SMART Flashcards

(1013 cards)

1
Q

Double embedding:
Infiltrated with ________ then embedded with ______.

A

Celloidin; Paraffin

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2
Q

Flotation waterbath temp:

A

45 to 50 C

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3
Q

To remove formalin pigments:

A

Picric acid

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4
Q

To remove mercurial deposits:

A

Iodine

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5
Q

Explosive when dry:

A

Picric acid

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6
Q

Function of alum in hematoxylin:

A

Mordant

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7
Q

Primary importance of Frozen Sections:

A

RAPID DIAGNOSIS

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8
Q

Enzyme histochemistry:

A

Frozen section

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9
Q

Second best choice for routine cytologic examination after Papanicolau:

A

Phase contrast microscopy

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10
Q

NOT SUITABLE fixative for kidney structures:

A

Bouin’s

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11
Q

Cell death due to ischemia (loss of blood supply) is known as infarction, and is manifested by characteristic histologic appearance:

A

COAGULATION NECROSIS

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12
Q

bacteria responsible of Pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea:

A

Clostridium difficile

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13
Q

Most frequently recovered Corynebacterium species from human clinical material. It is part of the normal skin microbiota:

A

Corynebacterium amycolatum

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14
Q

Primary fungal pathogen in HIV patients:

A

Candida albicans

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15
Q

parasite with double-walled, wrinkled cyst form:

A

Acanthamoeba castellanii

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16
Q

Intracellular form of blood and tissue flagellates:

A

Leishmanial form

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17
Q

Normal stool pH:

A

pH 7 to 8

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18
Q

Stool pH associated with CHO disorders:

A

pH 5.5 or less

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19
Q

Microhematocrit centrifugate for:

A

10,000 g for 5 minutes

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20
Q

Standing plasma test determine:

A

creamy layer (chylomicrons); turbid (VLDL)

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21
Q

Microanatomical fixatives should never contain ________ because it inhibits hematoxylin.

A

osmic acid/osmium tetroxide

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22
Q

Nuclear fixatives should contain ________ due to its affinity for nuclear chromatin.

A

glacial acetic acid

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23
Q

These fixatives should never contain Glacial Acetic Acid because it destroys the mitochondria and Golgi bodies:

A

Cytoplasmic fixatives (Flemming’s without HAc, Regaud’s, Orth’s, Helly’s and formalin with post-chroming)

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24
Q

Manual paraffin wax infiltration and embedding:

A

At least four (4) changes of wax are required at 15 minutes interval to ensure complete removal of the clearing agent from tissue. The specimen is then immersed in another fresh solution of melted paraffin for approximately 3 hours to ensure complete embedding or casting of tissue.

