SMART

Question 1

Double embedding:
Infiltrated with ________ then embedded with ______.

Answer 1

Celloidin; Paraffin

Question 2

Flotation waterbath temp:

Answer 2

45 to 50 C

Question 3

To remove formalin pigments:

Answer 3

Picric acid

Question 4

To remove mercurial deposits:

Answer 4

Iodine

Question 5

Explosive when dry:

Answer 5

Picric acid

Question 6

Function of alum in hematoxylin:

Answer 6

Mordant

Question 7

Primary importance of Frozen Sections:

Answer 7

RAPID DIAGNOSIS

Question 8

Enzyme histochemistry:

Answer 8

Frozen section

Question 9

Second best choice for routine cytologic examination after Papanicolau:

Answer 9

Phase contrast microscopy

Question 10

NOT SUITABLE fixative for kidney structures:

Answer 10

Bouin’s

Question 11

Cell death due to ischemia (loss of blood supply) is known as infarction, and is manifested by characteristic histologic appearance:

Answer 11

COAGULATION NECROSIS

Question 12

bacteria responsible of Pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea:

Answer 12

Clostridium difficile

Question 13

Most frequently recovered Corynebacterium species from human clinical material. It is part of the normal skin microbiota:

Answer 13

Corynebacterium amycolatum

Question 14

Primary fungal pathogen in HIV patients:

Answer 14

Candida albicans

Question 15

parasite with double-walled, wrinkled cyst form:

Answer 15

Acanthamoeba castellanii

Question 16

Intracellular form of blood and tissue flagellates:

Answer 16

Leishmanial form

Question 17

Normal stool pH:

Answer 17

pH 7 to 8

Question 18

Stool pH associated with CHO disorders:

Answer 18

pH 5.5 or less

Question 19

Microhematocrit centrifugate for:

Answer 19

10,000 g for 5 minutes

Question 20

Standing plasma test determine:

Answer 20

creamy layer (chylomicrons); turbid (VLDL)

Question 21

Microanatomical fixatives should never contain ________ because it inhibits hematoxylin.

Answer 21

osmic acid/osmium tetroxide

Question 22

Nuclear fixatives should contain ________ due to its affinity for nuclear chromatin.

Answer 22

glacial acetic acid

Question 23

These fixatives should never contain Glacial Acetic Acid because it destroys the mitochondria and Golgi bodies:

Answer 23

Cytoplasmic fixatives (Flemming’s without HAc, Regaud’s, Orth’s, Helly’s and formalin with post-chroming)

Question 24

Manual paraffin wax infiltration and embedding:

Answer 24

At least four (4) changes of wax are required at 15 minutes interval to ensure complete removal of the clearing agent from tissue. The specimen is then immersed in another fresh solution of melted paraffin for approximately 3 hours to ensure complete embedding or casting of tissue.

Question 25

microtome invented by Paldwell Treffall:

Answer 25

Cambridge/Rocking microtome

Question 26

Bond between Best carmine and glycogen:

Answer 26

Coulombic attraction/electrostatic bonds, hydrogen bonds

Question 27

Routine H and E:

Answer 27

Regressive staining, it involves a differentiation step

Question 28

Stains for the glomerular basement membrane:

Answer 28

PAS, Azocarmine stain

Question 29

Postmortem clotting:

Answer 29

immediately after death, rubbery consistency

Question 30

Antemortem thrombi:

Answer 30

friable, characterized by fibrin precipitation

Question 31

Leadership:

Answer 31

DIRECTING

Question 32

COMPONENTS OF FIBRIN GLUE:

Answer 32

cryoprecipitate (fibrinogen) and topical thrombin

Question 33

Donor deferral, measles (rubeola) vaccination:

Answer 33

2 weeks

Question 34

Donor deferral, German measles (Rubella) vaccination:

Answer 34

4 weeks

Question 35

When stained with Sternheimer-Malbin stain:
GLITTER CELLS stain ________ as opposed to the VIOLET COLOR usually seen with NEUTROPHILS.

Answer 35

Glitter cell stain LIGHT BLUE

Question 36

After episodes of hemoglobinuria, yellow-brown granules may be seen in renal tubular epithelial cells and casts or free-floating in the urine sediment.

To confirm that these granules are hemosiderin, the ________ is used and stains the hemosiderin granules a ________. (RTE cells with HEMOSIDERIN).

Answer 36

Prussian blue stain for iron; blue color

Question 37

Second most prevalent protein in CSF:

Answer 37

Prealbumin (transthyretin)

Question 38

is usually defined as a newborn’s first bowel movement.
which is formed in the intestine from fetal intestinal secretions and swallowed amniotic fluid.
It is a dark green, mucus-like material. It may be present in the amniotic fluid as a result of fetal distress.

Answer 38

MECONIUM

Question 39

Blood should NEVER be drawn from a vein in an arm with a ____ (temporary dialysis access device) or ____ (a permanent surgical fusion of a vein and an artery).

Answer 39

cannula (temporary dialysis access device);
fistula (a permanent surgical fusion of a vein and an artery)

Question 40

Adverse reaction of Aminoglycosides:

Answer 40

Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

Question 41

neuromotor irritability accompanied by muscular twitching and eventual convulsions; generally due to low calcium levels (hypocalcemia):

Answer 41

TETANY

Question 42

Reagent for the APT test:

Answer 42

1% NaOH

Question 43

APT test: fetal blood

Answer 43

pink solution

Question 44

APT test: maternal blood

Answer 44

yellow-brown supernatant

Question 45

test for choline:
(Iodine, KI/ dark brown rhombic crystals)

Answer 45

Florence test

Question 46

test for spermine:
(Picric acid, TCA/ yellow leafshaped crystals, needles)

Answer 46

Barbiero’s test

Question 47

test to differentiate hemoglobin from myoglobin, ammonium sulfate will precipitate hemoglobin:

Answer 47

Blondheim’s test

Question 48

Nanometer is also ____ micron

Answer 48

millimicron

Question 49

Embedding medium for EM is

Answer 49

Plastic

Question 50

Best vital stain is

Answer 50

neutral red

Question 51

Vital stain for mitochondria is

Answer 51

Janus Green

Question 52

Ferning:

Answer 52

Early pregnancy

Question 53

Pap’s consists of 3 stains:

Answer 53

Harris hematoxylin,
OG 6
and EA

Question 54

Total renal BLOOD flow is

Answer 54

1200 mL/min

Question 55

Total renal PLASMA flow is

Answer 55

600 to 700 mL/min

Question 56

Most potent estrogen is

Answer 56

Estradiol

Question 57

Most important androgen in terms of potency and amount secreted is
(Marshall)

Answer 57

testosterone

Question 58

Conn syndrome:

Answer 58

primary aldosteronism

Question 59

male-pattern hair growth in women; most common cause is PCOS (polycystic ovary syndrome, Marshall)

Answer 59

Hirsutism

Question 60

Primary male hypogonadism:
____ testosterone
____ LH and FSH

Answer 60

Decreased testosterone;
Increased LH and FSH

Question 61

Secondary male hypogonadism:
____ testosterone
____ LH and FSH

Answer 61

Decreased testosterone;
Decreased LH and FSH

Question 62

early morning before the patient has eaten or become physically active. This is a good time to draw blood specimens because the is at rest and food has not been ingested during the night.

Answer 62

BASAL STATE

Question 63

substance than can yield a hydrogen ion or hydronium ion when dissolved in water

Answer 63

ACID

Question 64

substance than can yield hydroxyl ions (OH-)

Answer 64

BASE

Question 65

properties of osmotic pressure, freezing point, boiling point and vapor pressure

Answer 65

COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES

Question 66

t-test:

Answer 66

compare Accuracy, Mean

TAM
T - t test
A - Accuracy
M - Mean

Question 67

f-test:

Answer 67

compare precision, SD

SPF
S -SD
P - Precision
F - f test

Question 68

type of error:
1:2SD, 1:3SD, R:4S (ODD NUMBERS)

Answer 68

Random error

Question 69

type of error:
2:2SD, 4:1SD, 10:x (EVEN NUMBERS)

Answer 69

Systematic error

Question 70

Order kinetics:
reaction rate is dependent on enzyme concentration only

Answer 70

ZERO-ORDER KINETICS

Question 71

Order kinetics:
reaction rate is directly proportional to substrate concentration

Answer 71

FIRST-ORDER KINETICS

Question 72

thickening or hardening of the walls of arteries:

Answer 72

Arteriosclerosis

Question 73

accumulation of lipid in the veins and arteries:

Answer 73

Atherosclerosis

Question 74

elevated urea in blood (Turgeon: urea and creatinine):

Answer 74

Azotemia

Question 75

deficiency of adrenocortical hormones:

Answer 75

Addison’s disease

Question 76

aldosterone-secreting adrenal adenoma:

Answer 76

Conn’s syndrome

Question 77

excessive production of glucocorticoids (cortisol):

Answer 77

Cushing’s syndrome

Question 78

tumors of the adrenal medulla or sympathetic ganglia that produce and release large quantities of catecholamines:

Answer 78

Phaeochromocytoma

Question 79

cessation of menstruation

Answer 79

Amenorrhea

Question 80

Greek work YELLOW; irreversible scarring process by which normal liver architecture is transformed into abnormal nodular architecture:

Answer 80

Cirrhosis

Question 81

hereditary disorder in which there is DECREASED BILIRUBIN TRANSPORT into the hepatocytes:

Answer 81

Gilbert’s syndrome

Question 82

hereditary DEFICIENCY of the UDPG-TRANSFERASE ENZYME:

Answer 82

Crigler-Najjar syndrome

Question 83

associated with increased plasma conjugated bilirubin, inborn error of metabolism:

Answer 83

Dubin-Johnson syndrome

Question 84

possibly of viral origin, where there is also a block in the excretion of conjugated bilirubin but without liver pigmentation:

Answer 84

Rotor syndrome

Question 85

is a defect of copper transport from the liver resulting in overload of copper in liver and brain:

Answer 85

Wilson’s disease

Question 86

is an X-linked recessive disorder in which defective transport of copper from mucosal cells results in copper deficiency:

Answer 86

Menkes disease

Question 87

chronic autoimmune thyroiditis; it is the most common cause of primary hypothyroidism:

Answer 87

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Question 88

diffuse toxic goiter

Answer 88

Graves’ disease

Question 89

chronic protein deficiency under conditions of adequate non–protein calorie intake, which leads to marked hypoalbuminemia; may result from the net loss of albumin from both the intravascular and extravascular pools

Answer 89

Kwashiorkor

Question 90

a deficiency of calories with adequate protein status. In this condition; the serum albumin level remains normal despite considerable loss of body weight

Answer 90

Marasmus

Question 91

cells of the testicles that produce testosterone

Answer 91

Leydig cells

Question 92

Kidds =
Duffy =

Answer 92

Kidds = anti-Jka, -Jkb
Duffy = anti-Fya, -Fyb

“Kid(d)s and Duffy the Monkey (Rh) eat Lots of M&Ns”
Kidds = anti-Jka, -Jkb
Duffy = anti-Fya, -Fyb
Monkey = Rh antibodies
M&Ns = anti-M, -N, -S, -s
Lots = dosage

Question 93

cell membrane marker of stem cells:

Answer 93

CD34

Question 94

GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing hemoglobin degradation products such as methemoglobin:

Answer 94

ACUTE TUBULAR NECROSIS

Question 95

Providing an antibody with its corresponding antigen under optimal conditions so that the antibody will attach to the antigen, thereby removing the antibody from the serum:

Answer 95

ADSORPTION

Question 96

process whereby cells that are coated with antibody are treated in such a manner as to disrupt the bonds between the antigen and antibody:

Answer 96

ELUTION

Question 97

simplest type of mutation
Only one nucleotide in the DNA sequence is changed
Includes substitutions, insertions, and deletions:

Answer 97

POINT MUTATION

Question 98

gene that does not appear to produce a detectable antigen; a silent gene:

Answer 98

AMORPH

Question 99

connection between two blood vessels, either direct or through connecting channels:

Answer 99

ANASTOMOSIS

Question 100

ANTI-A1 LECTIN:

Answer 100

DOLICHOS BIFLORUS

Question 101

ANTI-B LECTIN:

Answer 101

BANDEIRAEA SIMPLICIFOLIA

Question 102

ANTI-H LECTIN:

Answer 102

ULEX EUROPAEUS

Question 103

ANTI-M LECTIN:

Answer 103

IBERIS AMARA

Question 104

ANTI-N LECTIN:

Answer 104

VICIA GRAMINEA

Question 105

phenomenon whereby an antibody reacts more strongly with a red blood cell carrying a double dose (homozygous inheritance of the appropriate gene) than with a red blood cell carrying a single dose (heterozygous inheritance) of an antigen:

Answer 105

DOSAGE

Question 106

portion of the antigen molecule that is directly involved in the interaction with the antibody; the ANTIGENIC DETERMINANT:

Answer 106

EPITOPE

Question 107

antigenic characteristic of the red blood cell membrane that is unique to an individual or a related family of individuals and therefore is not commonly found on all cells (usually less than 1% of the population):

Answer 107

PRIVATE ANTIGEN

Question 108

antigen characteristic of the red blood cell membrane found commonly among individuals, usually more than 98% of the population:

Answer 108

PUBLIC ANTIGEN

Question 109

programmed cell death:

Answer 109

Apoptosis

Question 110

small hemorrhagic spot, LARGER THAN PETECHIA, in the skin or mucous membrane, forming a rounded or irregular blue or purplish patch; also known as bruise:

