Normal saline
A. Sodium bicarbonate and formalin
183
Living sperm cells in the Modified Bloom's test:
A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background
A. Unstained, bluish-white
184
Dead sperm cells in the Modified Bloom's test:
A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background
D. Red on a purple background
185
Stains used for evaluation of sperm morphology, EXCEPT:
A. Pap's stain
B. Wright's
C. Giemsa
D. Shorr
E. Eosin-nigrosin
E. Eosin-nigrosin
186
As little as 0.1 mL of CSF combined with one drop of ____ produces an adequate cell yield when processed with the cytocentrifuge.
A. 10% formalin
B. 40% formalin
C. 10% albumin
D. 30% albumin
D. 30% albumin
187
A DAILY CONTROL SLIDE FOR BACTERIA IN CSF:
A. 95% ethanol
B. 30% albumin
C. 0.2 mL saline and 2 drops 95% ethanol
D. 0.2 mL saline and 2 drops 30% albumin
D. 0.2 mL saline and 2 drops 30% albumin
188
For post-vasectomy semen analysis, specimens are routinely tested at monthly intervals, beginning at ____ months post-vasectomy and continuing until ____ consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa.
A. 2 months, 2 months
B. 2 months, 3 months
C. 3 months, 2 months
D. 3 months, 3 months
A. 2 months, 2 months
189
A specimen delivered to the laboratory with a request for prostatic acid phosphatase and glycoprotein p30 was collected to determine:
A. Prostatic infection
B. Presence of antisperm antibodies
C. A possible rape
D. Successful vasectomy
C. A possible rape
190
Reasons for analyzing amniotic fluid include the following EXCEPT:
A. To diagnose genetic and congenital neural tube disorders
B. To assess fetal liver maturity
C. To assess fetal lung maturity
D. To detect fetal distress from hemolytic disease of the newborn
B. To assess fetal liver maturity
191
Bilirubin is detected spectrophotometrically in amniotic fluid at:
A. 365 nm
B. 550 nm
C. 410 nm
D. 450 nm
D. 450 nm
192
All of these phospholipids have a role in fetal lung maturity EXCEPT:
A. Lecithin
B. Sphingomyelin
C. Phosphatidylglycerol
D. Lamellar bodies
B. Sphingomyelin
## Footnote
The role of sphingomyelin is not established. It only serve as a control on which to base the rise in lecithin.
Fetal lung surfactants are produced by fetal type II pneumocytes of the fetal lung and are stored as lamellar bodies after about 20 weeks of gestation.
193
A ΔA450 value that falls into zone I indicates:
A. A normal finding without significant hemolysis
B. Moderate hemolysis
C. Severe hemolysis
D. High fetal risk
A. A normal finding without significant hemolysis
194
Bright red blood and mucus in feces are most often seen with:
A. Malabsorption
B. Dysentery
C. Creatorrhea
D. Upper GI tract bleeding
B. Dysentery
195
Over half the volume of semen is produced in the:
A. Epididymis
B. Prostate gland
C. Seminal vesicles
D. Vasa deferentia
C. Seminal vesicles
196
Fructose is contained in the portion of semen produced by the:
A. Bulbourethral glands
B. Epididymis
C. Prostate gland
D. Seminal vesicles
D. Seminal vesicles
197
The process of spermatozoa formation is under control of all of these hormones EXCEPT:
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Luteinizing hormone
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone
D. Testosterone
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
198
PLEASE ALSO INDICATE NORMAL VOLUME
Which semen volume is within normal limits?
A. 0.5 mL
B. 1.5 mL
C. 4.0 mL
D. 6.0 mL
C. 4.0 mL
## Footnote
2-5 mL
199
Meningitis results in:
A. Decreased CSF glucose and decreased CSF protein
B. Decreased CSF glucose and increased CSF protein
C. Increased CSF glucose and decreased CSF protein
D. Increased CSF glucose and increased CSF protein
B. Decreased CSF glucose and increased CSF protein
200
The protocol for the performance of CSF analysis when three tubes are collected is which order for cell counts, chemistries, microbiology?