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25
microtome invented by Paldwell Treffall:
Cambridge/Rocking microtome
26
Bond between Best carmine and glycogen:
Coulombic attraction/electrostatic bonds, hydrogen bonds
27
Routine H and E:
Regressive staining, it involves a differentiation step
28
Stains for the glomerular basement membrane:
PAS, Azocarmine stain
29
Postmortem clotting:
immediately after death, rubbery consistency
30
Antemortem thrombi:
friable, characterized by fibrin precipitation
31
Leadership:
DIRECTING
32
COMPONENTS OF FIBRIN GLUE:
cryoprecipitate (fibrinogen) and topical thrombin
33
Donor deferral, measles (rubeola) vaccination:
2 weeks
34
Donor deferral, German measles (Rubella) vaccination:
4 weeks
35
When stained with Sternheimer-Malbin stain: GLITTER CELLS stain ________ as opposed to the VIOLET COLOR usually seen with NEUTROPHILS.
Glitter cell stain LIGHT BLUE
36
After episodes of hemoglobinuria, yellow-brown granules may be seen in renal tubular epithelial cells and casts or free-floating in the urine sediment. To confirm that these granules are hemosiderin, the ________ is used and stains the hemosiderin granules a ________. (RTE cells with HEMOSIDERIN).
Prussian blue stain for iron; blue color
37
Second most prevalent protein in CSF:
Prealbumin (transthyretin)
38
is usually defined as a newborn’s first bowel movement. which is formed in the intestine from fetal intestinal secretions and swallowed amniotic fluid. It is a dark green, mucus-like material. It may be present in the amniotic fluid as a result of fetal distress.
MECONIUM
39
Blood should NEVER be drawn from a vein in an arm with a ____ (temporary dialysis access device) or ____ (a permanent surgical fusion of a vein and an artery).
cannula (temporary dialysis access device); fistula (a permanent surgical fusion of a vein and an artery)
40
Adverse reaction of Aminoglycosides:
Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
41
neuromotor irritability accompanied by muscular twitching and eventual convulsions; generally due to low calcium levels (hypocalcemia):
TETANY
42
Reagent for the APT test:
1% NaOH
43
APT test: fetal blood
pink solution
44
APT test: maternal blood
yellow-brown supernatant
45
test for choline: (Iodine, KI/ dark brown rhombic crystals)
Florence test
46
test for spermine: (Picric acid, TCA/ yellow leafshaped crystals, needles)
Barbiero's test
47
test to differentiate hemoglobin from myoglobin, ammonium sulfate will precipitate hemoglobin:
Blondheim's test
48
Nanometer is also ____ micron
millimicron
49
Embedding medium for EM is
Plastic
50
Best vital stain is
neutral red
51
Vital stain for mitochondria is
Janus Green
52
Ferning:
Early pregnancy
53
Pap's consists of 3 stains:
Harris hematoxylin, OG 6 and EA
54
Total renal BLOOD flow is
1200 mL/min
55
Total renal PLASMA flow is
600 to 700 mL/min
56
Most potent estrogen is
Estradiol
57
Most important androgen in terms of potency and amount secreted is (Marshall)
testosterone
58
Conn syndrome:
primary aldosteronism
59
male-pattern hair growth in women; most common cause is PCOS (polycystic ovary syndrome, Marshall)
Hirsutism
60
Primary male hypogonadism: ____ testosterone ____ LH and FSH
Decreased testosterone; Increased LH and FSH
61
Secondary male hypogonadism: ____ testosterone ____ LH and FSH
Decreased testosterone; Decreased LH and FSH
62
early morning before the patient has eaten or become physically active. This is a good time to draw blood specimens because the is at rest and food has not been ingested during the night.
BASAL STATE
63
substance than can yield a hydrogen ion or hydronium ion when dissolved in water
ACID
64
substance than can yield hydroxyl ions (OH-)
BASE
65
properties of osmotic pressure, freezing point, boiling point and vapor pressure
COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES
66
t-test:
compare Accuracy, Mean ## Footnote TAM T - t test A - Accuracy M - Mean
67
f-test:
compare precision, SD ## Footnote SPF S -SD P - Precision F - f test
68
type of error: 1:2SD, 1:3SD, R:4S (ODD NUMBERS)
Random error
69
type of error: 2:2SD, 4:1SD, 10:x (EVEN NUMBERS)
Systematic error
70
Order kinetics: reaction rate is dependent on enzyme concentration only
ZERO-ORDER KINETICS
71
Order kinetics: reaction rate is directly proportional to substrate concentration
FIRST-ORDER KINETICS
72
thickening or hardening of the walls of arteries:
Arteriosclerosis
73
accumulation of lipid in the veins and arteries:
Atherosclerosis
74
elevated urea in blood (Turgeon: urea and creatinine):
Azotemia
75
deficiency of adrenocortical hormones:
Addison’s disease
76
aldosterone-secreting adrenal adenoma:
Conn’s syndrome
77
excessive production of glucocorticoids (cortisol):
Cushing’s syndrome
78
tumors of the adrenal medulla or sympathetic ganglia that produce and release large quantities of catecholamines:
Phaeochromocytoma
79
cessation of menstruation
Amenorrhea
80
Greek work YELLOW; irreversible scarring process by which normal liver architecture is transformed into abnormal nodular architecture:
Cirrhosis
81
hereditary disorder in which there is DECREASED BILIRUBIN TRANSPORT into the hepatocytes:
Gilbert’s syndrome
82
hereditary DEFICIENCY of the UDPG-TRANSFERASE ENZYME:
Crigler-Najjar syndrome
83
associated with increased plasma conjugated bilirubin, inborn error of metabolism:
Dubin-Johnson syndrome
84
possibly of viral origin, where there is also a block in the excretion of conjugated bilirubin but without liver pigmentation:
Rotor syndrome
85
is a defect of copper transport from the liver resulting in overload of copper in liver and brain:
Wilson’s disease
86
is an X-linked recessive disorder in which defective transport of copper from mucosal cells results in copper deficiency:
Menkes disease
87
chronic autoimmune thyroiditis; it is the most common cause of primary hypothyroidism:
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
88
diffuse toxic goiter
Graves’ disease
89
chronic protein deficiency under conditions of adequate non–protein calorie intake, which leads to marked hypoalbuminemia; may result from the net loss of albumin from both the intravascular and extravascular pools
Kwashiorkor
90
a deficiency of calories with adequate protein status. In this condition; the serum albumin level remains normal despite considerable loss of body weight
Marasmus
91
cells of the testicles that produce testosterone
Leydig cells
92
Kidds = Duffy =
Kidds = anti-Jka, -Jkb Duffy = anti-Fya, -Fyb ## Footnote "Kid(d)s and Duffy the Monkey (Rh) eat Lots of M&Ns" Kidds = anti-Jka, -Jkb Duffy = anti-Fya, -Fyb Monkey = Rh antibodies M&Ns = anti-M, -N, -S, -s Lots = dosage
93
cell membrane marker of stem cells:
CD34
94
GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing hemoglobin degradation products such as methemoglobin:
ACUTE TUBULAR NECROSIS
95
Providing an antibody with its corresponding antigen under optimal conditions so that the antibody will attach to the antigen, thereby removing the antibody from the serum:
ADSORPTION
96
process whereby cells that are coated with antibody are treated in such a manner as to disrupt the bonds between the antigen and antibody:
ELUTION
97
simplest type of mutation Only one nucleotide in the DNA sequence is changed Includes substitutions, insertions, and deletions:
POINT MUTATION
98
gene that does not appear to produce a detectable antigen; a silent gene:
AMORPH
99
connection between two blood vessels, either direct or through connecting channels:
ANASTOMOSIS
100
ANTI-A1 LECTIN:
DOLICHOS BIFLORUS
101
ANTI-B LECTIN:
BANDEIRAEA SIMPLICIFOLIA
102
ANTI-H LECTIN:
ULEX EUROPAEUS
103
ANTI-M LECTIN:
IBERIS AMARA
104
ANTI-N LECTIN:
VICIA GRAMINEA
105
phenomenon whereby an antibody reacts more strongly with a red blood cell carrying a double dose (homozygous inheritance of the appropriate gene) than with a red blood cell carrying a single dose (heterozygous inheritance) of an antigen:
DOSAGE
106
portion of the antigen molecule that is directly involved in the interaction with the antibody; the ANTIGENIC DETERMINANT:
EPITOPE
107
antigenic characteristic of the red blood cell membrane that is unique to an individual or a related family of individuals and therefore is not commonly found on all cells (usually less than 1% of the population):
PRIVATE ANTIGEN
108
antigen characteristic of the red blood cell membrane found commonly among individuals, usually more than 98% of the population:
PUBLIC ANTIGEN
109
programmed cell death:
Apoptosis
110
small hemorrhagic spot, LARGER THAN PETECHIA, in the skin or mucous membrane, forming a rounded or irregular blue or purplish patch; also known as bruise:
Ecchymosis
111
fingernails are thin, flattened and concave; associated with iron deficiency anemia:
Koilonychia
112
thin, flat red cell with hemoglobin at periphery and increased central pallor; hypochromic cell:
Leptocyte
113
this presence is definitive histologic diagnosis of HODGKIN’S DISEASE
Reed-Sternberg cell
114
leukocytes of the myelocytic series, and sometimes all leukocytes contain coarse azurophilic mucopolysaccharide granules:
Alder-Reilly anomaly
115
needle-shaped or round inclusion in the cytoplasm of myeloblasts and promyelocytes; composed of condensed primary granules:
Auer rod
116
congenital, autosomal recessive disorder, characterized by partial albinism, photophobia and the presence of abnormally large blue granules in leukocytes:
Chediak-Higashi anomaly
117
autosomal dominant inherited blood cell disorder characterized by thrombocytopenia and granules containing cytoplasmic inclusions similar to Dohle bodies:
May-Hegglin anomaly
118
cutaneous T CELL LYMPHOMA characterized by exfoliative erythroderma, peripheral lymphadenopathy and Sezary cells present in the skin, lymph nodes and peripheral blood:
Sezary syndrome
119
rare disorder of fat metabolism caused by deficiency of glucocerebrosidase:
Gaucher’s disease
120
mutations to platelet GP IB or GP IX, defect of platelet adhesion
Bernard-Soulier syndrome
121
mutations to platelet GP IIb or IIIa; defect of fibrinogen-dependent platelet aggregation
Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
122
protein produced by the neutrophils and stored in the secondary granules that is able bind iron:
Lactoferrin
123
basic pipet:
GLASS PIPET
124
blood samples for glucose testing and for other assays are used frequently in many health care facilities for bedside testing, or point-of-care testing (POCT):
CAPILLARY BLOOD SAMPLES
125
hormone produced by the hypothalamus to regulate water reabsorption in the COLLECTING DUCT:
ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE
126
regulates flow of blood to and within the kidneys by responding to changes in blood pressure and plasma sodium content:
RENIN-ANGIOTENSIN-ALDOSTERONE SYSTEM
127
BLACK, TARRY STOOL associated with gastrointestinal hemorrhage:
MELENA
128
stool associated with pancreatic disorder, bile-duct obstruction:
BULKY/FROTHY STOOL
129
stool associated with intestinal constriction:
RIBBON-LIKE STOOL
130
stool associated with upper GI bleeding, iron therapy, charcoal, BISMUTH (antacids):
BLACK STOOL
131
absence of sperm in a semen sample:
AZOOSPERMIA
132
low sperm count:
OLIGOSPERMIA
133
immature spermatozoa:
SPERMATIDS
134
Part of the germinal epithelium of the seminiferous tubules, give rise to spermatozoa:
SERTOLI CELLS
135
cells of the testicles that produce testosterone:
LEYDIG CELLS
136
tip of a spermatozoa head, which contains enzymes for entry into an ovum:
ACROSOMAL CAP
137
color-change phenomenon occurring because PROTEINS ACT AS HYDROGEN ION ACCEPTORS AT A CONSTANT PH:
PROTEIN ERROR OF INDICATORS
138
abrupt change in the mean of a series of results:
SHIFT
139
gradual change in one direction of the mean of a control substance:
TREND
140
step-by-step documentation of the handling and testing of legal specimens:
CHAIN OF CUSTODY
141
continuous link in the transmission of harmful microorganisms between a source and a susceptible host:
CHAIN OF INFECTION
142
institutional policy to provide customer satisfaction:
TOTAL QUALITY MANAGEMENT (TQM)
143
institutional program that focuses on customer satisfaction and expectations:
CONTINUOUS QUALITY IMPROVEMENT (CQI)
144
light scattered at an angle of less than 90 degrees, which indicates the SIZE OF A CELL:
FORWARD angle light scatter
145
light scattered at 90 degrees in a flow cytometer that indicates the GRANULARITY OF A CELL:
SIDE ANGLE, right angle light scatter
146
test that measures TOTAL IgE:
RADIOIMMUNOSORBENT TEST (RIST)
147
test that measures ANTIGEN-SPECIFIC IgE:
RADIOALLERGOSORBENT TEST (RAST)
148
RNA viral cause of German or 3-day measles:
RUBELLA
149
single-stranded RNA virus that cause measles:
RUBEOLA
150
amoeboid movement of cells such as monocytes and polymorphonuclear neutrophils to a site of inflammation in phagocytosis:
DIAPEDESIS
151
congenital defect of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches that affects thymic development, leading to a T-cell deficiency. Patients are subject to recurring viral and fungal infections:
DiGeorge anomaly
152
dysproteinemia synonymous with gamma heavy-chain disease. This abnormality is characterized by the presence of monoclonal protein composed of the heavy-chain portion of the immunoglobulin molecule:
Franklin’s disease
153
An alternate term for multiple myeloma:
Kahler’s disease
154
molecule when coupled to a hapten, makes the hapten capable of stimulating an immune response:
CARRIER
155
simple chemical group that can bind to antibody once it is formed but that CANNOT stimulate antibody formation unless tied to a larger carrier molecule:
HAPTEN
156
single antigenic determinant. It is functionally the portion of an antigen that combines with an antibody paratope:
EPITOPE
157
part of the antibody molecule that makes contact with the antigenic determinant:
PARATOPE
158
frequency of positive results obtained in testing a population of individuals who are positive for antibody:
SENSITIVITY
159
proportion of negative test results obtained in the population of individuals who actually lack the antibody in question:
SPECIFICITY
160
antigens that are expressed in the developing fetus and in rapidly dividing tissue, such as that associated with tumors, but that are absent in normal adult tissue:
ONCOFETAL ANTIGENS
161
malignant tumor of EPITHELIAL TISSUE origin:
CARCINOMA
162
malignant tumor of CONNECTIVE TISSUE origin:
SARCOMA
163
PRC was attached to the ____ pursuant to Executive Order No. 565. Executive Order No. 565-A was issued, delegating the Presidential power of control over the PRC to the DOLE Secretary.
Department of Labor and Employment
164
DRIVING FORCE of the bicarbonate buffer system is
CARBON DIOXIDE
165
time from ordering a test through analysis in the laboratory to the charting of the report:
TURNAROUND TIME (TAT)
166
Hazardous chemicals should be labeled with a description of their particular hazard, such as:
POISONOUS, CORROSIVE OR CARCINOGENIC
167
Information contained in the Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) includes the following:
physical and chemical characteristics, fire and explosion potential, reactivity potential, health hazards and methods for safe handling
168
Urinometer is placed with a ____ MOTION. The scale reading is then taken at the ____ OF THE URINE MENISCUS.
SPINNING MOTION; BOTTOM OF THE URINE MENISCUS
169
Studies have shown that although everyone who eats ____ produces a urine odor, ONLY certain genetically predisposed people can smell the odor.
ASPARAGUS
170
CABBAGE urine odor:
METHIONINE MALABSORPTION
171
The ____ portion of MYOGLOBIN IS TOXIC TO RENAL TUBULES and high concentrations can cause ____
heme portion; acute renal failure
172
CASTS have tendency to locate ____ OF THE COVERSLIP.
NEAR THE EDGES
173
ETHYLENE GLYCOL (anti-freeze) poisoning:
MONOHYDRATE CAOX
174
coffin-lid or FEATHERY APPEARANCE (as they disintegrate):
TRIPLE PHOSPHATE
175
provides a method for counting UNDILUTED seminal fluid. Sperms are immobilized by heating part of the specimen prior to charging the chamber:
MAKLER COUNTING CHAMBER
176
provides OBJECTIVE determination of both SPERM VELOCITY and TRAJECTORY (DIRECTION OF MOTION):
COMPUTER-ASSISTED SEMEN ANALYSIS (CASA)
177
A maximum of ____ AMNIOTIC FLUID is collected in sterile syringes. The first 2 to 3 mL collected can be contaminated by maternal blood, tissue fluid and cells and are discarded:
30 mL amniotic fluid
178
diarrhea with increased RETENTION of water and solutes in the large intestine associated with MALABSORPTION AND MALDIGESTION:
OSMOTIC DIARRHEA
179
diarrhea with increased SECRETION of water and electrolytes into the large intestine caused by BACTERIAL ENTEROTOXINS:
SECRETORY DIARRHEA
180
Plasmapheresis donor, total protein at least:
6 g/dL
181
Packed red blood cells LEAK ____ into the plasma or additive solution of the blood component during storage. Rapid infusion of a large volume of packed red blood cells may put patient populations such as neonates and patients with cardiac, hepatic, or renal dysfunction at risk of developing hyperkalemia. The transient hyperkalemia related to massive transfusion appear to be related to the patient’s acid base balance, ionized calcium levels, and rate of infusion of the packed red blood cells
POTASSIUM
182
Significant Antibody titer in HDN: HARMENING 4th edition: significant is 5th edition: significant is 6th edition: critical titer is
4th edition: significant is 32 5th edition: significant is 16 to 32 6th edition: critical titer is 16
183
In pancreatic adenocarcinoma, 96% of tumors with CA 19-9 levels >1,000 U/mL are considered ____ (cannot be removed completely through surgery)
UNRESECTABLE (cannot be removed completely through surgery)
184
individual facility COMPARE ITS RESULTS WITH THOSE OF ITS PEERS:
BENCHMARKING
185
average value:
MEAN
186
most frequently occurring value:
MODE
187
middle value within range:
MEDIAN
188
_____ systematic error - y-intercept:
CONSTANT
189
______ systematic error - SLOPE:
PROPORTIONAL
190
Fungi (dermatophyte) produces macroconidia that are large, multicellular, and club-shaped with smooth walls:
EPIDERMOPHYTON FLOCCOSUM
191
Reporting Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction:
either Stimulation Index (SI) or percent relative response (%RR)
192
are nodules found in the hearts of individuals with RHEUMATIC FEVER:
ASCHOFF BODIES
193
a metallic element must NOT GO through drain disposal:
MERCURY
194
can be recycled by distillation or by drain disposal, can be detoxified by commercial product, or can be disposed of by licensed waste hauler:
FORMALDEHYDE WASTES
195
represent the second X chromosome in females and may be seen in 2 to 3% of neutrophils in FEMALES. The number of Barr bodies in a cell is one less than the number of X chromosomes present in a cell:
BARR (sex chromatin) BODY or DRUMSTICK
196
rough endoplasmic reticulum containing RNA and may represent localized failure of the cytoplasm to mature. They are found in infections, poisoning, burns and following chemotherapy:
DOHLE BODIES
197
granulocytes usually contain several very large, reddish-purple or greenish-gray staining granules in the cytoplasm; in the monocytes and lymphocytes they stain bluish purple and may be present singly, or there may be several in one cell. These granules represent ABNORMAL LYSOSOMES:
CHEDIAK-HIGASHI
198
Sickling of the RBCs is maximal at ___ and _____ as the temperature lowers.
37C; decreases
199
Platelets on top of the red cell should not be confused with RBC inclusion body. There is generally a ______ surrounding the platelet when it is positioned on top of the RBC.
non-staining halo
200
ESR: invalid results
bubbles and fibrin clots
201
measure HUMIDITY:
HYGROMETERS
202
ALCOHOL FIXATIVE CONCENTRATIONS; _____ because less concentrated solutions will produce lysis of cells.
70% to 100%
203
Ethanol and methanol, including Carnoy’s solution are commonly used fixatives for _____.
nucleic acids
204
physical agent similar in mechanism to vacuum oven (heat) and agitation to increase movement of molecules and accelerate fixation. It is also used to accelerate staining, decalcification, immunohistochemistry and electron microscopy
MICROWAVE
205
LAST ALCOHOL BATH FOR DEHYDRATION SHOULD BE _____. A blue discoloration of _____ crystals will indicate FULL SATURATION WITH WATER. Alcohol is then discarded and changed with fresh solution.
PURE ETHANOL; COPPER SULFATE
206
Skeletal muscle contains bundles of very long, multinucleated cells with cross-striations. Their contraction is quick, forceful, and usually under voluntary control:
STRIATED, VOLUNTARY
206
Cardiac muscle also has cross-striations and is composed of elongated, often branched cells bound to one another at structures called intercalated discs that are unique to cardiac muscle. Contraction is involuntary, vigorous, and rhythmic:
STRIATED, INVOLUNTARY
206
Smooth muscle consists of collections of fusiform cells that lack striations and have slow, involuntary contractions:
NONSTRIATED, INVOLUNTARY
207
cell death produced by the Tubercle Bacillus. In gross state, the necrotic tissue has the appearance of soft, friable CHEESE:
CASEOUS NECROSIS
208
Three (3) major changes that are observed in the NUCLEUS: _____, _______ (segmentation and fragmentation) and _____ (dissolution of the nucleus).
PYKNOSIS, KARYORRHEXIS (segmentation and fragmentation), KARYOLYSIS (dissolution of the nucleus)
209
Four (4) phases or stages of CELL DEGENERATION:
CLOUDY SWELLING, FATTY DEGENERATION, CELL DEATH OR NECROSIS and CALCIFICATION.
210
BM aspiration is performed by a physician and may be obtained by: ____ biopsy: most frequently performed method ____ biopsy ____ (entering through the skin) ____ (small object used to remove circular section of tissue) biopsy (core of bone with accompanying marrow is obtained)
Needle biopsy; Surgical biopsy; Percutaneous TREPHINE biopsy
211
Antibody enhanced by ACIDIFYING THE PATIENT SERUM:
anti-M
212
Most common cause of transfusion reactions:
CLERICAL ERRORS
213
Donor unit SEAL HAS BEEN BROKEN:
DISCARD THE UNIT
214
Noticeable clots in RBC unit: DO NOT ISSUE THE UNIT, indication of
contamination or bacterial growth
215
FIRST STEP in laboratory investigation of transfusion reaction:
CHECK FOR CLERICAL ERRORS
216
SAGM, ADSOL shelf life:
42 days
217
________ or red blood cells may be performed up to 3 days after the red cell expire
REJUVENATION
218
Preparation of leukopoor RBCs:
filtering, centrifugation and washing
219
longest expiration date: RBCs
FROZEN RBCs
220
Component of choice for vWD:
CRYOPRECIPITATE
221
Transfusion of BUFFY COAT IS BEST INDICATED for:
NEWBORNS with severe infections
222