Answer 110

Ecchymosis

Question 111

fingernails are thin, flattened and concave; associated with iron deficiency anemia:

Answer 111

Koilonychia

Question 112

thin, flat red cell with hemoglobin at periphery and increased central pallor; hypochromic cell:

Answer 112

Leptocyte

Question 113

this presence is definitive histologic diagnosis of HODGKIN’S DISEASE

Answer 113

Reed-Sternberg cell

Question 114

leukocytes of the myelocytic series, and sometimes all leukocytes contain coarse azurophilic mucopolysaccharide granules:

Answer 114

Alder-Reilly anomaly

Question 115

needle-shaped or round inclusion in the cytoplasm of myeloblasts and promyelocytes; composed of condensed primary granules:

Answer 115

Auer rod

Question 116

congenital, autosomal recessive disorder, characterized by partial albinism, photophobia and the presence of abnormally large blue granules in leukocytes:

Answer 116

Chediak-Higashi anomaly

Question 117

autosomal dominant inherited blood cell disorder characterized by thrombocytopenia and granules containing cytoplasmic inclusions similar to Dohle bodies:

Answer 117

May-Hegglin anomaly

Question 118

cutaneous T CELL LYMPHOMA characterized by exfoliative erythroderma, peripheral lymphadenopathy and Sezary cells present in the skin, lymph nodes and peripheral blood:

Answer 118

Sezary syndrome

Question 119

rare disorder of fat metabolism caused by deficiency of glucocerebrosidase:

Answer 119

Gaucher’s disease

Question 120

mutations to platelet GP IB or GP IX, defect of platelet adhesion

Answer 120

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

Question 121

mutations to platelet GP IIb or IIIa; defect of fibrinogen-dependent platelet aggregation

Answer 121

Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

Question 122

protein produced by the neutrophils and stored in the secondary granules that is able bind iron:

Answer 122

Lactoferrin

Question 123

basic pipet:

Answer 123

GLASS PIPET

Question 124

blood samples for glucose testing and for other assays are used frequently in many health care facilities for bedside testing, or point-of-care testing (POCT):

Answer 124

CAPILLARY BLOOD SAMPLES

Question 125

hormone produced by the hypothalamus to regulate water reabsorption in the COLLECTING DUCT:

Answer 125

ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE

Question 126

regulates flow of blood to and within the kidneys by responding to changes in blood pressure and plasma sodium content:

Answer 126

RENIN-ANGIOTENSIN-ALDOSTERONE SYSTEM

Question 127

BLACK, TARRY STOOL associated with gastrointestinal hemorrhage:

Answer 127

MELENA

Question 128

stool associated with pancreatic disorder, bile-duct obstruction:

Answer 128

BULKY/FROTHY STOOL

Question 129

stool associated with intestinal constriction:

Answer 129

RIBBON-LIKE STOOL

Question 130

stool associated with upper GI bleeding, iron therapy, charcoal, BISMUTH (antacids):

Answer 130

BLACK STOOL

Question 131

absence of sperm in a semen sample:

Answer 131

AZOOSPERMIA

Question 132

low sperm count:

Answer 132

OLIGOSPERMIA

Question 133

immature spermatozoa:

Answer 133

SPERMATIDS

Question 134

Part of the germinal epithelium of the seminiferous tubules, give rise to spermatozoa:

Answer 134

SERTOLI CELLS

Question 135

cells of the testicles that produce testosterone:

Answer 135

LEYDIG CELLS

Question 136

tip of a spermatozoa head, which contains enzymes for entry into an ovum:

Answer 136

ACROSOMAL CAP

Question 137

color-change phenomenon occurring because PROTEINS ACT AS HYDROGEN ION ACCEPTORS AT A CONSTANT PH:

Answer 137

PROTEIN ERROR OF INDICATORS

Question 138

abrupt change in the mean of a series of results:

Answer 138

SHIFT

Question 139

gradual change in one direction of the mean of a control substance:

Answer 139

TREND

Question 140

step-by-step documentation of the handling and testing of legal specimens:

Answer 140

CHAIN OF CUSTODY

Question 141

continuous link in the transmission of harmful microorganisms between a source and a susceptible host:

Answer 141

CHAIN OF INFECTION

Question 142

institutional policy to provide customer satisfaction:

Answer 142

TOTAL QUALITY MANAGEMENT (TQM)

Question 143

institutional program that focuses on customer satisfaction and expectations:

Answer 143

CONTINUOUS QUALITY IMPROVEMENT (CQI)

Question 144

light scattered at an angle of less than 90 degrees, which indicates the SIZE OF A CELL:

Answer 144

FORWARD angle light scatter

Question 145

light scattered at 90 degrees in a flow cytometer that indicates the GRANULARITY OF A CELL:

Answer 145

SIDE ANGLE, right angle light scatter

Question 146

test that measures TOTAL IgE:

Answer 146

RADIOIMMUNOSORBENT TEST (RIST)

Question 147

test that measures ANTIGEN-SPECIFIC IgE:

Answer 147

RADIOALLERGOSORBENT TEST (RAST)

Question 148

RNA viral cause of German or 3-day measles:

Answer 148

RUBELLA

Question 149

single-stranded RNA virus that cause measles:

Answer 149

RUBEOLA

Question 150

amoeboid movement of cells such as monocytes and polymorphonuclear neutrophils to a site of inflammation in phagocytosis:

Answer 150

DIAPEDESIS

Question 151

congenital defect of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches that affects thymic development, leading to a T-cell deficiency. Patients are subject to recurring viral and fungal infections:

Answer 151

DiGeorge anomaly

Question 152

dysproteinemia synonymous with gamma heavy-chain disease. This abnormality is characterized by the presence of monoclonal protein composed of the heavy-chain portion of the immunoglobulin molecule:

Answer 152

Franklin’s disease

Question 153

An alternate term for multiple myeloma:

Answer 153

Kahler’s disease

Question 154

molecule when coupled to a hapten, makes the hapten capable of stimulating an immune response:

Answer 154

CARRIER

Question 155

simple chemical group that can bind to antibody once it is formed but that CANNOT stimulate antibody formation unless tied to a larger carrier molecule:

Answer 155

HAPTEN

Question 156

single antigenic determinant. It is functionally the portion of an antigen that combines with an antibody paratope:

Answer 156

EPITOPE

Question 157

part of the antibody molecule that makes contact with the antigenic determinant:

Answer 157

PARATOPE

Question 158

frequency of positive results obtained in testing a population of individuals who are positive for antibody:

Answer 158

SENSITIVITY

Question 159

proportion of negative test results obtained in the population of individuals who actually lack the antibody in question:

Answer 159

SPECIFICITY

Question 160

antigens that are expressed in the developing fetus and in rapidly dividing tissue, such as that associated with tumors, but that are absent in normal adult tissue:

Answer 160

ONCOFETAL ANTIGENS

Question 161

malignant tumor of EPITHELIAL TISSUE origin:

Answer 161

CARCINOMA

Question 162

malignant tumor of CONNECTIVE TISSUE origin:

Answer 162

SARCOMA

Question 163

PRC was attached to the ____ pursuant to Executive Order No. 565.
Executive Order No. 565-A was issued, delegating the Presidential power of control over the PRC to the DOLE Secretary.

Answer 163

Department of Labor and Employment

Question 164

DRIVING FORCE of the bicarbonate buffer system is

Answer 164

CARBON DIOXIDE

Question 165

time from ordering a test through analysis in the laboratory to the charting of the report:

Answer 165

TURNAROUND TIME (TAT)

Question 166

Hazardous chemicals should be labeled with a description of their particular hazard, such as:

Answer 166

POISONOUS, CORROSIVE OR CARCINOGENIC

Question 167

Information contained in the Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) includes the following:

Answer 167

physical and chemical characteristics, fire and explosion potential, reactivity potential, health hazards and methods for safe handling

Question 168

Urinometer is placed with a ____ MOTION. The scale reading is then taken at the ____ OF THE URINE MENISCUS.

Answer 168

SPINNING MOTION;
BOTTOM OF THE URINE MENISCUS

Question 169

Studies have shown that although everyone who eats ____ produces a urine odor, ONLY certain genetically predisposed people can smell the odor.

Answer 169

ASPARAGUS

Question 170

CABBAGE urine odor:

Answer 170

METHIONINE MALABSORPTION

Question 171

The ____ portion of MYOGLOBIN IS TOXIC TO RENAL TUBULES and high concentrations can cause ____

Answer 171

heme portion; acute renal failure

Question 172

CASTS have tendency to locate ____ OF THE COVERSLIP.

Answer 172

NEAR THE EDGES

Question 173

ETHYLENE GLYCOL (anti-freeze) poisoning:

Answer 173

MONOHYDRATE CAOX

Question 174

coffin-lid or FEATHERY APPEARANCE (as they disintegrate):

Answer 174

TRIPLE PHOSPHATE

Question 175

provides a method for counting UNDILUTED seminal fluid. Sperms are immobilized by heating part of the specimen prior to charging the chamber:

Answer 175

MAKLER COUNTING CHAMBER

Question 176

provides OBJECTIVE determination of both SPERM VELOCITY and TRAJECTORY (DIRECTION OF MOTION):

Answer 176

COMPUTER-ASSISTED SEMEN ANALYSIS (CASA)

Question 177

A maximum of ____ AMNIOTIC FLUID is collected in sterile syringes. The first 2 to 3 mL collected can be contaminated by maternal blood, tissue fluid and cells and are discarded:

Answer 177

30 mL amniotic fluid

Question 178

diarrhea with increased RETENTION of water and solutes in the large intestine associated with MALABSORPTION AND MALDIGESTION:

Answer 178

OSMOTIC DIARRHEA

Question 179

diarrhea with increased SECRETION of water and electrolytes into the large intestine caused by BACTERIAL ENTEROTOXINS:

Answer 179

SECRETORY DIARRHEA

Question 180

Plasmapheresis donor, total protein at least:

Answer 180

6 g/dL

Question 181

Packed red blood cells LEAK ____ into the plasma or additive solution of the blood component during storage. Rapid infusion of a large volume of packed red blood cells may put patient populations such as neonates and patients with cardiac, hepatic, or renal dysfunction at risk of developing hyperkalemia. The transient hyperkalemia related to massive transfusion appear to be related to the patient’s acid base balance, ionized calcium levels, and rate of infusion of the packed red blood cells

Answer 181

POTASSIUM

Question 182

Significant Antibody titer in HDN:
HARMENING
4th edition: significant is
5th edition: significant is
6th edition: critical titer is

Answer 182

4th edition: significant is 32
5th edition: significant is 16 to 32
6th edition: critical titer is 16

Question 183

In pancreatic adenocarcinoma, 96% of tumors with CA 19-9 levels >1,000 U/mL are considered ____ (cannot be removed completely through surgery)

Answer 183

UNRESECTABLE (cannot be removed completely through surgery)

Question 184

individual facility COMPARE ITS RESULTS WITH THOSE OF ITS PEERS:

Answer 184

BENCHMARKING

Question 185

average value:

Answer 185

MEAN

Question 186

most frequently occurring value:

Answer 186

MODE

Question 187

middle value within range:

Answer 187

MEDIAN

Question 188

_____ systematic error - y-intercept:

Answer 188

CONSTANT

Question 189

______ systematic error - SLOPE:

Answer 189

PROPORTIONAL

Question 190

Fungi (dermatophyte) produces macroconidia that are large, multicellular, and club-shaped with smooth walls:

Answer 190

EPIDERMOPHYTON FLOCCOSUM

Question 191

Reporting Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction:

Answer 191

either Stimulation Index (SI) or percent relative response (%RR)

Question 192

are nodules found in the hearts of individuals with RHEUMATIC FEVER:

Answer 192

ASCHOFF BODIES

Question 193

a metallic element must NOT GO through drain disposal:

Answer 193

MERCURY

Question 194

can be recycled by distillation or by drain disposal, can be detoxified by commercial product, or can be disposed of by licensed waste hauler:

Answer 194

FORMALDEHYDE WASTES

Question 195

represent the second X chromosome in females and may be seen in 2 to 3% of neutrophils in FEMALES. The number of Barr bodies in a cell is one less than the number of X chromosomes present in a cell:

Answer 195

BARR (sex chromatin) BODY or DRUMSTICK

Question 196

rough endoplasmic reticulum containing RNA and may represent localized failure of the cytoplasm to mature. They are found in infections, poisoning, burns and following chemotherapy:

Answer 196

DOHLE BODIES

Question 197

granulocytes usually contain several very large, reddish-purple or greenish-gray staining granules in the cytoplasm; in the monocytes and lymphocytes they stain bluish purple and may be present singly, or there may be several in one cell. These granules represent ABNORMAL LYSOSOMES:

Answer 197

CHEDIAK-HIGASHI

Question 198

Sickling of the RBCs is maximal at ___ and _____ as the temperature lowers.

Answer 198

37C; decreases

Question 199

Platelets on top of the red cell should not be confused with RBC inclusion body. There is generally a ______ surrounding the platelet when it is positioned on top of the RBC.

Answer 199

non-staining halo

Question 200

ESR: invalid results

Answer 200

bubbles and fibrin clots

Question 201

measure HUMIDITY:

Answer 201

HYGROMETERS

Question 202

ALCOHOL FIXATIVE CONCENTRATIONS; _____ because less concentrated solutions will produce lysis of cells.

Answer 202

70% to 100%

Question 203

Ethanol and methanol, including Carnoy’s solution are commonly used fixatives for _____.