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 1, 3
C. 3, 1, 2
D. 3, 2, 1
C. 3, 1, 2
201
If only a small amount of CSF is obtained, which is the most important procedure to perform first?
A. Cell count
B. Chemistries
C. Immunology
D. Microbiology
D. Microbiology
202
How will erythrocytes appear in hypertonic urine?
A. Biconcave discs
B. Crenated
C. Lysed
D. Swollen
B. Crenated
203
Testing specimens that contain high levels of ascorbate may effect the reading of all of these EXCEPT:
A. Bilirubin
B. Glucose
C. Nitrite
D. Urobilinogen
D. Urobilinogen
204
Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:
A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite
B. Ketone and leukocytes
205
The presence of waxy casts in a microscopic examination of urine is consistent with a diagnosis of:
A. Strenuous exercise
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Chronic renal failure
D. Chronic renal failure
206
In salicylate overdose, what is the first acid-base disturbance present?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
## Footnote
SALICYLATE POISONING
Initial is RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS followed by METABOLIC ACIDOSIS
207
The L-pyrolidonyl-b-naphthylamide (PYR) hydrolysis test is a presumptive test for which of the following streptococci?
A. Groups A and B
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae and group C
C. Group A and Enterococcus
D. Group A and Streptococcus bovis
C. Group A and Enterococcus
208
All of the following characteristics are consistent with the appearance of normal cerebrospinal fluid except:
A. Crystal clear
B. CSF protein of 20 mg/dL
C. IgG index of 0.70 or less
D. WBC count greater than 100/uL
D. WBC count greater than 100/uL
209
In patients with developing subclinical hypothyroidism, TSH levels will likely be ______, and fT4 will likely be ______.
A. Decreased, increased
B. Increased, decreased
C. Decreased, normal
D. Increased, normal
D. Increased, normal
210
Which of the following sets of results most closely indicates an exudate?
A. Clear, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.8, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.7, WBC count of 1000/uL
B. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.4, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.5, WBC count of 800/uL
C. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.8, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.7, WBC count of 2500/uL
D. Clear, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.45, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.40, WBC count of 800/uL
C. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.8, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.7, WBC count of 2500/uL
210
Which of the following pairings of crystals and causes is not correct?
A. Calcium oxalate crystals and antifreeze ingestion
B. Uric acid crystals and patients receivingchemotherapy
C. Cystine crystals and not clinically significant
D. Amorphous phosphate crystals and not clinically significant
C. Cystine crystals and not clinically significant
211
An ammonia-like odor is characteristically associated with urine from patients with:
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Bacterial infection
D. Yeast infection
C. Bacterial infection
212
Which of the following collection methods would yield the most sterile urine sample?
A. Random
B. Catheterization
C. Suprapubic aspiration
D. Clean-catch midstream
C. Suprapubic aspiration
213
The clarity of a urine sample should be determined after:
A. The sample has been centrifuged
B. Thorough mixing of the specimen
C. The addition of 3% sulfosalicylic acid
D. The specimen is heated to body temperature
B. Thorough mixing of the specimen
214
Following a severe crush injury, a patient is transported to the emergency room where a blood sample and a urine sample are collected. The patient's urine sample appears reddish-brown, which may be due to the presence of:
A. Stercobilin
B. Porphyrins
C. Myoglobin
D. Fresh blood
C. Myoglobin
215
AFTER A MEAL, WHAT IS THE URINE PH?
A random urine specimen collected shortly after the patient ate lunch appeared cloudy. Results of the reagent test strip were normal. The most likely cause of the sample's turbidity is the presence of:
A. Bacteria
B. White blood cells
C. Amorphous urates
D. Amorphous phosphates
D. Amorphous phosphates
## Footnote
(alkaline tide -> alkaline urine -> phosphates)
216
AMBULATORY - NOT CONFINED IN BED, ABLE TO WALK
If an ambulatory, adult patient is suspected of having a urinary tract infection, which of the following collection methods would be most appropriate to obtain a urine sample?