Test performed on blood that will be transfused to an acidotic or hypoxic infant:
HEMOGLOBIN S
223
CD marker responsible for E-rosette formation between T cells and sheep RBCs:
CD2
224
Joining (J) chain:
IgM and secretory IgA
225
Ig that helps initiate the classical complement pathway:
IgM and IgG
226
Primary immune response:
IgM
227
Highest titer in secondary response:
IgG
228
Immunoglobulin crosslinks mast cells to release histamine:
IgE
229
Substance detected by RPR and VDRL test:
REAGIN
230
Test for HIV infection in infants who are born to HIV-positive mothers:
PCR
231
Best indicator of early acute HBV infection:
HBsAg
232
First antibody detected in serum after infection with HBV:
anti-HBc
233
Blood products are tested for which virus before being transfused to newborns:
CMV
234
Anti-smooth muscle (ASMA) antibodies:
chronic active hepatitis
235
Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22):
urinary bladder cancer
236
Last stage in the erythrocytic series capable of mitosis:
POLYCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST
237
Last nucleated stage in the erythrocytic series:
ORTHOCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST
238
Appearance of primary/nonspecific granules:
PROMYELOCYTE
239
Appearance of secondary/specific granules:
MYELOCYTE
240
Last stage in the granulocytic series capable of mitosis:
MYELOCYTE
241
Youngest cell in the granulocytic series to NORMALLY appear in peripheral blood:
BAND
242
Preferable site for BM aspiration and biopsy in adult:
ILIAC CREST
243
Miller disc is an ocular device to facilitate counting of:
RETICULOCYTES
244
Organ that removes erythrocyte inclusions without destroying the cell:
SPLEEN
245
Megaloblastic anemia:
MACROCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC
246
Anemia in sickle cell disease:
NORMOCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC
247
Iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia:
MICROCYTIC, HYPOCHROMIC
248
AUTOSPLENECTOMY occurs in
SICKLE CELL ANEMIA
249
Anti-P, DONATH-LANDSTEINER ANTIBODY:
PCH
250
Major leukocyte in aplastic anemia:
LYMPHOCYTES
251
cells in G6PD deficiency
BITE CELLS
252
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia:
schistocytes and nucleated RBCs
253
ANTIBIOTIC implicated in aplastic anemia:
CHLORAMPHENICOL
254
Type of anemia in acute leukemia:
NORMOCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC
255
Hodgkin’s disease:
REED-STERNBERG CELLS
256
Myelofibrosis:
TEARDROP RBCs
257
DIC is most often associated with M3:
acute promyelocytic leukemia
258
Peripheral smear of patient with MULTIPLE MYELOMA:
ROULEAUX
259
Franklin’s disease:
GAMMA HEAVY CHAIN DISEASE
260
TRAP(+):
Hairy cell leukemia
261
CD ____: Common ALL (CALLA)
CD 10
262
PRIMARY INHIBITOR OF FIBRINOLYTIC SYSTEM:
ALPHA2-ANTIPLASMIN
262
PT and APTT result in patient with polycythemia:
BOTH PROLONGED
262
ASPIRIN inhibits
CYCLOOXYGENASE
262
Primary importance of FROZEN SECTIONS:
RAPID DIAGNOSIS
262
Lupus anticoagulant is directed against:
PHOSPHOLIPID
263
3Fs:
FATS/FORMALIN/FROZEN SECTIONS
264
Carbohydrate fixation:
ALCOHOLIC FIXATIVES
265
Protein fixation:
NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALDEHYDE OR FORMALDEHYDE VAPOR
266
Glycogen fixation: ____ such as Rossman’s fluid or cold absolute alcohol
ALCOHOL-BASED
267
MERCURIC CHLORIDE: fixative of choice for
TISSUE PHOTOGRAPHY
268
Zenker’s fluid:
LIVER, SPLEEN, CONNECTIVE TISSUE FIBERS and NUCLEI
269
Zenker’s-formol (Helly’s):
PITUITARY GLAND, BM, BLOOD-CONTAINING ORGANS SUCH AS SPLEEN AND LIVER
270
Heidenhain’s susa solution:
TUMOR BIOPSIES ESPECIALLY SKIN
271
Regaud’s (Moller’s/Muller’s) fluid:
CHROMATIN, MITOTIC FIGURES, GOLGI BODIES, RBC and colloid-containing tissues
271
Orth’s fluid: study of early degenerative process and tissue necrosis, demonstrates ____ and other bacteria
rickettsia
272
LEAD FIXATIVES:
ACID MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES
273
fixation of embryos and pituitary biopsies:
BOUIN’S
274
Bouin’s is NOT SUITABLE FOR FIXING ____
KIDNEY structures, lipid and mucus
275
Glacial acetic acid solidifies at
17C
276
Carnoy’s fluid:
CHROMOSOMES, LYMPH GLAND AND URGENT BIOPSIES
277
Newcomer’s fluid:
fixing of mucopolysaccharides and nuclear proteins
278
most common and fastest decalcifying agent
NITRIC ACID
279
decalcifies and softens tissues at the same time
PERENYI’S FLUID
280
most ideal, most sensitive method for determining the extent of decalcification
X-ray or radiological method
280
Embedding medium for electron microscopy:
EPON (PLASTIC MEDIUM)
280
Manual H and E staining:
REGRESSIVE STAINING
281
Flotation water bath: ____, approximately 6-10C lower than the mp of wax
45 to 50C
282
ORCEIN: vegetable dye extracted from
LICHENS
283
probably the oldest of all stains
IODINE
284
Stain demonstrating MITOCHONDRIA
JANUS GREEN
285
Stain for the basement membrane:
PAS, AZOCARMINE
286
Stain for Helicobacter pylori:
TOLUIDINE BLUE, CRESYL VIOLET ACETATE
287
Mountant refractive index should be as close as possible to that of the glass slide which is
1.518
288
POLYCLONAL ANTIBODIES: most frequently used animal is the ____ followed by goat, pig, sheep, horse, guinea pig and others
RABBIT
289
MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES used animal:
MICE
290
In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:
CONSISTENTLY ALKALINE
291
Daily loss of protein in urine, normally does not exceed:
150 mg
292
Renal threshold for glucose is:
160 to 180 mg/dL
292
Hemoglobin differentiated from myoglobin:
ammonium sulfate (BLONDHEIM’S TEST)
293
Sternheimer-Malbin stain:
CRYSTAL VIOLET AND SAFRANIN
294
Pseudocasts: formed by
amorphous urates
295
Moderate hematuria and RBC casts:
ACUTE GLOMERULOPNEPHRITIS
296
Pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts:
PYELONEPHRITIS
297
Crystals appears in urine as long, thin hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large amounts of benzoic acid:
HIPPURIC ACID
298
Oval fat bodies:
lipid-containing RTE cells
299
GREATEST PROTEINURIA: (Heavy Proteinuria >4 g/day)
NEPHROTIC SYNDROME
300
Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones:
CALCIUM OXALATE
301
Struvite:
TRIPLE PHOSPHATE/magnesium ammonium phosphate
302
Apatite:
CALCIUM PHOSPHATE
303
Limulus lysate test:
Gram negative bacterial endotoxin
304
Amoeba in CSF: characteristic pseudopod mobility in
WET PREP ON PRE-WARMED SLIDE
305
GOUT:
uric acid or monosodium urate
306
PSEUDOGOUT:
calcium pyrophosphate
307
BEST TEST for determining the status of the fetoplacental unit:
SERUM FREE ESTRIOL
308
SPERM with SMALL OR ABSENT HEADPIECE:
acrosomal deficiency
309
Most common cause of male infertility:
VARICOCELE
310
Stain to determine SEPRM VIABILITY:
EOSIN
310
Stain of choice for SPERM MORPHOLOGY:
Pap’s stain
311
Serum GASTRIN levels would be greatest in:
ZOLLINGER-ELLISON SYNDROME
312
Blood should NEVER be drawn from a vein in an arm with a ____ (temporary dialysis access device) or _____ (a permanent surgical fusion of a vein and an artery).
CANNULA (temporary dialysis access device); FISTULA (a permanent surgical fusion of a vein and an artery)
313
Glassware CLEANING SOLUTION:
ACID DICHROMATE
314
______ is used in AAS
HOLLOW CATHODE LAMP
315
Gaussian (normal) distribution:
Mean = median = mode
316
Material with physical and chemical properties closely resembling the test specimen and containing preanalyzed concentrations of the substances being measured:
CONTROL
317
Material of known composition available in a highly purified form:
STANDARD
318
Measuring potassium, antibiotic incorporated into the membrane:
VALINOMYCIN
319
Flame color Sodium: Lithium: Potassium: Rubidium: Magnesium:
Sodium: YELLOW FLAME Lithium produces a red flame Potassium a violet flame Rubidium a red flame Magnesium a blue flame
320
Reliable index of intestinal carbohydrate absorption:
D-XYLOSE
321
Condensation of glucose with aromatic amine in hot glacial acetic acid solution to produce a green-colored product:
O-TOLUIDINE
322
REFERENCE METHOD for glucose:
HEXOKINASE
323
Split in the albumin band:
BISALBUMINEMIA
324
Compound normally found in urine that may be used to assess the completeness of a 24-hour urine collection:
CREATININE
325
Myocardial infarction: ___ then ___ then ___
CK then AST then LD
326
Specimen of choice for analysis of acid-base disturbances:
ARTERIAL BLOOD
327
Anticoagulant of choice for blood gas analysis:
HEPARIN
328
Symptom of HYPOCALCEMIA:
TETANY
329
Calcium and phosphate metabolism is regulated by the:
PARATHYROID
330
In the blood, bicarbonate leaves the RBCs and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with:
CHLORIDE
331
Major mineralocorticoid:
ALDOSTERONE
332
Adrenal medulla secretes this hormone in the greatest quantity:
EPINEPHRINE
333
Hollander insulin test is used to confirm:
VAGOTOMY
334
Most potent estrogen:
ESTRADIOL
335
Assay to monitor the fetoplacental unit:
ESTRIOL
336
Hormone associated with galactorrhea, pituitary adenoma, and amenorrhea:
PROLACTIN
337
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by elevation of:
GASTRIN
338
Conn’s disease: _____ caused by adrenal adenoma, carcinoma or hyperplasia
PRIMARY HYPERALDOSTERONISM
339
Increased 5-HIAA: ________, carcinoid tumor composed of argentaffin cells. Carcinoid tumors are usually found in the intestine or lung.
ARGENTAFFINOMA
340
Thyroid hormones are derived from the amino acid:
TYROSINE
341
Pharmacological parameters that determine serum drug concentration:
liberation, absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion (LADME)
342
Route of drug administration associated with 100% bioavailability:
INTRAVENOUS
343
TRINDER REACTION:
SALICYLATE
344
Acetaminophen (paracetamol) is particularly toxic to the
LIVER
345
Increased trough levels of AMINOGLYCOSIDES in the serum are often associated with toxic effects to the _____
KIDNEY
346
Aminoglycoside: ______ (toxic to ______) and _____ (damage _____)
NEPHROTOXIC, KIDNEYS; OTOTOXIC, EARS
347
Specimen appropriate for determining exposure to lead:
WHOLE BLOOD
348
HEROIN is synthesized from
MORPHINE
349
is the principal active component of MARIJUANA
TETRAHYDROCANNABINOL (THC)
350
ODOR OF BITTER ALMONDS:
CYANIDE POISONING
351
Garlic on breath, metallic taste on mouth. ARSENIC HAS HIGH AFFINITY TO _____. Analysis of urine, hair, and nails, using ion emission spectroscopy, is important for the diagnosis of chronic ARSENIC poisoning (Henry).
KERATIN
352
Total renal BLOOD flow:
1,200 mL/min
353
Total renal PLASMA flow:
600 to 700 mL/min
354
Glomerulus serves as nonselective filter (SIEVE) of plasma substances with MW of less than
70,000 daltons
355
Serum osmolarity:
275 to 300 mOsm
356
Urine osmolarity range:
50 and 1,400 mOsm
357
Normal person excretes approximately _______ in the form of titratable acid (H+) or ammonium ions (NH4+)
70 mEq/day of acid
357
Urine volume range ______ in 24 hours
600 to 2,000 mL
357
Urine volume average _____ in 24 hours
1,200 to 1,500 mL
358
Normal random urine pH:
pH 4.5 to 8
359
First morning urine pH:
5 to 6
360
1 g/dL protein, raise urine specific gravity by refractometer or urinometer by
0.003
361
1 g/dL glucose, raise urine specific gravity by refractometer or urinometer by
0.004
362
Calibration of refractometer using distilled water:
1.000
363
Calibration of refractometer using 5% NaCl:
1.022 ± 0.001
364
Urine protein:
less than 10 mg/dL or 100 mg/24 hours (Henry less than 150mg/24 hours)
365
Significant AER:
20 to 200 ug/min or 30 to 300 mg albumin/24 hours
366
Renal threshold for glucose is
160 to 180 mg/dL
367
Ketones:__ BHA, ___ AAA and___ Acetone
78% BHA 20% AAA 2% Acetone
368
Concentration of myoglobin must be at least _____ before a red pigmentation can be visualized
25 mg/dL
369
Ehrlich’s units (EU) are ____ to mg/dL
EQUAL
370
Normal values for the Addis count: ______ RBCs, ______ WBCs and epithelial cells and _______ hyaline casts in a 12-hour urine
0 to 500,000 RBCs, 0 to 1,800,000 WBCs, 0 to 5,000 hyaline casts
371
Centrifugation for urine microscopic exam:
400 RCF for 5 minutes
372
Volume of sediment, glass slide method 20 uL or 0.02 mL covered by _____ coverslip
22 x 22 mm
373
_____ RTE cells/hpf indicates tubular injury and specimens should be referred for cytologic urine testing
More than 2
374
Approximately ____ of CSF is produced every hour in the choroid plexuses and reabsorbed by the arachnoid villi
20 mL
375
CSF Total volume in adult:
newer edition Strasinger 90 to 150 mL (old edition 140 to 170 mL)
375
CSF Total volume in neonate:
10 to 60 mL
376
CSF Normal adult CSF: WBCs/uL
0 to 5 WBCs/uL
376
CSF Neonates: WBCs/uL
0 to 30 WBCs/uL
377
Reactive lymphocytes in CSF
viral infections
377
Moderately elevated WBC count (less than 50 WBCs/uL) with increased normal and reactive lymphocytes and plasma cells may be indicative of:
MS or other degenerating neurologic disorders
378
Increased eosinophils in CSF:
parasitic infections, fungal infections primarily COCCIDIOIDES IMMITIS
379
CSF glucose is approximately ____ that of plasma glucose
60 to 70 percent
380
Normal CSF protein:
15 to 45 mg/dL
381
Normal concentration of glutamine in CSF:
8 to 18 mg/dL
382
Liquefaction within
30 to 60 minutes
383
Seminal fluid Volume
2 to 5 mL
384
Seminal fluid pH
7.2 to 8
385
Sperm morphology: should be evaluated
at least 200 sperms
386
Sperm viability test:
Modified Bloom's (eosin-nigrosin)
387
Sperm Motility is evaluate in approximately
20 high-power fields
388
Sperm concentration:
newer edition Strasinger >20 M to 250 M per mL (old edition: 20 M to 160 M per mL)
389
Sperm count
≥ 40 M per ejaculate*
390
Most common dilution is ___ prepared using a MECHANICAL (positive-displacement) rather than a Thoma pipette
1:20
391
Minimum motility of 50% with a rating of 2.0 after 1 hour is considered
normal
392
Fructose per ejaculate
≥ 13 umol
393
Specimens for fructose should be tested within _____ to prevent fructolysis
2 hours or FROZEN
394
RAPE, presence of sperm: - Enhancing specimen with ____ and examining under PHASE MICROSCOPY - ACP - Seminal glycoprotein p30 (prostatic specific antigen [PSA]), which is present even in the absence of sperm - ABO, DNA
XYLENE
395
Motile sperm can be detected for up to ___ after intercourse, whereas nonmotile sperm can persist for ___. As the sperm die off, only the heads remain and may be present for 7 days after intercourse.
24 hours; 3 days
396
Synovial Fluid Volume
less than 3.5 mL
397
Synovial Fluid Normal:
clear and pale yellow
398
Synovial Fluid able to form
4 to 6 cm string
399
Synovial Fluid RBC/uL
Less than 2,000 RBCs/uL
400
Synovial Fluid WBC/uL
Less than 200 WBCs/uL
401
Synovial Fluid Glucose less than ____ lower than the blood glucose
10 mg/dL
402
SEROUS FLUID: TRANSUDATES AND EXUDATES Most reliable differentiation:
Fluid-to-blood ratios for protein and LD
403
SEROUS FLUID: TRANSUDATES AND EXUDATES WBC counts greater than _____ and RBC counts greater than _____ are indicative of an exudate
1,000/uL; 100,000/uL
404
Pleural fluid cholesterol greater than 60 mg/dL or a pleural fluid to serum cholesterol ratio greater than 0.3 provides a reliable information that the fluid is an ____
exudate
405