Answer 203

nucleic acids

Question 204

physical agent similar in mechanism to vacuum oven (heat) and agitation to increase movement of molecules and accelerate fixation. It is also used to accelerate staining, decalcification, immunohistochemistry and electron microscopy

Answer 204

MICROWAVE

Question 205

LAST ALCOHOL BATH FOR DEHYDRATION SHOULD BE _____. A blue discoloration of _____ crystals will indicate FULL SATURATION WITH WATER. Alcohol is then discarded and changed with fresh solution.

Answer 205

PURE ETHANOL; COPPER SULFATE

Question 206

Skeletal muscle contains bundles of very long, multinucleated cells with cross-striations. Their contraction is quick, forceful, and usually under voluntary control:

Answer 206

STRIATED, VOLUNTARY

Question 206

Cardiac muscle also has cross-striations and is composed of elongated, often branched cells bound to one another at structures called intercalated discs that are unique to cardiac muscle. Contraction is involuntary, vigorous, and rhythmic:

Answer 206

STRIATED, INVOLUNTARY

Question 206

Smooth muscle consists of collections of fusiform cells that lack striations and have slow, involuntary contractions:

Answer 206

NONSTRIATED, INVOLUNTARY

Question 207

cell death produced by the Tubercle Bacillus. In gross state, the necrotic tissue has the appearance of soft, friable CHEESE:

Answer 207

CASEOUS NECROSIS

Question 208

Three (3) major changes that are observed in the NUCLEUS: _____, _______ (segmentation and fragmentation) and _____ (dissolution of the nucleus).

Answer 208

PYKNOSIS,
KARYORRHEXIS (segmentation and fragmentation),
KARYOLYSIS (dissolution of the nucleus)

Question 209

Four (4) phases or stages of CELL DEGENERATION:

Answer 209

CLOUDY SWELLING,
FATTY DEGENERATION,
CELL DEATH OR NECROSIS
and CALCIFICATION.

Question 210

BM aspiration is performed by a physician and may be obtained by:
____ biopsy: most frequently performed method
____ biopsy
____ (entering through the skin) ____ (small object used to remove circular section of tissue) biopsy (core of bone with accompanying marrow is obtained)

Answer 210

Needle biopsy;
Surgical biopsy;
Percutaneous TREPHINE biopsy

Question 211

Antibody enhanced by ACIDIFYING THE PATIENT SERUM:

Answer 211

anti-M

Question 212

Most common cause of transfusion reactions:

Answer 212

CLERICAL ERRORS

Question 213

Donor unit SEAL HAS BEEN BROKEN:

Answer 213

DISCARD THE UNIT

Question 214

Noticeable clots in RBC unit: DO NOT ISSUE THE UNIT, indication of

Answer 214

contamination or bacterial growth

Question 215

FIRST STEP in laboratory investigation of transfusion reaction:

Answer 215

CHECK FOR CLERICAL ERRORS

Question 216

SAGM, ADSOL shelf life:

Answer 216

42 days

Question 217

________ or red blood cells may be performed up to 3 days after the red cell expire

Answer 217

REJUVENATION

Question 218

Preparation of leukopoor RBCs:

Answer 218

filtering, centrifugation and washing

Question 219

longest expiration date: RBCs

Answer 219

FROZEN RBCs

Question 220

Component of choice for vWD:

Answer 220

CRYOPRECIPITATE

Question 221

Transfusion of BUFFY COAT IS BEST INDICATED for:

Answer 221

NEWBORNS with severe infections

Question 222

Test performed on blood that will be transfused to an acidotic or hypoxic infant:

Answer 222

HEMOGLOBIN S

Question 223

CD marker responsible for E-rosette formation between T cells and sheep RBCs:

Answer 223

CD2

Question 224

Joining (J) chain:

Answer 224

IgM and secretory IgA

Question 225

Ig that helps initiate the classical complement pathway:

Answer 225

IgM and IgG

Question 226

Primary immune response:

Answer 226

IgM

Question 227

Highest titer in secondary response:

Answer 227

IgG

Question 228

Immunoglobulin crosslinks mast cells to release histamine:

Answer 228

IgE

Question 229

Substance detected by RPR and VDRL test:

Answer 229

REAGIN

Question 230

Test for HIV infection in infants who are born to HIV-positive mothers:

Answer 230

PCR

Question 231

Best indicator of early acute HBV infection:

Answer 231

HBsAg

Question 232

First antibody detected in serum after infection with HBV:

Answer 232

anti-HBc

Question 233

Blood products are tested for which virus before being transfused to newborns:

Answer 233

CMV

Question 234

Anti-smooth muscle (ASMA) antibodies:

Answer 234

chronic active hepatitis

Question 235

Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22):

Answer 235

urinary bladder cancer

Question 236

Last stage in the erythrocytic series capable of mitosis:

Answer 236

POLYCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST

Question 237

Last nucleated stage in the erythrocytic series:

Answer 237

ORTHOCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST

Question 238

Appearance of primary/nonspecific granules:

Answer 238

PROMYELOCYTE

Question 239

Appearance of secondary/specific granules:

Answer 239

MYELOCYTE

Question 240

Last stage in the granulocytic series capable of mitosis:

Answer 240

MYELOCYTE

Question 241

Youngest cell in the granulocytic series to NORMALLY appear in peripheral blood:

Answer 241

BAND

Question 242

Preferable site for BM aspiration and biopsy in adult:

Answer 242

ILIAC CREST

Question 243

Miller disc is an ocular device to facilitate counting of:

Answer 243

RETICULOCYTES

Question 244

Organ that removes erythrocyte inclusions without destroying the cell:

Answer 244

SPLEEN

Question 245

Megaloblastic anemia:

Answer 245

MACROCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC

Question 246

Anemia in sickle cell disease:

Answer 246

NORMOCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC

Question 247

Iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia:

Answer 247

MICROCYTIC, HYPOCHROMIC

Question 248

AUTOSPLENECTOMY occurs in

Answer 248

SICKLE CELL ANEMIA

Question 249

Anti-P, DONATH-LANDSTEINER ANTIBODY:

Answer 249

PCH

Question 250

Major leukocyte in aplastic anemia:

Answer 250

LYMPHOCYTES

Question 251

cells in G6PD deficiency

Answer 251

BITE CELLS

Question 252

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia:

Answer 252

schistocytes and nucleated RBCs

Question 253

ANTIBIOTIC implicated in aplastic anemia:

Answer 253

CHLORAMPHENICOL

Question 254

Type of anemia in acute leukemia:

Answer 254

NORMOCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC

Question 255

Hodgkin’s disease:

Answer 255

REED-STERNBERG CELLS

Question 256

Myelofibrosis:

Answer 256

TEARDROP RBCs

Question 257

DIC is most often associated with M3:

Answer 257

acute promyelocytic leukemia

Question 258

Peripheral smear of patient with MULTIPLE MYELOMA:

Answer 258

ROULEAUX

Question 259

Franklin’s disease:

Answer 259

GAMMA HEAVY CHAIN DISEASE

Question 260

TRAP(+):

Answer 260

Hairy cell leukemia

Question 261

CD ____: Common ALL (CALLA)

Answer 261

CD 10

Question 262

PRIMARY INHIBITOR OF FIBRINOLYTIC SYSTEM:

Answer 262

ALPHA2-ANTIPLASMIN

Question 262

PT and APTT result in patient with polycythemia:

Answer 262

BOTH PROLONGED

Question 262

ASPIRIN inhibits

Answer 262

CYCLOOXYGENASE

Question 262

Primary importance of FROZEN SECTIONS:

Answer 262

RAPID DIAGNOSIS

Question 262

Lupus anticoagulant is directed against:

Answer 262

PHOSPHOLIPID

Question 263

3Fs:

Answer 263

FATS/FORMALIN/FROZEN SECTIONS

Question 264

Carbohydrate fixation:

Answer 264

ALCOHOLIC FIXATIVES

Question 265

Protein fixation:

Answer 265

NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALDEHYDE OR FORMALDEHYDE VAPOR

Question 266

Glycogen fixation: ____ such as Rossman’s fluid or cold absolute alcohol

Answer 266

ALCOHOL-BASED

Question 267

MERCURIC CHLORIDE: fixative of choice for

Answer 267

TISSUE PHOTOGRAPHY

Question 268

Zenker’s fluid:

Answer 268

LIVER, SPLEEN, CONNECTIVE TISSUE FIBERS and NUCLEI

Question 269

Zenker’s-formol (Helly’s):

Answer 269

PITUITARY GLAND, BM, BLOOD-CONTAINING ORGANS SUCH AS SPLEEN AND LIVER

Question 270

Heidenhain’s susa solution:

Answer 270

TUMOR BIOPSIES ESPECIALLY SKIN

Question 271

Regaud’s (Moller’s/Muller’s) fluid:

Answer 271

CHROMATIN, MITOTIC FIGURES, GOLGI BODIES, RBC and colloid-containing tissues

Question 271

Orth’s fluid: study of early degenerative process and tissue necrosis, demonstrates ____ and other bacteria

Answer 271

rickettsia

Question 272

LEAD FIXATIVES:

Answer 272

ACID MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES

Question 273

fixation of embryos and pituitary biopsies:

Answer 273

BOUIN’S

Question 274

Bouin’s is NOT SUITABLE FOR FIXING ____

Answer 274

KIDNEY structures, lipid and mucus

Question 275

Glacial acetic acid solidifies at

Answer 275

17C

Question 276

Carnoy’s fluid:

Answer 276

CHROMOSOMES, LYMPH GLAND AND URGENT BIOPSIES

Question 277

Newcomer’s fluid:

Answer 277

fixing of mucopolysaccharides and nuclear proteins

Question 278

most common and fastest decalcifying agent

Answer 278

NITRIC ACID

Question 279

decalcifies and softens tissues at the same time

Answer 279

PERENYI’S FLUID

Question 280

most ideal, most sensitive method for determining the extent of decalcification

Answer 280

X-ray or radiological method

Question 280

Embedding medium for electron microscopy:

Answer 280

EPON (PLASTIC MEDIUM)

Question 280

Manual H and E staining:

Answer 280

REGRESSIVE STAINING

Question 281

Flotation water bath: ____, approximately 6-10C lower than the mp of wax

Answer 281

45 to 50C

Question 282

ORCEIN: vegetable dye extracted from

Answer 282

LICHENS

Question 283

probably the oldest of all stains

Answer 283

IODINE

Question 284

Stain demonstrating MITOCHONDRIA

Answer 284

JANUS GREEN

Question 285

Stain for the basement membrane:

Answer 285

PAS, AZOCARMINE

Question 286

Stain for Helicobacter pylori:

Answer 286

TOLUIDINE BLUE, CRESYL VIOLET ACETATE

Question 287

Mountant refractive index should be as close as possible to that of the glass slide which is

Answer 287

1.518

Question 288

POLYCLONAL ANTIBODIES: most frequently used animal is the ____ followed by goat, pig, sheep, horse, guinea pig and others

Answer 288

RABBIT

Question 289

MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES used animal:

Answer 289

MICE

Question 290

In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:

Answer 290

CONSISTENTLY ALKALINE

Question 291

Daily loss of protein in urine, normally does not exceed:

Answer 291

150 mg

Question 292

Renal threshold for glucose is:

Answer 292

160 to 180 mg/dL

Question 292

Hemoglobin differentiated from myoglobin:

Answer 292

ammonium sulfate (BLONDHEIM’S TEST)

Question 293

Sternheimer-Malbin stain:

Answer 293

CRYSTAL VIOLET AND SAFRANIN

Question 294

Pseudocasts: formed by

Answer 294

amorphous urates

Question 295

Moderate hematuria and RBC casts:

Answer 295

ACUTE GLOMERULOPNEPHRITIS

Question 296

Pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts:

Answer 296

PYELONEPHRITIS

Question 297

Crystals appears in urine as long, thin hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large amounts of benzoic acid:

Answer 297

HIPPURIC ACID

Question 298

Oval fat bodies:

Answer 298

lipid-containing RTE cells

Question 299

GREATEST PROTEINURIA: (Heavy Proteinuria >4 g/day)

Answer 299

NEPHROTIC SYNDROME

Question 300

Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones:

Answer 300

CALCIUM OXALATE

Question 301

Struvite:

Answer 301

TRIPLE PHOSPHATE/magnesium ammonium phosphate

Question 302

Apatite:

Answer 302

CALCIUM PHOSPHATE

Question 303

Limulus lysate test:

Answer 303

Gram negative bacterial endotoxin

Question 304

Amoeba in CSF: characteristic pseudopod mobility in

Answer 304

WET PREP ON PRE-WARMED SLIDE

Question 305

GOUT:

Answer 305

uric acid or monosodium urate

Question 306

PSEUDOGOUT:

Answer 306

calcium pyrophosphate

Question 307

BEST TEST for determining the status of the fetoplacental unit:

Answer 307

SERUM FREE ESTRIOL

Question 308

SPERM with SMALL OR ABSENT HEADPIECE:

Answer 308

acrosomal deficiency

Question 309

Most common cause of male infertility:

Answer 309

VARICOCELE

Question 310

Stain to determine SEPRM VIABILITY:

Answer 310

EOSIN

Question 310

Stain of choice for SPERM MORPHOLOGY:

Answer 310

Pap’s stain

Question 311

Serum GASTRIN levels would be greatest in:

Answer 311

ZOLLINGER-ELLISON SYNDROME

Question 312

Blood should NEVER be drawn from a vein in an arm with a ____ (temporary dialysis access device) or _____ (a permanent surgical fusion of a vein and an artery).