A. Random
B. Catheterization
C. Suprapubic aspiration
D. Clean-catch midstream
D. Clean-catch midstream
217
Which of the following collection methods would account for diurnal variation when quantitatively measuring urinary analytes?
A. Random
B. First morning
C. 24-hour timed
D. Two-hour timed
C. 24-hour timed
218
A urine sample collected from a 5-day-old baby has a noticeably sweet odor reminiscent of caramel or burnt sugar. This odor is most commonly associated with:
A. Cystinuria
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Maple syrup urine disease
219
After receiving a timed urine for quantitative analysis, the laboratorian must first:
A. Subculture the urine for bacteria
B. Add the appropriate preservative
C. Screen for albumin using a dipstick
D. Measure and record the total volume
D. Measure and record the total volume
220
Patients that take high doses of vitamin C may have a false-negative result for which of the following urine reagent test strip analytes?
A. pH
B. Ketones
C. Bilirubin
D. Specific gravity
C. Bilirubin
221
Which of the following substances would most likely be found in the urine of a patient with anorexia nervosa?
A. Protein
B. Ketones
C. Glucose
D. Bilirubin
B. Ketones
## Footnote
Anorexia nervosa is a psychiatric disease in which patients restrict their food intake relative to their energy requirements through eating less, exercising more, and/or purging food through laxatives and vomiting.
222
A urine specimen with an elevated urobilinogen concentration but a negative bilirubin result may indicate the patient has:
A. Gallstones
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Liver cirrhosis
C. Hemolytic anemia
223
Which of the following cells is most commonly associated with a non-clean-catch specimen and/or vaginal contamination?
A. White blood cells
B. Renal epithelial cells
C. Squamous epithelial cells
D. Transitional epithelial cells
C. Squamous epithelial cells
224
Which of the following contaminants has a dimpled center and can appear as a Maltese cross under polarized light?
A. Oil droplets
B. Air bubbles
C. Glass shards
D. Starch crystals
D. Starch crystals
225
A green-colored amniotic fluid is received in the laboratory for testing. The color of this specimen indicates the presence of:
A. Blood
B. Bilirubin
C. Meconium
D. Hemoglobin
C. Meconium
226
Which of the following normally accounts for the largest fraction of CSF total proteins?
A. Albumin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Haptoglobin
D. Transthyretin
A. Albumin
227
Normal CSF contains all of the following proteins except:
A. Transferrin
B. Transthyretin
C. Albumin
D. Fibrinogen
D. Fibrinogen
228
CSF TUBE 1
If glucose testing cannot be performed immediately, CSF should be stored:
A. At room temperature
B. In a refrigerator
C. In a freezer
D. In an incubator
C. In a freezer
229
The only biological waste that does not have to be discarded in a container with a biohazard symbol is:
A. Urine.
B. Serum.
C. Feces.
D. Serum tubes.
A. Urine.
230
When combining acid and water:
A. Acid is added to water.
B. Water is added to acid.
C. Water is slowly added to acid.
D. Both solutions are combined simultaneously.
A. Acid is added to water.
231
Which of the following enzymes is used to detect the presence of H. pylori infections?
A. DNase
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Urease
D. Peptidase
C. Urease
232
Antibodies to which of the following viral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection?