Fluid to serum total bilirubin ratio of 0.6 or more indicates the presence of an ____
exudate
406
Pleural fluid pH lower than__ may indicate the need for chest-tube drainage, in addition to antibiotics in cases of pneumonia. The finding of pH as low as 6 indicates esophageal rupture that is allowing the influx of gastric fluid
7.3
407
RBC counts GREATER THAN 100,000/uL are indicative of
BLUNT TRAUMA INJURIES
408
Normal WBC counts are less than 500 cells/uL and the count increases with
bacterial peritonitis and cirrhosis
409
CA 125 antigen, source is from
OVARIES, FALLOPIAN TUBES or ENDOMETRIUM
410
Large intestine is capable of absorbing approximately ____ of water
3,000 mL
411
Most representative, for fecal fats; ___-day stool collection
3
412
Muscle fibers: slide is examined for 5 minutes. Only ______ fibers are counted, and the presence of more than 10 is reported as increased
undigested
413
Bleeding in excess of _______ of stool is considered pathologically significant
2.5 mL/150 gram
414
Normal stool pH is between
7 and 8
415
pH below 5.5 in cases of
CARBOHYDRATE DISORDERS
416
SCREENING PROCEDURE that is helpful in the diagnosis of many diseases, it is one indicator of the body’s ability to fight disease, it is used to MONITOR the effects of drug and radiation therapy, and it may be employed as an INDICATOR OF PATIENT’S PROGRESS in certain diseased states such as infection or anemia.
Complete Blood Count
417
Hematocrit: amount of plasma that still remains in RBC portion after the microhematocrit has been spun. Increased in macrocytic anemias, spherocytosis, thalassemia, hypochromic anemia and sickle cell anemia:
TRAPPED PLASMA
418
Hematocrit: When comparing spun hematocrit results obtained on an electronic cell counter, the spun hematocrit results vary from ___ HIGHER because of this trapped plasma (unless cell counter has been calibrated).
1 to 3% HIGHER
419
Hematocrit: Anticoagulated blood should be centrifuged within____ of collection when the blood is stored at room temperature.
6 hours
420
Hematocrit: Overanticoagulation: FALSELY ___ due to shrinkage of cells
FALSELY LOW
421
Hematocrit: ______ denote poor technique but do not affect the results
Air bubbles
422
Hematocrit: Incomplete sealing of the microhematocrit tubes: FALSELY ___
FALSELY LOW
423
Hematocrit: Inadequate centrifugation of the microhematocrit tubes or allowing the tubes to stand longer than several minutes after centrifugation: FALSELY ___
FALSELY ELEVATED
424
Hematocrit may be expressed in either of two ways (1) as percentage, e.g., 42% or (2) as a decimal point, e.g., 0.42.
425
WBC count: Count above 11 x 10 9th/L is termed
LEUKOCYTOSIS
426
WBC count: Mix the Thoma pipet for approximately 3 minutes (Brown) to ensure hemolysis and adequate mixing [Rodak 10 minutes] PLEASE FOLLOW RODAK, 10 MINUTES.
427
WBC count: Manual counts, no more than 10-cell variation between the four squares
428
Platelet count: Prolonged BT and poor clot retraction are found when there is
marked thrombocytopenia
429
Platelet count: EDTA: decreased platelet clumping but increased MPV
430
Platelet count: If concentration of EDTA exceeds 2mg/mL of whole blood, platelets may ______, causing invalidly higher count
SWELL AND THEN FRAGMENT
431
Platelet count: Using Rees-Ecker diluting fluid, the platelet count must be completed within 30 minutes of diluting in order to ensure against platelet _________
DISINTEGRATION
432
Platelet count: 1% ammonium oxalate, the dilution is stable for ____
8 hours
433
ESR: Macrocytes tend to settle ___ rapidly than microcytes
more rapidly
434
ESR: Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis: falsely ____ ESR
falsely lower
435
ESR: Agglutination: more rapid sedimentation rate
436
ESR: In severe anemia: ESR IS MARKEDLY INCREASED The ESR of patients with severe anemia is of little diagnostic value, because it will be falsely elevated.
437
Sugar water test: Citrated whole blood
438
Sugar water test: In anemia, the hemolysis may be slightly increased in PNH negative specimens
439
Sugar water test: Use of defibrinated blood may cause positive results due to the hemolysis of traumatized RBCs
440
Sugar water test: Test should be performed WITHIN 2 HOURS of obtaining the specimen
441
Sucrose hemolysis test: Citrated whole blood
442
Sucrose hemolysis test: Increased hemolysis (<10%) may be found in leukemia or myelosclerosis
443
Sucrose hemolysis test: PNH: 10% to 80% hemolysis
444
Acid serum test: Whole blood defibrinated
445
Acid serum test: When patient has received blood transfusions, less lysis occurs because of the presence of normal transfused red blood cells
446
Thyroxine conversion factor (µg/dL to nmol/L) 12.9
447
X-axis: HORIZONTAL, ABSCISSA, INDEPENDENT VARIABLES
448
Y-axis: VERTICAL, ORDINATE, DEPENDENT VARIABLES
449
UREA: Colorimetric: diacetyl [ inexpensive, lacks specificity]
450
UREA: Enzymatic: NH3 formation [greater specificity, more expensive]
451
CREATININE: Colorimetric: end point [simple, nonspecific]
452
CREATININE: Colorimetric: kinetic [rapid, increased specificity]
453
CREATININE: Enzymatic [measure ammonia colorimetrically or with ion-selective electrode]
454
URIC ACID: Colorimetric [problems with turbidity, several common drugs interfere]
455
URIC ACID: Enzymatic: UV [need special instrumentation and optical cells]
456
URIC ACID: Enzymatic: H2O2 [interference by reducing substances]
457
Constituents of a number of common foods, including BANANAS, VANILLA, TEA AND COFFEE, may react in the test for HMMA. HMMA is also VMA. 4-Hydroxy-3-Methoxymandelic acid (HMMA)
458
Laboratory personnel should be aware of the MECHANICAL HAZARDS of equipment such as CENTRIFUGES, AUTOCLAVES, and HOMOGENIZERS.
459
Third Taenia: Taenia asiatica or the Taiwan Taenia
460
Fungal elements fluoresce green with acridine orange
461
Reporting of normal urine crystals: reported as rare, few, moderate, or many per hpf
462
Abnormal crystals may be averaged and reported per lpf
463
Reagent for APT test: 1% NaOH
464
Infective stage of Leishmania to man: PROMASTIGOTE
465
Infective stage of Trypanosoma to man: TRYPOMASTIGOTE
466
Infective stage of Plasmodia to man: SPOROZOITES
467
Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis: ANGIOSTRONGYLUS CANTONENSIS
468
When an accident involving electrical shock occurs, the ELECTRICAL SOURCE MUST BE REMOVED IMMEDIATELY.
469
URINARY MEATUS: external urinary opening
470
POLYURIA: greater than 2.5 L/day in adults
471
OLIGURIA: less than 400 mL/day in adults
472
Yellow-orange specimen caused by the administration of phenazopyridine (brand name Pyridium) or azo-gantrisin compounds to people who have urinary tract infections [drug for UTI: orange and viscous urine]
473
CLINITEST tablets contain copper sulfate, sodium carbonate, sodium citrate, and sodium hydroxide
474
ACETEST provides sodium nitroprusside, glycine, disodium phosphate, and lactose in tablet form. The addition of lactose gives better color differentiation. Acetest tablets are hygroscopic; if the specimen is not completely absorbed within 30 seconds, a new tablet should be used.
475
Bence Jones protein coagulates at temperatures between 40°C and 60°C and dissolves when the temperature reaches 100°C.
476
Automated reagent strip readers: REFLECTANCE PHOTOMETRY
477
Casts have a tendency to locate NEAR THE EDGES OF THE COVER SLIP
478
Squamous epithelial cells: Rare, few, moderate, or many per LPF
479
Transitional epithelial cells: Rare, few, moderate, or many per HPF
480
RTE CELLS REPORTING: AVERAGE NUMBER PER 10 HPFS
481
MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES: Acid-albumin and the CTAB tests (+) thick, white turbidity