Answer 312

CANNULA (temporary dialysis access device); FISTULA (a permanent surgical fusion of a vein and an artery)

Question 313

Glassware CLEANING SOLUTION:

Answer 313

ACID DICHROMATE

Question 314

______ is used in AAS

Answer 314

HOLLOW CATHODE LAMP

Question 315

Gaussian (normal) distribution:

Answer 315

Mean = median = mode

Question 316

Material with physical and chemical properties closely resembling the test specimen and containing preanalyzed concentrations of the substances being measured:

Answer 316

CONTROL

Question 317

Material of known composition available in a highly purified form:

Answer 317

STANDARD

Question 318

Measuring potassium, antibiotic incorporated into the membrane:

Answer 318

VALINOMYCIN

Question 319

Flame color

Sodium:
Lithium:
Potassium:
Rubidium:
Magnesium:

Answer 319

Sodium: YELLOW FLAME
Lithium produces a red flame
Potassium a violet flame
Rubidium a red flame
Magnesium a blue flame

Question 320

Reliable index of intestinal carbohydrate absorption:

Answer 320

D-XYLOSE

Question 321

Condensation of glucose with aromatic amine in hot glacial acetic acid solution to produce a green-colored product:

Answer 321

O-TOLUIDINE

Question 322

REFERENCE METHOD for glucose:

Answer 322

HEXOKINASE

Question 323

Split in the albumin band:

Answer 323

BISALBUMINEMIA

Question 324

Compound normally found in urine that may be used to assess the completeness of a 24-hour urine collection:

Answer 324

CREATININE

Question 325

Myocardial infarction: ___ then ___ then ___

Answer 325

CK then AST then LD

Question 326

Specimen of choice for analysis of acid-base disturbances:

Answer 326

ARTERIAL BLOOD

Question 327

Anticoagulant of choice for blood gas analysis:

Answer 327

HEPARIN

Question 328

Symptom of HYPOCALCEMIA:

Answer 328

TETANY

Question 329

Calcium and phosphate metabolism is regulated by the:

Answer 329

PARATHYROID

Question 330

In the blood, bicarbonate leaves the RBCs and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with:

Answer 330

CHLORIDE

Question 331

Major mineralocorticoid:

Answer 331

ALDOSTERONE

Question 332

Adrenal medulla secretes this hormone in the greatest quantity:

Answer 332

EPINEPHRINE

Question 333

Hollander insulin test is used to confirm:

Answer 333

VAGOTOMY

Question 334

Most potent estrogen:

Answer 334

ESTRADIOL

Question 335

Assay to monitor the fetoplacental unit:

Answer 335

ESTRIOL

Question 336

Hormone associated with galactorrhea, pituitary adenoma, and amenorrhea:

Answer 336

PROLACTIN

Question 337

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by elevation of:

Answer 337

GASTRIN

Question 338

Conn’s disease: _____ caused by adrenal adenoma, carcinoma or hyperplasia

Answer 338

PRIMARY HYPERALDOSTERONISM

Question 339

Increased 5-HIAA: ________, carcinoid tumor composed of argentaffin cells. Carcinoid tumors are usually found in the intestine or lung.

Answer 339

ARGENTAFFINOMA

Question 340

Thyroid hormones are derived from the amino acid:

Answer 340

TYROSINE

Question 341

Pharmacological parameters that determine serum drug concentration:

Answer 341

liberation, absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion (LADME)

Question 342

Route of drug administration associated with 100% bioavailability:

Answer 342

INTRAVENOUS

Question 343

TRINDER REACTION:

Answer 343

SALICYLATE

Question 344

Acetaminophen (paracetamol) is particularly toxic to the

Answer 344

LIVER

Question 345

Increased trough levels of AMINOGLYCOSIDES in the serum are often associated with toxic effects to the _____

Answer 345

KIDNEY

Question 346

Aminoglycoside: ______ (toxic to ______) and _____ (damage _____)

Answer 346

NEPHROTOXIC, KIDNEYS; OTOTOXIC, EARS

Question 347

Specimen appropriate for determining exposure to lead:

Answer 347

WHOLE BLOOD

Question 348

HEROIN is synthesized from

Answer 348

MORPHINE

Question 349

is the principal active component of MARIJUANA

Answer 349

TETRAHYDROCANNABINOL (THC)

Question 350

ODOR OF BITTER ALMONDS:

Answer 350

CYANIDE POISONING

Question 351

Garlic on breath, metallic taste on mouth. ARSENIC HAS HIGH AFFINITY TO _____. Analysis of urine, hair, and nails, using ion emission spectroscopy, is important for the diagnosis of chronic ARSENIC poisoning (Henry).

Answer 351

KERATIN

Question 352

Total renal BLOOD flow:

Answer 352

1,200 mL/min

Question 353

Total renal PLASMA flow:

Answer 353

600 to 700 mL/min

Question 354

Glomerulus serves as nonselective filter (SIEVE) of plasma substances with MW of less than

Answer 354

70,000 daltons

Question 355

Serum osmolarity:

Answer 355

275 to 300 mOsm

Question 356

Urine osmolarity range:

Answer 356

50 and 1,400 mOsm

Question 357

Normal person excretes approximately _______ in the form of titratable acid (H+) or ammonium ions (NH4+)

Answer 357

70 mEq/day of acid

Question 357

Urine volume range ______ in 24 hours

Answer 357

600 to 2,000 mL

Question 357

Urine volume average _____ in 24 hours

Answer 357

1,200 to 1,500 mL

Question 358

Normal random urine pH:

Answer 358

pH 4.5 to 8

Question 359

First morning urine pH:

Answer 359

5 to 6

Question 360

1 g/dL protein, raise urine specific gravity by refractometer or urinometer by

Answer 360

0.003

Question 361

1 g/dL glucose, raise urine specific gravity by refractometer or urinometer by

Answer 361

0.004

Question 362

Calibration of refractometer using distilled water:

Answer 362

1.000

Question 363

Calibration of refractometer using 5% NaCl:

Answer 363

1.022 ± 0.001

Question 364

Urine protein:

Answer 364

less than 10 mg/dL or 100 mg/24 hours (Henry less than 150mg/24 hours)

Question 365

Significant AER:

Answer 365

20 to 200 ug/min or 30 to 300 mg albumin/24 hours

Question 366

Renal threshold for glucose is

Answer 366

160 to 180 mg/dL

Question 367

Ketones:__ BHA, ___ AAA and___ Acetone

Answer 367

78% BHA
20% AAA
2% Acetone

Question 368

Concentration of myoglobin must be at least _____ before a red pigmentation can be visualized

Answer 368

25 mg/dL

Question 369

Ehrlich’s units (EU) are ____ to mg/dL

Answer 369

EQUAL

Question 370

Normal values for the Addis count: ______ RBCs, ______ WBCs and epithelial cells and _______ hyaline casts in a 12-hour urine

Answer 370

0 to 500,000 RBCs, 0 to 1,800,000 WBCs, 0 to 5,000 hyaline casts

Question 371

Centrifugation for urine microscopic exam:

Answer 371

400 RCF for 5 minutes

Question 372

Volume of sediment, glass slide method 20 uL or 0.02 mL covered by _____ coverslip

Answer 372

22 x 22 mm

Question 373

_____ RTE cells/hpf indicates tubular injury and specimens should be referred for cytologic urine testing

Answer 373

More than 2

Question 374

Approximately ____ of CSF is produced every hour in the choroid plexuses and reabsorbed by the arachnoid villi

Answer 374

20 mL

Question 375

CSF
Total volume in adult:

Answer 375

newer edition Strasinger 90 to 150 mL
(old edition 140 to 170 mL)

Question 375

CSF
Total volume in neonate:

Answer 375

10 to 60 mL

Question 376

CSF
Normal adult CSF: WBCs/uL

Answer 376

0 to 5 WBCs/uL

Question 376

CSF
Neonates: WBCs/uL

Answer 376

0 to 30 WBCs/uL

Question 377

Reactive lymphocytes in CSF

Answer 377

viral infections

Question 377

Moderately elevated WBC count (less than 50 WBCs/uL) with increased normal and reactive lymphocytes and plasma cells may be indicative of:

Answer 377

MS or other degenerating neurologic disorders

Question 378

Increased eosinophils in CSF:

Answer 378

parasitic infections, fungal infections primarily COCCIDIOIDES IMMITIS

Question 379

CSF glucose is approximately ____ that of plasma glucose

Answer 379

60 to 70 percent

Question 380

Normal CSF protein:

Answer 380

15 to 45 mg/dL

Question 381

Normal concentration of glutamine in CSF:

Answer 381

8 to 18 mg/dL

Question 382

Liquefaction within

Answer 382

30 to 60 minutes

Question 383

Seminal fluid Volume

Answer 383

2 to 5 mL

Question 384

Seminal fluid pH

Answer 384

7.2 to 8

Question 385

Sperm morphology: should be evaluated

Answer 385

at least 200 sperms

Question 386

Sperm viability test:

Answer 386

Modified Bloom’s (eosin-nigrosin)

Question 387

Sperm Motility is evaluate in approximately

Answer 387

20 high-power fields

Question 388

Sperm concentration:

Answer 388

newer edition Strasinger >20 M to 250 M per mL (old edition: 20 M to 160 M per mL)

Question 389

Sperm count

Answer 389

≥ 40 M per ejaculate*

Question 390

Most common dilution is ___ prepared using a MECHANICAL (positive-displacement) rather than a Thoma pipette

Answer 390

1:20

Question 391

Minimum motility of 50% with a rating of 2.0 after 1 hour is considered

Answer 391

normal

Question 392

Fructose per ejaculate

Answer 392

≥ 13 umol

Question 393

Specimens for fructose should be tested within _____ to prevent fructolysis

Answer 393

2 hours or FROZEN

Question 394

RAPE, presence of sperm:
- Enhancing specimen with ____ and examining under PHASE MICROSCOPY
- ACP
- Seminal glycoprotein p30 (prostatic specific antigen [PSA]), which is present even in the absence of sperm
- ABO, DNA

Answer 394

XYLENE

Question 395

Motile sperm can be detected for up to ___ after intercourse, whereas nonmotile sperm can persist for ___. As the sperm die off, only the heads remain and may be present for 7 days after intercourse.

Answer 395

24 hours;
3 days

Question 396

Synovial Fluid Volume

Answer 396

less than 3.5 mL

Question 397

Synovial Fluid Normal:

Answer 397

clear and pale yellow

Question 398

Synovial Fluid able to form

Answer 398

4 to 6 cm string

Question 399

Synovial Fluid RBC/uL

Answer 399

Less than 2,000 RBCs/uL

Question 400

Synovial Fluid WBC/uL

Answer 400

Less than 200 WBCs/uL

Question 401

Synovial Fluid Glucose less than ____ lower than the blood glucose

Answer 401

10 mg/dL

Question 402

SEROUS FLUID: TRANSUDATES AND EXUDATES

Most reliable differentiation:

Answer 402

Fluid-to-blood ratios for protein and LD

Question 403

SEROUS FLUID: TRANSUDATES AND EXUDATES

WBC counts greater than _____ and RBC counts greater than _____ are indicative of an exudate

Answer 403

1,000/uL; 100,000/uL

Question 404

Pleural fluid cholesterol greater than 60 mg/dL or a pleural fluid to serum cholesterol ratio greater than 0.3 provides a reliable information that the fluid is an ____

Answer 404

exudate

Question 405

Fluid to serum total bilirubin ratio of 0.6 or more indicates the presence of an ____

Answer 405

exudate

Question 406

Pleural fluid pH lower than__ may indicate the need for chest-tube drainage, in addition to antibiotics in cases of pneumonia. The finding of pH as low as 6 indicates esophageal rupture that is allowing the influx of gastric fluid

Answer 406

7.3

Question 407

RBC counts GREATER THAN 100,000/uL are indicative of

Answer 407

BLUNT TRAUMA INJURIES

Question 408

Normal WBC counts are less than 500 cells/uL and the count increases with

Answer 408

bacterial peritonitis and cirrhosis

Question 409

CA 125 antigen, source is from

Answer 409

OVARIES, FALLOPIAN TUBES or ENDOMETRIUM

Question 410

Large intestine is capable of absorbing approximately ____ of water

Answer 410

3,000 mL

Question 411

Most representative, for fecal fats; ___-day stool collection

Answer 411

3

Question 412

Muscle fibers: slide is examined for 5 minutes. Only ______ fibers are counted, and the presence of more than 10 is reported as increased

Answer 412

undigested

Question 413

Bleeding in excess of _______ of stool is considered pathologically significant

Answer 413

2.5 mL/150 gram

Question 414

Normal stool pH is between

Answer 414

7 and 8

Question 415

pH below 5.5 in cases of

Answer 415

CARBOHYDRATE DISORDERS

Question 416

SCREENING PROCEDURE that is helpful in the diagnosis of many diseases, it is one indicator of the body’s ability to fight disease, it is used to MONITOR the effects of drug and radiation therapy, and it may be employed as an INDICATOR OF PATIENT’S PROGRESS in certain diseased states such as infection or anemia.

Answer 416

Complete Blood Count

Question 417

Hematocrit:

amount of plasma that still remains in RBC portion after the microhematocrit has been spun. Increased in macrocytic anemias, spherocytosis, thalassemia, hypochromic anemia and sickle cell anemia:

Answer 417

TRAPPED PLASMA

Question 418

Hematocrit:

When comparing spun hematocrit results obtained on an electronic cell counter, the spun hematocrit results vary from ___ HIGHER because of this trapped plasma (unless cell counter has been calibrated).

Answer 418

1 to 3% HIGHER

Question 419

Hematocrit:

Anticoagulated blood should be centrifuged within____ of collection when the blood is stored at room temperature.