A. gp120
B. gp160
C. gp41
D. p24
D. p24
233
The antigenic component of the hepatitis B vaccine differs from those of many of the conventional vaccines in that it consists of a:
A. Live, attenuated virus.
B. Inactivated virus.
C. Cryptic antigen.
D. Recombinant antigen.
D. Recombinant antigen.
234
Factors needed in the computation using COCKROFT - GAULT formula, EXCEPT:
a. Age
b. Plasma Creatinine
c. 24-hour urine volume
d. Body weight
c. 24-hour urine volume
235
Blood flows through the nephron in the following order:
a. Efferent arteriole, peritibular capillaries, vasa recta, afferent arteriole
b. peritibular capillaries, afferent arteriole, vasa recta, efferent arteriole
c. Afferent arteriole, peritibular capillaries, vasa recta, efferent arteriole
d. Efferent arteriole, vasa recta, peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole
c. Afferent arteriole, peritibular capillaries, vasa recta, efferent arteriole
Should be:
Afferent arteriole, Efferent arteriole, peritibular capillaries, vasa recta
236
Which of the tubules is impermeable to water?
a. Proximal convulated tubule
b. Descending loop of Henle
c. Ascending loop of Henle
d. Distal convulated tubule
c. Ascending loop of Henle
237
Glucose will appear in the urine when the:
a. Blood level of glucose is 200 mg/dl
b. Tm for glucose is reached
c. Renal threshold for glucose is exceeded
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
238
Renal tubular acidosis can be caused by the:
a. Production of excessively acidic urine due to increased filtration of hydrogen ions
b. Production of excessively acidic urine due to increased secretion of hydrogen ions
c. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to impaired production of ammonia
d. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to increased production of ammonia
c. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to impaired production of ammonia
239
Clearance tests used to determine the glomerular filtration rate must measure substances that are:
a. Not filtered by the glomerulus
b. Completely reabsorbed by the proximal convulated tubule
c. Secreted in the distal convulated tubule
d. Neither reabsorbed or secreted by the tubules
d. Neither reabsorbed or secreted by the tubules
240
Osmolality is a measure of:
a. Dissolved particles, including ions
b. Undissolved molecules only
c. Total salt concentration
d. Molecule size
a. Dissolved particles, including ions
241
Which of the following urinary parameters are measured during the course of concentration and dilution test to assess renal tubular function?
a. Urea, nitrogen, creatinine
b. Osmolality and SG
c. Sodium and Chloride
d. Sodium and osmolality
b. Osmolality and SG
242
It corrects renal blood flow in the following ways: causing Vasodilation of afferent arterioles and Constriction of the efferent arterioles, stimulating reabsorption of sodium and water in the PCT, and triggering the release of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex and antidiuretic hormone by the hormone by the hypothalamus.
a. Renin
b. Angiotensin I
c. Angiotensin II
d. Aldosterone
c. Angiotensin II
243
An unidentified fluid is received in the laboratory with a request to determine whether the fluid is urine or another body fluid. Using routine laboratory tests, what tests would determine that the fluid is most probably urine?
a. Glucose and ketones
b. Urea and creatinine
c. Uric acid and amino acids
d. Protein and amino acids
b. Urea and creatinine
244
A cloudy specimen received in the laboratory may have been preserved using:
a. Boric acid
b. Chloroform
c. Refrigeration
d. Formalin
c. Refrigeration
245
For general screening the most frequently collected specimen is a:
a. Random one
b. First morning
c. Midstream clean-catch
d. Timed
a. Random one
246
If a patient fails to discard the first specimen when collecting a timed specimen, the:
a. Specimen must be recollected
b. Results will be falsely elevated
c. Results will be falsely decreased
d. Both A and B
d. Both A and B
247
The primary cause of unsatisfactory results in an unpreserved routine specimen not tested for 8 hours is:
a. Bacterial growth
b. Glycolysis
c. Decreased pH
d. Chemical oxidation
a. Bacterial growth
248
Urine specimen collection for drug testing requires the collector to do all of the following except:
a. Inspect the specimen color
b. Perform reagent strip testing
c. Read the specimen temperature
d. Fill out a chain-of-custody form
b. Perform reagent strip testing
249
After receiving a 24-hour urine for quantitative total protein analysis, the technologist must first:
a. Subculture urine for bacteria
b. Add the appropriate preservative
c. Screen for albumin using a dipstick
d. Measure the total volume
d. Measure the total volume
250
A clean-catch urine is submitted to the laboratory for routine urinalysis and culture. The routine urinalysis is done first, and 3 hours later, the specimen is sent to the microbiology department for culture. The specimen should:
a. Be centrifuged, and the supernatant cultured
b. Be rejected due to time delay
c. Not be cultured if no bacteria seen
d. Be processed for culture only if nitrate is positive
b. Be rejected due to time delay
251
Aldosterone is involved in the reabsorption of:
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Bicarbonate
D. Hydrogen ion
B. Sodium
252
Testing specimens that contain high levels of ascorbate may effect the reading of all of these EXCEPT:
A. Bilirubin
B. Glucose
C. Nitrite
D. Urobilinogen
D. Urobilinogen
253
Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:
A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite
B. Ketone and leukocytes
254
Which of the following diseases results in the production and excretion of large amounts of homogentisic acid?