Answer 419

6 hours

Question 420

Hematocrit:

Overanticoagulation: FALSELY ___ due to shrinkage of cells

Answer 420

FALSELY LOW

Question 421

Hematocrit:

______ denote poor technique but do not affect the results

Answer 421

Air bubbles

Question 422

Hematocrit:

Incomplete sealing of the microhematocrit tubes: FALSELY ___

Answer 422

FALSELY LOW

Question 423

Hematocrit:

Inadequate centrifugation of the microhematocrit tubes or allowing the tubes to stand longer than several minutes after centrifugation: FALSELY ___

Answer 423

FALSELY ELEVATED

Question 424

Hematocrit may be expressed in either of two ways (1) as percentage, e.g., 42% or (2) as a decimal point, e.g., 0.42.

Question 425

WBC count:

Count above 11 x 10 9th/L is termed

Answer 425

LEUKOCYTOSIS

Question 426

WBC count:

Mix the Thoma pipet for approximately 3 minutes (Brown) to ensure hemolysis and adequate mixing [Rodak 10 minutes] PLEASE FOLLOW RODAK, 10 MINUTES.

Question 427

WBC count:

Manual counts, no more than 10-cell variation between the four squares

Question 428

Platelet count:

Prolonged BT and poor clot retraction are found when there is

Answer 428

marked thrombocytopenia

Question 429

Platelet count:

EDTA: decreased platelet clumping but increased MPV

Question 430

Platelet count:

If concentration of EDTA exceeds 2mg/mL of whole blood, platelets may ______, causing invalidly higher count

Answer 430

SWELL AND THEN FRAGMENT

Question 431

Platelet count:

Using Rees-Ecker diluting fluid, the platelet count must be completed within 30 minutes of diluting in order to ensure against platelet _________

Answer 431

DISINTEGRATION

Question 432

Platelet count:

1% ammonium oxalate, the dilution is stable for ____

Answer 432

8 hours

Question 433

ESR:

Macrocytes tend to settle ___ rapidly than microcytes

Answer 433

more rapidly

Question 434

ESR:
Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis: falsely ____ ESR

Answer 434

falsely lower

Question 435

ESR:
Agglutination: more rapid sedimentation rate

Question 436

ESR:
In severe anemia: ESR IS MARKEDLY INCREASED
The ESR of patients with severe anemia is of little diagnostic value, because it will be falsely elevated.

Question 437

Sugar water test:
Citrated whole blood

Question 438

Sugar water test:
In anemia, the hemolysis may be slightly increased in PNH negative specimens

Question 439

Sugar water test:
Use of defibrinated blood may cause positive results due to the hemolysis of traumatized RBCs

Question 440

Sugar water test:
Test should be performed WITHIN 2 HOURS of obtaining the specimen

Question 441

Sucrose hemolysis test:
Citrated whole blood

Question 442

Sucrose hemolysis test:
Increased hemolysis (<10%) may be found in leukemia or myelosclerosis

Question 443

Sucrose hemolysis test:
PNH: 10% to 80% hemolysis

Question 444

Acid serum test:
Whole blood defibrinated

Question 445

Acid serum test:
When patient has received blood transfusions, less lysis occurs because of the presence of normal transfused red blood cells

Question 446

Thyroxine conversion factor (µg/dL to nmol/L) 12.9

Question 447

X-axis: HORIZONTAL, ABSCISSA, INDEPENDENT VARIABLES

Question 448

Y-axis: VERTICAL, ORDINATE, DEPENDENT VARIABLES

Question 449

UREA: Colorimetric: diacetyl [ inexpensive, lacks specificity]

Question 450

UREA: Enzymatic: NH3 formation [greater specificity, more expensive]

Question 451

CREATININE: Colorimetric: end point [simple, nonspecific]

Question 452

CREATININE: Colorimetric: kinetic [rapid, increased specificity]

Question 453

CREATININE: Enzymatic [measure ammonia colorimetrically or with ion-selective electrode]

Question 454

URIC ACID: Colorimetric [problems with turbidity, several common drugs interfere]

Question 455

URIC ACID: Enzymatic: UV [need special instrumentation and optical cells]

Question 456

URIC ACID: Enzymatic: H2O2 [interference by reducing substances]

Question 457

Constituents of a number of common foods, including BANANAS, VANILLA, TEA AND COFFEE, may react in the test for HMMA. HMMA is also VMA. 4-Hydroxy-3-Methoxymandelic acid (HMMA)

Question 458

Laboratory personnel should be aware of the MECHANICAL HAZARDS of equipment such as CENTRIFUGES, AUTOCLAVES, and HOMOGENIZERS.

Question 459

Third Taenia: Taenia asiatica or the Taiwan Taenia

Question 460

Fungal elements fluoresce green with acridine orange

Question 461

Reporting of normal urine crystals: reported as rare, few, moderate, or many per hpf

Question 462

Abnormal crystals may be averaged and reported per lpf

Question 463

Reagent for APT test: 1% NaOH

Question 464

Infective stage of Leishmania to man: PROMASTIGOTE

Question 465

Infective stage of Trypanosoma to man: TRYPOMASTIGOTE

Question 466

Infective stage of Plasmodia to man: SPOROZOITES

Question 467

Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis: ANGIOSTRONGYLUS CANTONENSIS

Question 468

When an accident involving electrical shock occurs, the ELECTRICAL SOURCE MUST BE REMOVED IMMEDIATELY.

Question 469

URINARY MEATUS: external urinary opening

Question 470

POLYURIA: greater than 2.5 L/day in adults

Question 471

OLIGURIA: less than 400 mL/day in adults

Question 472

Yellow-orange specimen caused by the administration of phenazopyridine (brand name Pyridium) or azo-gantrisin compounds to people who have urinary tract infections [drug for UTI: orange and viscous urine]

Question 473

CLINITEST tablets contain copper sulfate, sodium carbonate, sodium citrate, and sodium hydroxide

Question 474

ACETEST provides sodium nitroprusside, glycine, disodium phosphate, and lactose in tablet form. The addition of lactose gives better color differentiation. Acetest tablets are hygroscopic; if the specimen is not completely absorbed within 30 seconds, a new tablet should be used.

Question 475

Bence Jones protein coagulates at temperatures between 40°C and 60°C and dissolves when the temperature reaches 100°C.

Question 476

Automated reagent strip readers: REFLECTANCE PHOTOMETRY

Question 477

Casts have a tendency to locate NEAR THE EDGES OF THE COVER SLIP

Question 478

Squamous epithelial cells: Rare, few, moderate, or many per LPF

Question 479

Transitional epithelial cells: Rare, few, moderate, or many per HPF

Question 480

RTE CELLS REPORTING: AVERAGE NUMBER PER 10 HPFS

Question 481

MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES: Acid-albumin and the CTAB tests (+) thick, white turbidity

Question 482

MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES: Metachromatic staining spot test: BLUE SPOT

Question 483

Very slight amount of OXYHEMOGLOBIN: PINK CSF

Question 484

Conversion of oxyhemoglobin to unconjugated bilirubin: YELLOW CSF

Question 485

Heavy hemolysis: ORANGE CSF

Question 486

Red or brown seminal fluid: BLOOD

Question 487

Normal appearance of gastric fluid: PALE GRAY with mucus

Question 488

Amniotic fluid OD 450: When BILIRUBIN is present, a rise in OD is seen at 450 nm because this is the wavelength of maximum bilirubin absorption.

Question 489

Rare: 0–10 bacteria/hpf

Question 490

Few: 10–50 bacteria/hpf

Question 491

Moderate: 50–200 bacteria/hpf

Question 492

Many: >200 bacteria/hpf

Question 493

First layer of spun hematocrit: FATTY LAYER

Question 494

Second layer of spun hematocrit: PLASMA

Question 495

Third layer of spun hematocrit: BUFFY COAT

Question 496

Bottom layer of spun hematocrit: PACKED CELLS

Question 497

Patients with CML negative for the Philadelphia chromosome: POOR PROGNOSIS

Question 498

LEUKOCYTOSIS >11 x 10 9th/L

Question 499

Forward light scatter: CELL SIZE

Question 500

Side light scatter: CELL GRANULARITY

Question 501

KERATOCYTES: helmet cells/with horn-like projections

Question 502

ANTI-dsDNA: most specific antibody for SLE

Question 503

Anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA): CHRONIC ACTIVE HEPATITIS

Question 504

Polymerase chain reaction: MOLECULAR

Question 505

Restriction fragment length polymorphism: MOLECULAR

Question 506

Enhanced by acidifying patient serum: anti-M

Question 507

Wiener and coworkers gave a name to one such agglutinin, calling its antigen I for “individuality.” The ANTIBODY REACTED WITH MOST BLOOD SPECIMENS tested.

Question 508

For patients with history of FEBRILE NONHEMOLYTIC TRANSF REACTION: LEUKOPOOR RBCs

Question 509

Irradiation of blood components: CESIUM

Question 510

CORDOCENTESIS, or PERCUTANEOUS UMBILICAL BLOOD SAMPLING (PUBS), results in a fetal blood specimen that can be used for rapid karyotyping or molecular studies.

Question 511

Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22): URINARY BLADDER CANCER

Question 512

CARD PREGNANCY/POSITIVE: Two separate black or gray bands, one at T and the other at C, are visible in the results window, indicating that the specimen contains detectable levels of hCG. Although the intensity of the test band may vary with different specimens, the appearance of two distinct bands should be interpreted as a positive result.

Question 513

CARD PREGNANCY/NEGATIVE: If no band appears at T and a black or gray band is visible at the C position, the test can be considered negative, indicating that a detectable level of hCG is not present.

Question 514

CARD PREGNANCY/INVALID: If no band appears at C or incomplete or beaded bands appear at the T or C position, the test is invalid. The test should be repeated using another Card Pregnancy Test device.

Question 515

CARD PREGNANCY: If the test band appears VERY FAINT, it is recommended that a new sample be collected 48 hours later and tested again using another Card Pregnancy Test device.

Question 516

The standard screening method for HIV antibody has been the ELISA, and the standard confirmatory test is the Western blot.

Question 517

Aside from Western blot, other confirmatory tests, including indirect immunofluorescence assay (IFA), radioimmunoprecipitation assay (RIPA), line immunoassays, and rapid confirmatory tests, have also been developed.

Question 518

HBs ag: active infection

Question 519

HBe ag: active hepatitis B with HIGH DEGREE OF INFECTIVITY

Question 520

IgM anti-HBc: current or recent acute hepatitis B

Question 521

Total anti-HBc: current or past hepatitis B

Question 522

Anti-HBe: recovery from hepatitis B

Question 523

Anti-HBs: immunity to hepatitis B

Question 524

HBV DNA: acute, atypical, or occult hepatitis B; viral load may be used to monitor effectiveness of therapy

Question 525

ITIS: inflammation

Question 526

Length: METER

Question 527

Mass: KILOGRAM

Question 528

Time: SECONDS

Question 529

Quantity of mass: MOLE

Question 530

Electric current: AMPERE

Question 531

Thermodynamic temperature: KELVIN

Question 532

Luminous intensity: CANDELA

Question 533

Main cause of TREND is DETERIORATION OF REAGENTS

Question 534

Main cause of SHIFT is IMPROPER CALIBRATION OF THE INSTRUMENT

Question 535

POCT: near-patient testing, decentralized testing, bedside testing and alternate-site testing

Question 536

POCT: usually by nonlaboratorian personnel (nurses, respiratory therapists, etc)

Question 537

Absorbance (A) = abc = 2-log%T

Question 538

The bacteriological examination of water consists of (1) total plate counts (2) detecting the presence or absence of coliforms and the estimation of MPN (MOST PROBABLE NUMBER)

Question 539

Water analysis, presumptive test: FORMATION OF GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH

Question 540

Water analysis, confirmed test: FORMATION OF GAS IN BGBL BROTH or TYPICAL COLIFORM COLONIES ON EMB/ENDO AGAR

Question 541

Water analysis, completed test: FORMATION OF ACID AND GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH and the DEMONSTRATION OF GRAM NEGATIVE NONSPOREFORMING BACILLI

Question 542

Herpesviruses: cardinal feature of the group is LATENCY

Question 543

Reoviruses: derivation of the word: R(respiratory), E(enteric), O(orphan)

Question 544

ASCHOFF BODIES: rheumatic fever

Question 545

CREOLA BODIES: cluster of columnar cells, bronchial asthma

Question 546

ELEMENTARY BODIES: infectious particles of Chlamydia

Question 547

SCLEROTIC BODIES: dark brown-black organisms, chromoblastomycosis

Question 548

ASTEROID BODIES: concentric radiating eosinophilic material (ag-ab reaction), sporotrichosis

Question 549

NEGRI BODIES: rabies

Question 550

GUARNIERI BODIES: poxvirus

Question 551

OWL’S EYE INCLUSION BODIES: cytomegalovirus

Question 552

PSAMMOMA BODIES: elements with concentric striations of collagen-like materials, benign conditions, ovarian or thyroid carcinoma

Question 553

KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES

Question 554

Hand, foot and mouth disease: COXSACKIEVIRUS

Question 555

In CYSTIC FIBROSIS of the pancreas, the increase in NEUTRAL FATS confer the greasy “BUTTER-STOOL” appearance.