A. Melanuria
B. Tyrosyluria
C. Alkaptonuria
D. Maple syrup urine disease
C. Alkaptonuria
255
Which of the following is the urine specimen of choice for cytology studies?
a. First morning specimen
b. Random specimen
c. Midstream "clean catch" collection
d. Timed collection
b. Random specimen
256
Formed elements in sputum are best studied by which cytological techniques?
a. Gram stain
b. Giemsa stain
c. Wright's stain
d. Pap's stain
d. Pap's stain
257
Fluid:serum protein and lactic dehydrogenase ratios are performed on serous fluids:
a. When malignancy is suspected
b. To classify transudates and exudates
c. To determine the type of serous fluid
d. When a traumatic tap has occurred
b. To classify transudates and exudates
258
The recommended test for determining whether peritoneal fluid is a transudate or an exudate is the:
a. Fluid: serum albumin ratio
b. Serum: ascites albumin gradient
c. Fluid: serum lactic dehydrogenase ratio
d. absolute neutrophil count
b. Serum: ascites albumin gradient
259
Which type of urine sample is needed for a D-xylose absorption test on an adult patient?
a. 24-hour urine sample collected with 20 ml of 6 N HCl
b. 2 hour timed postprandial urine preserved with boric acid
c. 5 hour timed urine kept under refrigeration
d. Random urine preserved with formalin
c. 5 hour timed urine kept under refrigeration
260
iQ 200 preclassifies (autoclassified by the analyzer) the following urine particles except:
a. Nonsquamous epithelial cells
b. Unclassified casts
c. Bacteria
d. Uric acid crystals
d. Uric acid crystals
261
Which of the following urine sediment particles cannot be autovalidated but will be flagged and must be reviewed by laboratory personnel?
a. RBC's
b. WBC's
c. RTEs
d. Squamous epithelial cells
c. RTEs
262
Sensitivity of the Multistix protein reagent pad:
A. 1 to 5 mg/dL albumin
B. 10 to 15 mg/dL albumin
C. 15 to 30 mg/dL albumin
D. 30 to 45 mg/dL albumin
C. 15 to 30 mg/dL albumin
263
Sensitivity of the Multistix bilirubin reagent pad:
A. 0.1 to 0.5 mg/dL
B. 0.4 to 0.8 mg/dL
C. 4 to 8 mg/dL
D. 8 to 16 mg/dL
B. 0.4 to 0.8 mg/dL
264
Albumin reagent strips utilizing the dye ________ has a higher sensitivity and specificity for albumin:
A. DIDNTB
B. TMB
C. DBDH
D. Tetrabromphenol blue
A. DIDNTB
265
Moderate hemolysis and require careful monitoring anticipating an early delivery or exchange transfusion upon delivery:
A. Zone 1 of Liley graph
B. Zone 2 of Liley graph
C. Zone 3 of Liley graph
D. None of these
B. Zone 2 of Liley graph
266
Amniotic fluid bilirubin is measured by:
A. Turbidimetric method
B. Dye-binding method
C. Spectrophotometric analysis
D. Fluorometric analysis
C. Spectrophotometric analysis
267
All are components of CLINITEST, except:
A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose
D. Lactose
268
Which of the following is a component of ACETEST?