Question 556

PROGRESSIVE CHANGES:
Hypertrophy - increase in size of an organ due to an increase in size of individual cells

Question 557

PROGRESSIVE CHANGES:
Hyperplasia - increase in size of an organ due to increase in number of cells

Question 558

RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES:
Hypoplasia - failure of an organ to reach mature size

Question 559

RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES:
Aplasia - organ is represented only by mass of fatty or fibrous nodule

Question 560

RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES:
Agenesia - complete non-appearance of an organ

Question 561

RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES:
Atresia - failure of an organ to form an opening

Question 562

RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES:
Atrophy - ACQUIRED decrease in size of a normally sized organ

Question 563

DEGENERATIVE CHANGES:
Dysplasia - change in size, shape and orientation of cell

Question 564

DEGENERATIVE CHANGES:
Metaplasia - change from one adult cell type to another

Question 565

DEGENERATIVE CHANGES:
Anaplasia or Dedifferentiation - change to a more primitive or embryonic cell type

Question 566

DEGENERATIVE CHANGES:
Neoplasia or Tumor - continuous abnormal proliferation of cells

Question 567

MALIGNANT TUMOR:
Carcinoma - malignant tumor of EPITHELIAL TISSUE origin

Question 568

MALIGNANT TUMOR:
Sarcoma - malignant tumor of CONNECTIVE TISSUE origin

Question 569

PRIMARY SIGNS OF DEATH (3)
Respiratory, circulatory and nervous failure

Question 570

SECONDARY SIGNS OF DEATH (7)
Algor mortis - cooling
Rigor mortis - stiffening
Liver mortis - purplish discoloration
Desiccation
Putrefaction
Postmortem clotting
Autolysis

Question 571

CLASS SYSTEM
Class I - absence of atypical cytologic picture
Class II - atypical cytologic picture but no evidence of malignancy
Class III - cytologic picture SUGGESTIVE BUT NOT CONCLUSIVE of malignancy
Class IV - cytologic picture STRONGLY SUGGESTIVE of malignancy
Class V - cytologic picture CONCLUSIVE of malignancy.

Question 572

Visceral larva migrans (VLM): Toxocara cati, Toxocari canis

Question 573

Cutaneous larva migrans (CLM): Ancylostoma braziliense, A. caninum

Question 574

Infective stage is the sheathed filariform larva: HOOKWORM

Question 575

Infective stage is the unsheathed filariform larva: THREADWORM

Question 576

Semilunar cutting plates, BIPARTITE bursa: NECATOR AMERICANUS

Question 577

Two pairs of teeth, TRIPARTITE bursa: ANCYLOSTOMA DUODENALE

Question 578

Alkaline phosphatase immunoassay (APIA) for Schistosoma antibodies

Question 579

NON-OPERCULATED AND MATURE (embryonated) when laid: SCHISTOSOMA eggs

Question 580

OPERCULATED AND MATURE (embryonated) when laid: HETEROPHYES, OPISTORCHISand CLONORCHIS eggs

Question 581

Clonorchis, Opistorchis and Heterophyid egg CANNOT be differentiated under an ordinary light microscope.

Question 582

OPERCULATED AND IMMATURE (unembryonated) when laid: FASCIOLA, FASCIOLOPSIS, PARAGONIMUS and ECHINOSTOMA eggs

Question 583

Amoebic LIVER abscess (ALA) is the most common extra-intestinal form of amoebiasis

Question 584

Entamoeba polecki cyst: consistently UNINUCLEATED (1 NUCLEUS)

Question 585

ACHROMATIC karyosomal granules: IODAMOEBA BUTSCHLII

Question 586

Amoeboflagellate: NAEGLERIA

Question 587

Granulomatous amoebic meningoencephalitis: ACANTHAMOEBA

Question 588

Gay bowel syndrome: G. LAMBLIA

Question 589

Entero-string/String test: G. LAMBLIA

Question 590

K39 and FAST (Fast Agglutination Screening Test) for Leishmania

Question 591

Rupture of RBCs every 72 hours: P. MALARIAE

Question 592

Band trophozoite: P. MALARIAE

Question 593

Amoeboid trophozoite: P. VIVAX

Question 594

Crescent-shaped gametocytes: P. FALCIPARUM

Question 595

Cyclospora cayetanensis: cyanobacterium-like body (CLB)

Question 596

Circumoval Precipitin Test (COPT) SCHISTOSOMES

Question 597

Sabin Feldman Dye test: TOXOPLASMA

Question 598

Sheather sugar flotation technique: CRYPTOSPORIDIUM

Question 599

Stool preservatives: formalin, Schaudinn’s solution, PVA (polyvinyl alcohol), MIF (merthiolate-iodine-formalin) and SAF (sodium acetate-acetic acid formalin)

Question 600

Fecal concentration procedure (formalin-ether/ethyl acetate) FOUR LAYERS a) top layer of ether or ethyl acetate, b) a plug of fatty debris adherent to the wall of the tube, c) layer of formalin, and d) sediment.

Question 601

DELAFIELD HEMATOXYLIN stain is mainly useful in demonstrating the detailed structures of MICROFILARIAE.

Question 602

Iron conversion factor from conventional to SI (µmol/L): 0.179

Question 603

Bilirubin conversion factor from conventional to SI (µmol/L): 17.1

Question 604

Thyroxine conversion factor to SI (µg/dl to nmol/L): 12.9

Question 605

Specimen collection & processing: Pre-analytical QA

Question 606

Long-term accuracy of analytical methods: External QC

Question 607

Abrupt change: Shift

Question 608

Gradual change: Trend

Question 609

One control value exceeds +2s and another exceeds -2s: R4s

Question 610

2 consecutive ctrl values exceed the same mean +2s or -2s: 2:2s

Question 611

Fixed-angle centrifuge advantages over the horizontal centrifuge: Lesser air friction, smaller increase in sample temperature, quicker sedimentation of small particles, and operated over higher speed

Question 612

Used to determine whether there is statistically significant difference between the SD of 2 groups of data: f-test

Question 613

Used to determine whether there is statistically significant difference between the means of 2 groups of data: t-test

Question 614

Sample of known quantity with several analytes.: Control

Question 615

Anticoagulant for cardiopulmonary bypass: Heparin

Question 616

Basal state collection: Early morning blood collection

Question 617

Uses 2 monochromators, affected by quenching: Fluorometry

Question 618

Uses 2 photodetectors, for the sample beam and reference beam: Double – beam in space

Question 619

Obsolete blood glucose methodologies: Folin- Wu, Nelson Somogyi

Question 620

Chemical method for glucose, still widely used: Ortho-toluidine, condensation method

Question 621

Test for chylomicrons, creamy layer on top: Standing plasma test

Question 622

Apolipoprotein component of VLDL: Apo-B100

Question 623

Transports exogenous triglycerides: Chylomicrons

Question 624

Transports endogenous triglycerides: VLDL

Question 625

Highest cholesterol content: LDL

Question 626

One step method for cholesterol determination: Liebermann - Burchardt

Question 627

Cholesterol esterase: Used in enzymatic method of cholesterol determination

Question 628

CV of HDLc (NCEP Guidelines for Acceptable Measurement Error): ≤ 4%

Question 629

Assay for Uric acid that uses mercury arc vapor lamp: Enzymatic: UV

Question 630

Greater specificity and more expensive BUN assay: Enzymatic: ammonia formation

Question 631

Simple, Nonspecific test for Creatinine determination : Colorimetric: end point

Question 632

Categories of Azotemia: Pre-renal, Renal, Post-renal

Question 633

Test used to assess the ability to conjugate bilirubin and secrete bile: SERUM BILIRUBIN LEVELS

Question 634

Gamma spike/ Monoclonal gammopathy: Multiple myeloma

Question 635

Beta-gamma bridging: Hepatic cirrhosis

Question 636

Reaction rate is directly proportional to substrate concentration: First-order kinetics

Question 637

Enzyme specific for both pancreas and salivary glands: Amylase

Question 638

Clinically significant if decreased: Cholinesterase

Question 639

Substrate used in Bowers-McComb method for ALP activity measurement: p-nitrophenylphosphate

Question 640

Chief counterion of sodium: Chloride

Question 641

Driving force of bicarbonate buffer system: CARBON DIOXIDE

Question 642

Chloride and Bicarbonate relationship: Reciprocal

Question 643

Confirmatory test for Acromegaly: Glucose suppression test

Question 644

Increased in Hypothyroidism (primary): TSH

Question 645

T3 uptake levels in Hypothyroidism : Decreased

Question 646

Begins with patient identification and continues until testing is completed and the results are reported : Chain of custody

Question 647

Requires whole blood EDTA sample: Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus tests

Question 648

Method of choice for measuring antidepressants: HPLC

Question 649

Gold standard for drug testing: GC-MS

Question 650

Inhibits acetylcholinesterase: Organophosphates & Carbamates

Question 651

Dissociable substance that yields hydrogen ions: Acid

Question 652

Dissociable substance that yields hydroxyl ions: Base

Question 653

Dissociable substance that accepts hydrogen ions: Base

Question 654

Dissociable substance that accepts hydroxyl ions: Acid

Question 655

Comparing patient’s results with previous results: Delta check

Question 656

POCT is most often performed by nurses, perfusionists (who operate heart-lung machine during open heart surgery), respiratory therapists and physician themselves.

Question 657

Expressed in Ehrlich units (mg/dl): Urobilinogen

Question 658

Used to differentiate myoglobin and hemoglobin: Blondheim’s test

Question 659

Degree of Hazard 1: Slight hazard

Question 660

Degree of Hazard 2: Moderate hazard

Question 661

Degree of Hazard 3: Serious hazard

Question 662

Degree of Hazard 4: Extreme hazard

Question 663

Handwashing: Clean between fingers 15 sec (or 20 sec , 6th ed), downward

Question 664

When skin or eye contact occurs, the best first aid is to immediately: Flush the area with water for at least 15 minutes and then seek medical attention

Question 665

Preservative of choice for urine cytology studies: Saccomano’s fixative

Question 666

Urine specimen for Urobilinogen: Afternoon sample (2-4pm)

Question 667

Storage conditions for reagent strip: Cool, dry place

Question 668

Reagent incorporated in Ketone pad: Sodium nitroprusside

Question 669

Hoesch Test: Ehrlich’s reagent in 6M HCl

Question 670

Speckled pattern on blood parameter: Hematuria

Question 671

Principle of Automated Reagent Strip Reader: Reflectance photometry

Question 672

Soluble in dilute acetic acid: Red blood cells, amorphous phosphates, carbonates

Question 673

Soluble in ether: Lipids, chyle, lymphatic fluid

Question 674

Appear microscopically as yellow brown-granules and produce a characteristic pink sediment (brick dust), uroerythrin: AMORPHOUS URATES

Question 675

Cause a white precipitate following specimen refrigeration: Amorphous phosphates

Question 676

Tubular injury: 2 or more RTE cells per HPF

Question 677

Telescoped sediment: Elements of glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome

Question 678

Glitter cells: Neutrophils seen in hypotonic urine

Question 679

Formation of casts: Hyaline→cellular→granular→waxy

Question 680

Hyaline cast consists entirely of: Uromodulin

Question 681

Crystals seen in liver disease: Bilirubin, tyrosine, leucine

Question 682

Forms of Struvite: Coffin-lid, Feather-like, Fern-leaf, Prism, Colorless sheets, Flakes

Question 683

Ethylene glycol poisoning: Monohydrate Calcium Oxalate (oval, dumbbell)

Question 684

Most frequent parasite encountered in urine: Trichomonas vaginalis

Question 685

Fecal contaminant in urine: Pinworm ova

Question 686

Diluent for CSF WBC Count: 3% Glacial HAc with methylene blue

Question 687

Precipitation test for CSF total protein: TCA and SSA

Question 688

Positive for pellicle clot formation: Tubercular meningitis

Question 689

Oligoclonal bonding in CSF bonding but not in serum → Multiple sclerosis, encephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome and neurosyphilis

Question 690

Semen fructose test is not tested within 2 hours: Specimen must be FROZEN

Question 691

Reagent used in Florence test which detects choline: Potassium iodide, Iodine

Question 692

Used to assess sperm cell velocity and trajectory: Computer-assisted semen analysis (CASA)

Question 693

Normal volume of synovial fluid: less than 3.5 ml

Question 694

Normal synovial fluid glucose: <10mg/dl lower than blood glucose

Question 695

Cells seen in synovial fluid which resembles polished rice macroscopically: Rice bodies

Question 696

Type of effusion caused by congestive heart failure: Transudate

Question 697

Sputum: Not a normal body fluid, tracheobronchial secretions

Question 698

Important diagnostic test for Pneumocystic carinii in immunocompromised patients: Bronchoalveolar lavage

Question 699

Tests for Neural Tube defects: AFP, acetylcholinesterase

Question 700

Microviscosity test for fetal lung maturity: measured by FLUORESCENCE POLARIZATION

Question 701

Green amniotic fluid: MECONIUM

Question 702

Dark red-brown color of amniotic fluid: FETAL DEATH

Question 703

Normal Gastric fluid appearance: PALE GRAY WITH MUCUS

Question 704

Noninvasive test to determine gastric acidity: DIAGNEX TUBELESS TEST

Question 705

Collagen-like material with concentric striations seen in ovarian and thyroid carcinomas: PSAMMOMA BODIES

Question 706

Melena: BLACK AND TARRY STOOL

Question 707

Laminar flow: Biosafety Cabinet class II

Question 708

HEPA filter: Removes org > 0.3 um (bacteria, fungi)

Question 709

Blood culture collection: 2-3 samples (Max. 3 BAILEY’S) at least 1 hour apart in 24 hours

Question 710

Grade A milk: <75,000 bacteria per mL when raw, and <15,000 bacteria once pasteurized