A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose
D. Lactose
269
The only tissue in the body that is hypertonic with respect to normal plasma (i.e., its osmolality is greater than 290 mOsm/kg):
A. Glomerulus
B. Convoluted tubules
C. Renal cortex
D. Renal medulla
D. Renal medulla
270
Blood vessel that supply blood to the kidney:
A. Renal artery
B. Renal vein
C. Peritubular capillaries
D. None of these
A. Renal artery
271
The following are all bacterial phenotypic characteristics except:
A. Microscopic morphology and staining characteristics
B. Environmental requirements for growth
C. Nutritional requirements and metabolic capabilities
D. The presence of a particular nucleic acid sequence
D. The presence of a particular nucleic acid sequence
272
Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:
A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite
B. Ketone and leukocytes
273
If an ambulatory, adult patient is suspected of having a urinary tract infection, which of the following collection methods would be most appropriate to obtain a urine sample?
A. Random
B. Catheterization
C. Suprapubic aspiration
D. Clean-catch midstream
D. Clean-catch midstream
274
Refractive index is a comparison of light:
A. Velocity in solutions to light velocity in solids
B. Velocity in air to light velocity in solutions
C. Scattering by air to light scattering by solutions
D. Scattering by particles in solution
B. Velocity in air to light velocity in solutions
275
After receiving a timed urine for quantitative analysis, the laboratorian must first:
A. Subculture the urine for bacteria
B. Add the appropriate preservative
C. Screen for albumin using a dipstick
D. Measure and record the total volume
D. Measure and record the total volume
276
Urine reagent test strips should be stored in a tightly-sealed container in/on the:
A. Freezer (-20°C)
B. Refrigerator (5°C)
C. Benchtop (20°C)
D. Incubator (37°C)
C. Benchtop (20°C)
277
Centrifugation for urine microscopic examination:
A. RCF of 100 for 2 minutes
B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes
C. RCF of 500 for 5 minutes
D. RCF of 500 for 10 minutes
B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes
278
For good fixation it is recommended that the tissue be no larger than:
A. 2 cm square and 1-2 mm thick
B. 2 cm square and 3-4 mm thick
C. 3 cm square and 1-2 mm thick
D. 3 cm square and 3-4 mm thick
B. 2 cm square and 3-4 mm thick
279
Pathologically, these casts are increased in congestive heart failure:
A. Hyaline cast
B. Granular cast
C. Cellular cast
D. Waxy cast
A. Hyaline cast
280
Examination for casts should be performed:
A. After adding glacial acetic acid to the sediment
B. Under high dry power (40x obj.) with bright light
C. After adding Sternheimer-Malbin stain to the supernatant
D. Using subdued lighting and low power (10x obj.) magnification
D. Using subdued lighting and low power (10x obj.) magnification
281
Following ingestion of ethylene glycol (antifreeze), which of the following crystals may be found in the urine?
A. Yellow-brown spherules
B. Colorless, dumbbells/rings
C. Colorless, rosettes/rhomboids
D. Flat plates with notched corners
B. Colorless, dumbbells/rings
282
Which of the following contaminants has a dimpled center and can appear as a Maltese cross under polarized light?
A.Oil droplets
B. Air bubbles
C. Glass shards
D. Starch crystals
D. Starch crystals
283
BE CAREFUL IN ANSWERING
Which of the following must exhibit rapid motility in order to be identified in a urine sediment?
A. Yeast
B. Bacteria
C. Spermatozoa
D. Trichomonas
D. Trichomonas
284
A 21-year-old patient had glucose in their urine and a low fasting blood glucose. These findings are most consistent with:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Renal glycosuria
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Renal glycosuria
285
Which of the following normally accounts for the largest fraction of CSF total proteins?