Question 711

Enteric agar: XLD, EMB, HEA

Question 712

Rickettsial stains: Gimenez, Macchiavello

Question 713

Concentration of Hydrogen Peroxide as disinfectant: 3% H2O2

Question 714

MIO medium: Motility Indole Ornithine

Question 715

Quaternary ammonium compounds are inactivated by: Organic substances

Question 716

Fite-Faraco stain: Hematoxylin as counterstain instead of methylene, AFB

Question 717

Sodium polyanethol sulfonate: Anti-phagocytic, anti-complement

Question 718

Bromthymol blue as indicator: HEA, TCBS, Simmon’s citrate agar

Question 719

Nasopharyngeal swabs: H. influenzae, N. meningitidis, B. pertussis

Question 720

Inhibits gram-positive bacteria: Crystal violet and sodium desoxycholate (bile salt)

Question 721

Inhibits gram-negative bacteria: Sodium azide, phenylethyl alcohol

Question 722

Detects gram-negative endotoxin: Limulus lysate test

Question 723

Protein A: Staphylococcus aureus, coagglutination

Question 724

Slime layer production: Staphylococcus epidermidis

Question 725

Protein M: Streptococcus pyogenes

Question 726

Colonies with ground glass appearance: Legionella (Mahon)

Question 727

Increased resistance of Pseudomonas aeruginosa to aminoglycosides: Increased calcium and magnesium

Question 728

Smallest free-living organism: Mycoplasma

Question 729

Benchmarking: Comparison with peers

Question 730

Histoplasma cross-reacts with: Blastomyces, Aspergillus and Coccidioides

Question 731

Aman medium stain: Lactophenol cotton blue

Question 732

Czapek’s medium: Isolation of Aspergillus

Question 733

African histoplasmosis: Histoplasma duboisii

Question 734

Test for Candida albicans that uses serum: Germ tube test

Question 735

Chlamydospore production of Candida albicans: Cornmeal agar

Question 736

Candidiasis infection affecting the oral cavity: Thrush

Question 737

General isolation media for fungi: Saboraud’s dextrose agar

Question 738

Major biologic hazard to laboratory personnel: Coccidioides immitis

Question 739

Sensitive fungal (fluorescent) dye that binds to cell wall: Calcofluor white

Question 740

Chromoblastomycosis: Sclerotic bodies

Question 741

Rose gardener’s disease: Sporotrichosis

Question 742

Eosinophilic material due to antigen-antibody reaction in cases of sporotrichosis: Asteroid body

Question 743

Largest DNA virus: Poxvirus

Question 744

Smallest DNA virus: Parvovirus

Question 745

Largest RNA virus: Paramyxovirus

Question 746

Smallest RNA virus: Enterovirus (Picornaviridae)

Question 747

Cross reactive antigen in all human adenoviruses: Hexon

Question 748

Gastroenteritis in children during winter months: Rotavirus

Question 749

Nonbacterial gastroenteritis in adults: Norovirus

Question 750

Toxic to HSV: Calcium alginate

Question 751

Isolation medium for Cytomegalovirus: Human fibroblast cells

Question 752

True amoeba: GENUS Entamoeba

Question 753

Trophozoite with ingested red blood cell: Entamoeba histolytica

Question 754

Trophozoite with ingested WBC: Entamoeba gingivalis

Question 755

Gay bowel syndrome: Giardiasis

Question 756

Cercaria minus a tail: Schistosomule

Question 757

Infective stage of Diphyllobothrium latum: Plerocercoid larva

Question 758

Resembles Diphyllobothrium latum adult: Spirometra

Question 759

Passing of proglottids of Taenia: Irritated by ALCOHOL

Question 760

Taenia spp. eggs: Hexacanth embryo with thick radial striations

Question 761

Cercarial dermatitis: Schistosomes

Question 762

Length of needle in routine phlebotomy: 1.0 – 1.5 inches

Question 763

Angle of draw in venipuncture: 15 to 30 ° angle (15 degree angle)

Question 764

The distance of drop of blood from the edge of the slide: 1 cm

Question 765

Blood production outside the bone marrow: EXTRAmedullary hematopoiesis

Question 766

Hematopoietic stem cell marker: CD 34

Question 767

Common acute lymphocytic leukemia antigen: CD 10

Question 768

Test for Hemoglobin S which uses black line: Dithionate solubility test

Question 769

Starry sky pattern under low power imparted by numerous macrophages with apoptotic debris: Burkitt’s lymphoma

Question 770

Granules (tertiary granules) present in Neutrophil: Alkaline phosphatase

Question 771

Euglobulin clot lysis time: Screening test for fibrinolysis

Question 772

Screening test for PNH: Sugar water screening test

Question 773

Derived from RBC Histogram: MCV, RDW

Question 774

Derived from Platelet Histogram: MPV, PDW

Question 775

In cyanmethemoglobin method, all hemoglobin are measured, except: Sulfhemoglobin

Question 776

Color of blood in sulfhemoglobinemia: Mauve lavender

Question 777

Patient with PNH received blood transfusion: Less lysis due to the presence of normal RBCs transfused

Question 778

Positive instrumental errors: Bubbles in the sample, extraneous electrical pulsesand aperture plugs (most common)

Question 779

Negative instrumental error: Excessive lysing of RBCs

Question 780

Instrumental error that is either a positive or negative error: Improper setting of aperture current or threshold

Question 781

Purplish red pinpoint hemorrhagic spots: Petechiae

Question 782

Blood escapes into SMALL areas of skin and mucous membrane: Purpura

Question 783

Blood escapes into LARGE areas of skin, mucous membrane, and other tissues: Ecchymosis

Question 784

Primary hemostasis: Vasoconstriction

Question 785

Outer surface of platelet: Glycocalyx

Question 786

Contains microtubules that maintains platelet shape: Sol-gel zone

Question 787

Platelet estimate of 100,000 to 149,000/µL: Slight decrease

Question 788

Platelet estimate of 150,000 to 199,000/µL: Low normal

Question 789

Labile factors: Factors V and VIII

Question 790

Prematurely activates at cold temperature: Factors VII FXI

Question 791

Vitamin K-dependent factors: Factors II, VII, IX, X

Question 792

Normal value for TEMPLATE bleeding time: 6 – 10 minutes

Question 793

Christmas factor: Factor IX

Question 794

Rosenthal syndrome: Factor XI deficiency

Question 795

Platelet estimate of 401,000 to 599,000/µl: Slight increase

Question 796

Platelet estimate of 600,000 to 800,000/µL: Moderate increase

Question 797

A surgical connection between to structures, it usually means a connection that is created between tubular structures, such as blood vessels or loops of intestines: ANASTOMOSIS

Question 798

Polyclonal antibodies used in immunohistochemical techniques are frequently derived from: RABBIT

Question 799

Most rapid of the common freezing agents: LIQUID NITROGEN

Question 800

General purpose fixative: 10% neutral buffered formalin

Question 801

Protein fixation: Neutral buffered formol saline or formaldehyde vapor

Question 802

Fixatives for nucleic acids: Ethanol, methanol and Carnoy’s solution

Question 803

Amount of fixative used has been 10 to 25 times the volume of tissue to be fixed. Recently, the maximum effectiveness of fixation is noted to be 20 times the tissue volume.

Question 804

Recommended ratio of fluid to tissue volume for DECALCIFICATION is 20 to 1

Question 805

Amount of dehydrating agent should not be less than 10 times the volume of tissue

Question 806

Dehydration: Low grade to high grade alcohol

Question 807

Absence of water: WHITE anhydrous copper sulfate

Question 808

Presence of water: BLUE anhydrous copper sulfate

Question 809

Clearing: Dealcoholization

Question 810

Most rapid embedding technique: Vacuum embedding

Question 811

Automated tissue processor: Fix, dehydrate, clear, and infiltrate

Question 812

Histochemical demonstration of ENZYMES: FROZEN SECTION

Question 813

ACRIDINE ORANGE is the most commonly used fluorochrome to demonstrate DNA and RNA in fresh or fixed tissues.

Question 814

Von Kossa’s silver nitrate method: Calcium salts = black

Question 815

Red chromogen for peroxidases: Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC)

Question 816

Brown chromogen for peroxidases: Diaminobenzidine (DAB)

Question 817

Administrative investigation:2 members of board + 1 legal officer

Question 818

Policies and guidelines for Med Tech Education: CMO no. 14 s. 2006

Question 819

Accreditation of clinical lab for training MT interns: CMO no. 6 s. 2008

Question 820

STAT, STATIM: Immediately

Question 821

Biodegradable wastes: Green bag

Question 822

CC Bishop
REFERENCE METHOD FOR CHOLESTEROL AND TRIGLYCERIDES: GC-MS
CHOLESTEROL: Abell-Kendall ➡️GC-MS
TRIGLYCERIDE: Modification of van Handel and Zilversmit ➡️ GC-MS

Question 823

CC Bishop
CHOLESTEROL MEASUREMENT

In the past, the reference method for cholesterol involved hexane extraction after hydrolysis with alcoholic KOH followed by reaction with Liebermann-Burchard color reagent, which comprises sulfuric and acetic acids and acetic anhydride.

Recently, the reference method has changed to a gas chromatography–mass spectrometry (GC–MS) method that now specifically measures cholesterol and does not detect related sterols.

Question 824

CC Bishop
TRIGLYCERIDE MEASUREMENT

Like the reference method for cholesterol, the CDC has recently switched to a GC–MS method that involves the hydrolysis of fatty acids on triglycerides and the measurement of glycerol.

Question 825

Urine for routine urinalysis: 10 to 15 ml urine (50 ml-container capacity)

Question 826

Urine for drug testing: 30 to 45 ml (60 ml-container capacity)

Question 827

Urine for cytology: at least 50 ml urine (Gregorios)

Question 828

Venipucture: 15 to 30 degree angle

Question 829

Arterial puncture: 45 to 60 degree angle (90 degrees for femoral artery)

Question 830

Before blood is collected from the radial artery in the wrist, one should do a MODIFIED ALLEN TEST to determine whether the ulnar artery can provide collateral circulation to the hand after the radial artery puncture.

Question 831

Central Venous Assess (CVA) collection: eliminates multiple phlebotomies and surgical situations. Five (5) ml of blood must be drawn and discarded to eliminate contaminants. CVA is not recommended for bacteriology (organisms can contaminate specimen)

Question 832

Order of draw from CATHETER LINES: First 3 to 5 ml blood is discarded THEN, blood culture, anticoagulated tubes and clot tubes.

Question 833

Donor bleeding: 45 degree angle to the skin, make a quick clean puncture; once in the skin, reduce the angle of the needle to about 10 to 20 degrees

Question 834

Anaerobic and require ICE slurry (immediate cooling): Lactic acid, ammonia, blood gas (if not analyzed within 30 min = ↓ pH, and po2), iCa+2 (heparinized whole blood if not analyzed within 30 min)

Question 835

C-Peptide test: evaluates hypoglycemia and continuous assessment of beta cell function

Question 836

Increased C-peptide: Insulinoma, type 2 DM, ingestion of hypoglycemic drugs

Question 837

Decreased C-peptide: Type 1 DM

Question 838

Colorimetric method for Triglycerides: van Handel and Zilversmith

Question 839

CDC reference method for TAG: Modified van Handel and Zilversmith ➡️GC-MS

Question 840

Fluorometric method for Triglycerides: Hantzch condensation

Question 841

Largest and least dense: CHYLOMICRONS

Question 842

Smallest but the most dense: HDL

Question 843

Found in obstructive jaundice and LCAT deficiency: Lipoprotein X

Question 844

Floating beta lipoprotein: β-VLDL

Question 845

Sinking pre-beta lipoprotein: Lp (a)

Question 846

Triglycerides, LDLc: FASTING 12 to 14 hours

Question 847

Formula for LDLc: Total cholesterol – HDL – VLDL

Question 848

Friedewald VLDLc (mmol/L): Triglycerides/2.175

Question 849

De Long VLDLc (mmol/L): Triglycerides/2.825

Question 850

Friedewald VLDLc (mg/dL): Triglycerides/5

Question 851

De Long VLDLc (mg/dL): Triglycerides/6.5

Question 852

ONE-STEP direct method for cholesterol: LIEBERMANN-BURCHARDT (L-B)

Question 853

One-step method for cholesterol: Colorimetry (Pearson, Stern and MacGavack)

Question 854

Two-step method for cholesterol: C + Extraction (Bloors)

Question 855

Three-step method for cholesterol: C+ E + Saponification (Abell-Kendall)

Question 856

Four-step method for cholesterol: C + E + S + Precipitation (Schoenheimer, Sperry, Parekh and Jung)

Question 857

REFERENCE METHOD FOR CHOLESTEROL: Abell-Kendall ➡️GC-MS (Bishop)

Question 858

REFERENCE METHOD FOR TRIGLYCERIDE: Modification of van Handel and Zilversmit ➡️GC-MS (Bishop)

Question 859

TANGIER’S DISEASE: HDL is abnormal and significantly reduced

Question 860

Activated at cold temperature: Factors VII and XI (seven, eleven)

Question 861

Labile factors, decrease on storage: Factors V and VIII (five, eight)

Question 862

Wintrobe tube: 11.5 cm long, 3 mm bore

Question 863

Westergren tube: 30 cm long, 2.5 mm bore

Question 864

Capillary tube: 7 to 7.5 cm (70-75 mm) long, 1 mm bore (1.2 mm)

Question 865

Macrohematocrit: Centrifuge at 2,000 to 2,300 g for 30 minutes

Question 866

Microhematocrit: Centrifuge at 10,000 to 15,000 g for 5 minutes (five minutes)

Question 867

Normocytic, normochromic: Acute blood loss, hemolytic anemia, aplastic anemia

Question 868

Microcytic, hypochromic: Anemia of chronic disease, thalassemia, IDA and sideroblastic anemia

Question 869

Macrocytic, normochromic: MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA

Question 870

Poikilocytosis: DECREASED ESR

Question 871

Correction for WBC count, Adult: 5 or more nucleated RBCs/100 WBC differential

Question 872

Correction for WBC count, Neonate: 10 or more nucleated RBCs/100 WBC differential

Question 873

Increased EDTA: Decreased hematocrit, decreased ESR

Question 874

Hemoglobinopathies: QUALITATIVE defect in hemoglobin

Question 875

Thalassemia: QUANTITATIVE defect in hemoglobin

Question 876

Responsible for clot retraction: THROMBOSTHENIN

Question 877

Electromechanical detection of fibrin clot: FIBROMETER

Question 878

Photo-optical detection: Electra, COAG-A-MATE, Ortho-Koagulab

Question 879

Stains for the BASEMENT MEMBRANE: PAS and azocarmine

Question 879

Complement-dependent cytotoxicity: INVERTED PHASE CONTRAST microscope

Question 880

Fixatives for H & E: All fixatives can be used except those that contain osmic acid. Osmic acid (like Flemming’s) inhibits hematoxylin

Question 881

Manual H & E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING, it includes a differentiation step

Question 882

Harris hematoxylin: Primary/Basic/Nuclear stain

Question 883

Eosin: Secondary/Counterstain/Acid/Cytoplasmic stain

Question 884

Stain of choice for cytology: ORIGINAL Pap’s stain

Question 885

Pap’s stain consists of 3 stains: Harris hematoxylin, Orange green (OG6) and Eosin Azure (EA)

Question 886

Harris hematoxylin: stains the nucleus

Question 887

OG 6: stains the cytoplasm of mature cells (superficial cells)

Question 888

EA 36/50/65: stains the cytoplasm of immature cells (parabasal, intermediate cells)

Question 889

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
FIRST PRESIDENT: Charlemagne T. Tamondong “Emergence of the Profession” (1963-1967)

Question 890

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Nardito D. Moraleta “Professional Recognition” (1967-1970)

Question 891

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Felix E. Asprer “Legislative Agenda” (1970-1971, 1973-1976)

Question 892

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Bernardo T. Tabaosares “Celebration of the Practice” (1971-1973)

Question 893

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Angelina R. Jose “Career Advocacy” (1973)

Question 894

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Venerable C.V. Chua (Venerable OCA) “Educational Enhancement” (1977-1981)

Question 895

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Carmencita P. Acedera “Image Building” (1982-1991)

Question 896

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Marilyn R. Atienza “Proactivism” (1992-1996)

Question 897

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Norma N. Chang “International Leadership” (1997-2000)

Question 898

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Agnes B. Medenilla “Organizational Dynamism” (2001-2002, 2005-2006)

Question 899

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Shirley F. Cruzada “Interdisciplinary Networking” (2003-2004)

Question 900

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Leila M. Florento “Beyond Expectations” (2007-2012)

Question 901

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Romeo Joseph J. Ignacio “Soar Higher through V.O.I.C.E.” Visibility, Oneness, Integrity, Commitment and Excellence (2013 - 2015)

Question 902

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Ronaldo E. Puno (2015-2020)

Question 903

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
Rommel Saceda (2020-2022)

Question 904

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS:
CURRENT PAMET PRESIDENT IS MA’AM LUELLA VERTUCIO (2020 to present)

Question 905

FATHER OF PAMET: CRISANTO ALMARIO

Question 906

PAMET was originally organized on SEPTEMBER 15, 1963

Question 907

PAMET HYMN Music: Francis Jerota Pefanco

Question 908

PAMET HYMN Lyrics: Hector Gentapanan Gayares, Jr.

Question 909

Current PAMET President: Ma’am Luella Vertucio

Question 910

Current PASMETH President: Dean Jose Jurel Nuevo

Question 911

Board of MT Head: Dr. Marilyn Barza

Question 912

Board of MT Member: Ma’am Leila Lani Florento

Question 913

PRC CHAIRPERSON: Atty. Charito Zamora

Question 914

DOH SECRETARY Dr. Teodoro Herbosa

Question 915

BIPHASIC MEDIUM/CASTANEDA BOTTLES: BRUCELLA

Question 916

CIN medium: Y. enterocolitica

Question 917

CCFA: C. difficile

Question 918

BCYE medium: Legionella

Question 919

HBT medium: Gardnerella

Question 920

ssDNA: Parvovirus

Question 921

dsRNA: Reovirus

Question 922

Smallest RNA virus: Enterovirus (Picornaviridae)

Question 923

Acid-resistant: Enterovirus

Question 924

Acid-sensitive: Rhinovirus

Question 925

KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES

Question 926

Measles: RUBEOLA

Question 927

German measles: RUBELLA

Question 928

Chickenpox: VARICELLA

Question 929

Odor of bitter almonds: CYANIDE

Question 930

Garlic on breath, metallic taste on mouth: ARSERNIC

Question 931

A blood alcohol level in the range of 80 mg/dL has been established as the statutory limit for operation of a motor vehicle in the United States.

This is associated with a diminution of judgment and motor performance.

The determination of blood ethanol concentration by the laboratory in cases of drunk driving requires an appropriate chain of custody, documentation of quality control, and proficiency testing records.

Question 932

Potentiometry: measurement of pH and pCO2

Question 933

Amperometry: measurement of pO2

Question 934

High affinity to keratin: ARSENIC

Question 935

Visible region: 400 to 700 nm

Question 936

UV region <400 nm

Question 937

Infrared region > 700 nm

Question 938

Cholesterol, acceptable CV ≤ 3%

Question 939

Triglyceride, acceptable CV ≤ 5%

Question 940

HDLc, LDLc acceptable CV ≤ 4%

Question 941

OBESE BMI ≥ 30 kg/sq.m. [ASIA-PACIFIC 25]

Question 942

Overweight BMI 25 to 29.9 kg/sq.m.

Question 943

Underweight BMI < 18.5 kg/sq.m.

Question 944

BASAL STATE: early morning before the patient has eaten or become physically active

Question 945

STAT for the Latin word statim meaning immediately. Tests that fall into this category include:
Glucose in diabetic ketoacidosis
Some drug levels such as theophylline
Amylase in suspected pancreatitis
CK in suspected MI
Hematocrit
Blood gases
Potassium

Question 946

CRITICAL VALUES or PANIC VALUES: list of analytes that truly do have the potential to be lethal if unchecked for a short period.

Question 947

SCHILLING TEST: Laboratory determination of vitamin B12 absorption

Question 948

Hemostatic mechanisms comprise four (4) main systems: the vascular system, platelets, coagulation system and fibrinolytic system.

Question 949

OSMOLALITY
Osmolality = 2Na + ( Glucose/20 ) + ( BUN/3 )
Osmolality = 1.86Na + ( Glucose/18 ) +
( BUN/2.8 ) + 9

Question 950

ANION GAP (AG)
AG = Na - (Cl + HCO3)
AG = (Na + K) – (Cl + HCO3)

Question 951

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Uric acid is alkali soluble

Question 952

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Amorphous urates - soluble in alkali and heat

Question 953

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
CaOx - soluble in dilute HCl

Question 954

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Amorphous phosphates - soluble in dilute acetic acid

Question 955

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Calcium phosphate - soluble in dilute acetic acid

Question 956

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Triple phosphate - soluble in dilute acetic acid

Question 957

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Ammonium biurate - soluble in acetic acid with heat

Question 958

NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Calcium carbonate - forms gas from acetic acid

Question 959

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Cystine is soluble in ammonia, dilute HCl

Question 960

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Cholesterol is soluble in chloroform

Question 961

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Leucine is soluble in hot alkali or alcohol

Question 962

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Tyrosine is soluble in alkali or heat

Question 963

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Bilirubin is soluble in acetic acid, HCl, NaOH, ether and chloroform

Question 964

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Sulfonamides soluble in acetone

Question 965

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Radiographic dye soluble in 10% NaOH

Question 966

ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS:
Ampicillin crystals form bundles when refrigerated

Question 967

F. tularensis is a very small, strictly aerobic, coccoid to pleomorphic rod-shaped, gram-negative bacillus that requires CYSTINE or CYSTEINE for growth

Question 968

Legionella spp. may be isolated on BCYE agar supplemented with growth factors, including L-CYSTINE, FERRIC SALT, AND Α-KETOGLUTARATE.

Question 969

Bordetella spp. are strictly aerobic, nonfermentative, catalase-positive, minute coccobacilli requiring NICOTINIC ACID, CYSTEINE, and usually METHIONINE for growth.

Question 970

MEDICAL MALPRACTICE is misconduct or lack of skill by a health-care professional that results in injury to the patient.

Question 971

NEGLIGENCE, which is defined as failure to give reasonable care by the health-care provider, must be proven in a malpractice suit.

Question 972

SERUM or PLASMA is the specimen of choice for the determination of circulating concentrations of most drugs.

Question 973

Analysis for the presence of ABUSED SUBSTANCES has focused primarily on the use of URINE as the test sample of choice. The urine specimen represents the net load of the drug over a long period, whereas the blood sample provides only a quick picture of the drug level at a specific time. DRUGS OF ABUSE, CALBREATH

Question 974

CHAIN OF CUSTODY
Processing steps for such specimens—initial collection, transportation, storage, and analytical testing— must be documented by careful record keeping. Documentation ensures that there has been no tampering with the specimen by any interested parties, that the specimen has been collected from the appropriate person, and that the results reported are accurate.

Each step of the COLLECTION, HANDLING, PROCESSING, TESTING, AND REPORTING PROCESSES must be documented; this is called the chain of custody.

Question 975

RICE BODIES are fragments of degenerating proliferative synovial cells or microinfarcted synovium.

Question 976

OCHRONOTIC SHARDS, ground pepper appearance from pigmented cartilage fragments may be the result of a metabolic disorder (i.e., ochronosis).

Question 977

PROBLEMS: RBCs appear gray, WBCs are too dark, eosinophil granules are gray, not orange.
CAUSES: Stain or buffer too alkaline (most common), inadequate rinsing, prolonged staining, heparinized blood sample.

Question 978

PROBLEMS: RBCs are too pale or are RED, WBCs are barely visible.
CAUSES: Stain or buffer too acidic (most common), underbuffering (too short), over-rinsing.

Question 979

HBeAg indicates HIGH INFECTIVITY.

Question 980

CORDOCENTESIS, or percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS).

Question 981

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
Formaldehyde – for Addis count

Question 982

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
HCl – for epinephrine, norepinephrine, catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid

Question 983

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
Glacial acetic acid pH 4.5 – for aldosterone

Question 984

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
Sodium carbonate – for porphyrins and urobilinogen (to ensure alkalinity)

Question 985

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
Glacial acetic acid pH 2.0 – for serotonin

Question 986

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
Conc. HCl – for steroids, ammonia, urea, total nitrogen

Question 987

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
Chloroform – for aldosterone

Question 988

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
Sulfuric acid – preserves calcium and other inorganic constituents

Question 989

SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES:
Sodium fluoride or benzoic acid – ideal for glucose analysis, prevents glycolysis

Question 990

TYPES OF HUMAN STEM CELLS
Functionally, three types of human stem cells exist:
1. Totipotential stem cells
These cells are present in the first few hours after an ovum is fertilized.
Totipotential stem cells, the most versatile type of stem cell, can develop into any human cell type, including development from embryo into fetus.
2. Pluripotential stem cells
These cells are present several days after fertilization.
Pluripotent stem cells can develop into any cell type, except they cannot develop into a fetus.
3. Multipotential stem cells
These cells are derived from pluripotent stem cells.
They can be found in adults, but they are limited to specific types of cells to form tissues.
For example, bone marrow stem cells can produce all types of blood cells, bone cartilage, and adipose (fat) cells.

Question 991

Rheumatic fever, which is manifested by fever, endocarditis (inflammation of heart muscle), subcutaneous nodules, and polyarthritis, usually follows respiratory tract infections and is thought to be mediated by antibodies produced against S. pyogenes M protein that cross-react with human heart tissue.

Acute glomerulonephritis, characterized by edema, hypertension, hematuria, and proteinuria, can follow respiratory or cutaneous infections and is mediated by antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in glomeruli, where they initiate damage.

Question 992

WORLD HEALTH ORGANIZATION PUBLISHED STANDARDS FOR: 1. GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE (GMP) 1999 2. GOOD CLINICAL PRACTICE (GCP) 1995 3. GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE (GLP) 2001

Question 993

Additional information: FUNCTIONS OF THE DANGEROUS DRUGS BOARD - The Dangerous Drugs Board. – The Board shall be the policy-making and strategy-formulating body in the planning and formulation of policies and programs on drug prevention and control.

Question 994

Highest CK

Answer 994

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)

Question 995

Highest LD

Answer 995

Pernicious anemia

Question 996

Killer immunoglobulin-like receptor (KIR) system. KIRs are one of several types of cell surface molecules that regulate the activity of NK lymphocytes. Alloreactive NK cells have been shown to mediate a graft-versus-leukemia (GVL) reaction and prevent relapse after transplantation for certain types of hematologic malignancies.

Answer 996

Noted, these alloreactive NK cells have been shown to mediate a graft-versus-leukemia (GVL) reaction and prevent relapse after transplantation for certain types of hematologic malignancies.