A. Albumin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Haptoglobin
D. Transthyretin
A. Albumin
286
Normal CSF contains all of the following proteins except:
A. Transferrin
B. Transthyretin
C. Albumin
D. Fibrinogen
D. Fibrinogen
287
Increased presence of fetal fibronection (fFN) in cervicovaginal secretions from a 24-year-old female at 35 weeks' gestation indicates an increased risk for:
A. Preterm delivery
B. Bacterial vaginosis
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
A. Preterm delivery
288
PLS INDICATE CSF TUBE #
If glucose testing cannot be performed immediately, CSF should be stored:
A. At room temperature
B. In a refrigerator
C. In a freezer
D. In an incubator
C. In a freezer
## Footnote
Tube 1
289
The dimensions of a standard Neubauer hemacytometer chamber are:
A. 3.0 mm x 3.0 mm x 0.1 mm
B. 2.0 mmx 2.0 mm x 0.1 mm
C. 1.0 mm x 1.0 mm x 0.1 mm
D. 0.1 mm x 0.1 mm x 0.1 mm
A. 3.0 mm x 3.0 mm x 0.1 mm
290
Synovial fluid is typically collected using a sterile needle and syringe and then transferred to collection tubes for testing. Which of the following anticoagulants would be appropriate to use for the aliquot sent for a manual cell count and crystal evaluation?
A. Liquid EDTA
B. Lithium heparin
C. Sodium fluoride
d. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
A. Liquid EDTA
291
What substance gives feces its normal color?
A. Uroerythrin
B. Urochrome
C. Urobilin
D. Urobilinogen
C. Urobilin
292
Which of the following calculations may be useful in determining if there is a breach in the blood-brain barrier?
A. CSF lgG index
B. Total protein ratio
C. CSF/serum albumin index
D. Lactate dehydrogenase ratio
C. CSF/serum albumin index
293
The presence of macrophages in CSF is associated with a:
A. Viral infection
B. Bacterial infection
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Traumatic lumbar puncture
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
## Footnote
NEGATIVE FOR ERYTHROPHAGES IN TRAUMATIC TAP
294
When using preservatives, what is the appropriate ratio of fixative to stool?
A. One part fixative to one part stool
B. Two parts fixative to one part stool
C. Three parts fixative to one part stool
D. Four parts fixative to one part stool
C. Three parts fixative to one part stool
295
The reduviid bug is the vector for transmitting which of the following parasites?
A. Leishmania donovani
B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
E. Leishmania tropica
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
296
The infective stage of the Plasmodium parasite and the Babesia parasite for humans is the:
A. Merozoite
B. Trophozoite
C. Gametocyte
D. Sporozoite
D. Sporozoite
297
Ziemann’s dots, band form trophozoites, and 72-hour periodicity of paroxysms is indicative of infection with which Plasmodium species?
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium malariae
298
These two nematodes are similar in that they are both suspected of being transport hosts of Dientamoeba fragilis.
A. Trichinella and Dracunculus
B. Necator and Trichuris
C. Strongyloides and Ancylostoma
D. Ascaris and Enterobius
D. Ascaris and Enterobius
299
Which of these parasites are contracted via skin penetration?
A. Enterobius, Necator, Dracunculus
B. Ascaris, Trichinella, Ancylostoma
C. Trichuris, Strongyloides, Enterobius
D. Ancylostoma, Strongyloides, Necator
D. Ancylostoma, Strongyloides, Necator
300
All of the following microfilariae lack a sheath except:
A. Mansonella ozzardi
B. Mansonella perstans
C. Onchocera volvulus
D. Brugia malayi
D. Brugia malayi
301
Which of the following filarial nematodes is transmitted by the Chrysops fly?
A. Onchocerca volvulus
B. Mansonella ozzardi
C. Loa loa
D. Brugia malayi
C. Loa loa
302
Which of the following filarial nematode infections is diagnosed by using skin snips rather than a peripheral blood smear?
A. Onchocerca volvulus
B. Loa loa
C. Mansonella perstans
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
A. Onchocerca volvulus
303
Consumption of the infective larval stage encysted on aquatic plants that have not been cooked results in infection with:
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Heterophyes heterophyes
D. Paragonimus westermani
B. Fasciola hepatica
304
The infective form of Schistosoma mansoni is which of the following?
A. Cercaria swimming in water
B. Metacercaria on or in fish
C. Metacercaria encysted on waterchestnuts or vegetables
D. Cercaria on water chestnuts, bambooshoots, or vegetables
A. Cercaria swimming in water
305
Pinworm disease may be diagnosed by which procedure?
A. Direct fecal smear
B. Cellophane tape test
C. Fecal concentration methods
D. Egg-count technique
B. Cellophane tape test
306
The definitive host for Plasmodium vivax is a:
A. Flea
B. Human
C. Mosquito
D. Fish
C. Mosquito
307
Xenodiagnosis is used for which parasite?
A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Loa loa
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
308
Each of the following microfilaria has a sheath EXCEPT:
A. Brugia malayi
B. Loa loa
C. Mansonella ozzardi
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
C. Mansonella ozzardi
309
Visceral larval migrans is caused by:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Ancylostoma braziliense
C. Dirofilaria spp.
D. Toxocara canis
D. Toxocara canis
310
In the urinalysis laboratory the primary source in the chain of infection would be:
A. Patients
B. Needlesticks
C. Specimens
D. Biohazardous waste
C. Specimens
311
All of the following should be discarded in biohazardous waste containers except:
A. Urine specimen containers
B. Towels used for decontamination
C. Disposable lab coats
D. Blood collection tubes
A. Urine specimen containers
312
Centrifuging an uncapped specimen may produce a biologic hazard in the form of:
A. Vectors
B. Sharps contamination
C. Aerosols
D. Specimen contamination
C. Aerosols
313
An employee who accidentally spills acid on his arm should immediately:
A. Neutralize the acid with a base
B. Hold the arm under running water for 15 minutes
C. Consult the MSDSs
D. Wrap the arm in gauze and go to the emergency department
B. Hold the arm under running water for 15 minutes
314
Employees should not work with radioisotopes if they are:
A. Wearing contact lenses
B. Allergic to iodine
C. Sensitive to latex
D. Pregnant
D. Pregnant
315
The NPFA classification symbol contains information on all of the following except:
A. Fire hazards
B. Biohazards
C. Reactivity
D. Health hazards
B. Biohazards
316
The primary inorganic substance found in urine is:
A. Sodium
B. Phosphate
C. Chloride
D. Calcium
C. Chloride
317
Which of the following would be least affected in a specimen that has remained unpreserved at room temperature for more than 2 hours?
A. Urobilinogen
B. Ketones
C. Protein
D. Nitrite
C. Protein
318
The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is:
A. Secretion of creatinine
B. Improperly timed urine specimens
C. Refrigeration of the urine
D. Time of collecting blood sample
B. Improperly timed urine specimens
319
Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is:
A. Hyposthenuric
B. Hypersthenuric
C. Highly acidic
D. Highly alkaline
B. Hypersthenuric
320
Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets maybe accomplished by all of the following except:
A. Observation of budding in yeast cells
B. Increased refractility of oil droplets
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
321
All of the following contribute to urinary crystals formation except:
A. Protein concentration
B. pH
C. Solute concentration
D. Temperature
A. Protein concentration
322
Which type of analytical error can be prevented by a good quality control program?
A. Instrument not properly calibrated
B. Presence of interfering substances in sample
C. Presence of bubbles in the light path of a photometric method
D. Analyte concentration so high it depletes the active reagent
A. Instrument not properly calibrated