482
MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES: Metachromatic staining spot test: BLUE SPOT
483
Very slight amount of OXYHEMOGLOBIN: PINK CSF
484
Conversion of oxyhemoglobin to unconjugated bilirubin: YELLOW CSF
485
Heavy hemolysis: ORANGE CSF
486
Red or brown seminal fluid: BLOOD
487
Normal appearance of gastric fluid: PALE GRAY with mucus
488
Amniotic fluid OD 450: When BILIRUBIN is present, a rise in OD is seen at 450 nm because this is the wavelength of maximum bilirubin absorption.
489
Rare: 0–10 bacteria/hpf
490
Few: 10–50 bacteria/hpf
491
Moderate: 50–200 bacteria/hpf
492
Many: >200 bacteria/hpf
493
First layer of spun hematocrit: FATTY LAYER
494
Second layer of spun hematocrit: PLASMA
495
Third layer of spun hematocrit: BUFFY COAT
496
Bottom layer of spun hematocrit: PACKED CELLS
497
Patients with CML negative for the Philadelphia chromosome: POOR PROGNOSIS
498
LEUKOCYTOSIS >11 x 10 9th/L
499
Forward light scatter: CELL SIZE
500
Side light scatter: CELL GRANULARITY
501
KERATOCYTES: helmet cells/with horn-like projections
502
ANTI-dsDNA: most specific antibody for SLE
503
Anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA): CHRONIC ACTIVE HEPATITIS
504
Polymerase chain reaction: MOLECULAR
505
Restriction fragment length polymorphism: MOLECULAR
506
Enhanced by acidifying patient serum: anti-M
507
Wiener and coworkers gave a name to one such agglutinin, calling its antigen I for “individuality.” The ANTIBODY REACTED WITH MOST BLOOD SPECIMENS tested.
508
For patients with history of FEBRILE NONHEMOLYTIC TRANSF REACTION: LEUKOPOOR RBCs
509
Irradiation of blood components: CESIUM
510
CORDOCENTESIS, or PERCUTANEOUS UMBILICAL BLOOD SAMPLING (PUBS), results in a fetal blood specimen that can be used for rapid karyotyping or molecular studies.
511
Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22): URINARY BLADDER CANCER
512
CARD PREGNANCY/POSITIVE: Two separate black or gray bands, one at T and the other at C, are visible in the results window, indicating that the specimen contains detectable levels of hCG. Although the intensity of the test band may vary with different specimens, the appearance of two distinct bands should be interpreted as a positive result.
513
CARD PREGNANCY/NEGATIVE: If no band appears at T and a black or gray band is visible at the C position, the test can be considered negative, indicating that a detectable level of hCG is not present.
514
CARD PREGNANCY/INVALID: If no band appears at C or incomplete or beaded bands appear at the T or C position, the test is invalid. The test should be repeated using another Card Pregnancy Test device.
515
CARD PREGNANCY: If the test band appears VERY FAINT, it is recommended that a new sample be collected 48 hours later and tested again using another Card Pregnancy Test device.
516
The standard screening method for HIV antibody has been the ELISA, and the standard confirmatory test is the Western blot.
517
Aside from Western blot, other confirmatory tests, including indirect immunofluorescence assay (IFA), radioimmunoprecipitation assay (RIPA), line immunoassays, and rapid confirmatory tests, have also been developed.
518
HBs ag: active infection
519
HBe ag: active hepatitis B with HIGH DEGREE OF INFECTIVITY
520
IgM anti-HBc: current or recent acute hepatitis B
521
Total anti-HBc: current or past hepatitis B
522
Anti-HBe: recovery from hepatitis B
523
Anti-HBs: immunity to hepatitis B
524
HBV DNA: acute, atypical, or occult hepatitis B; viral load may be used to monitor effectiveness of therapy
525
ITIS: inflammation
526
Length: METER
527
Mass: KILOGRAM
528
Time: SECONDS
529
Quantity of mass: MOLE
530
Electric current: AMPERE
531
Thermodynamic temperature: KELVIN
532
Luminous intensity: CANDELA
533
Main cause of TREND is DETERIORATION OF REAGENTS
534
Main cause of SHIFT is IMPROPER CALIBRATION OF THE INSTRUMENT
535
POCT: near-patient testing, decentralized testing, bedside testing and alternate-site testing
536
POCT: usually by nonlaboratorian personnel (nurses, respiratory therapists, etc)
537
Absorbance (A) = abc = 2-log%T
538
The bacteriological examination of water consists of (1) total plate counts (2) detecting the presence or absence of coliforms and the estimation of MPN (MOST PROBABLE NUMBER)
539
Water analysis, presumptive test: FORMATION OF GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH
540
Water analysis, confirmed test: FORMATION OF GAS IN BGBL BROTH or TYPICAL COLIFORM COLONIES ON EMB/ENDO AGAR
541
Water analysis, completed test: FORMATION OF ACID AND GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH and the DEMONSTRATION OF GRAM NEGATIVE NONSPOREFORMING BACILLI
542
Herpesviruses: cardinal feature of the group is LATENCY
543
Reoviruses: derivation of the word: R(respiratory), E(enteric), O(orphan)
544
ASCHOFF BODIES: rheumatic fever
545
CREOLA BODIES: cluster of columnar cells, bronchial asthma
546
ELEMENTARY BODIES: infectious particles of Chlamydia
547
SCLEROTIC BODIES: dark brown-black organisms, chromoblastomycosis
548
ASTEROID BODIES: concentric radiating eosinophilic material (ag-ab reaction), sporotrichosis
549
NEGRI BODIES: rabies
550
GUARNIERI BODIES: poxvirus
551
OWL’S EYE INCLUSION BODIES: cytomegalovirus
552
PSAMMOMA BODIES: elements with concentric striations of collagen-like materials, benign conditions, ovarian or thyroid carcinoma
553
KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES
554
Hand, foot and mouth disease: COXSACKIEVIRUS
555
In CYSTIC FIBROSIS of the pancreas, the increase in NEUTRAL FATS confer the greasy “BUTTER-STOOL” appearance.
556
PROGRESSIVE CHANGES: Hypertrophy - increase in size of an organ due to an increase in size of individual cells
557
PROGRESSIVE CHANGES: Hyperplasia - increase in size of an organ due to increase in number of cells
558
RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES: Hypoplasia - failure of an organ to reach mature size
559
RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES: Aplasia - organ is represented only by mass of fatty or fibrous nodule
560
RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES: Agenesia - complete non-appearance of an organ
561
RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES: Atresia - failure of an organ to form an opening
562
RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES: Atrophy - ACQUIRED decrease in size of a normally sized organ
563
DEGENERATIVE CHANGES: Dysplasia - change in size, shape and orientation of cell
564
DEGENERATIVE CHANGES: Metaplasia - change from one adult cell type to another
565
DEGENERATIVE CHANGES: Anaplasia or Dedifferentiation - change to a more primitive or embryonic cell type
566
DEGENERATIVE CHANGES: Neoplasia or Tumor - continuous abnormal proliferation of cells
567
MALIGNANT TUMOR: Carcinoma - malignant tumor of EPITHELIAL TISSUE origin
568
MALIGNANT TUMOR: Sarcoma - malignant tumor of CONNECTIVE TISSUE origin
569
PRIMARY SIGNS OF DEATH (3) Respiratory, circulatory and nervous failure
570
SECONDARY SIGNS OF DEATH (7) Algor mortis - cooling Rigor mortis - stiffening Liver mortis - purplish discoloration Desiccation Putrefaction Postmortem clotting Autolysis
571
CLASS SYSTEM Class I - absence of atypical cytologic picture Class II - atypical cytologic picture but no evidence of malignancy Class III - cytologic picture SUGGESTIVE BUT NOT CONCLUSIVE of malignancy Class IV - cytologic picture STRONGLY SUGGESTIVE of malignancy Class V - cytologic picture CONCLUSIVE of malignancy.
572
Visceral larva migrans (VLM): Toxocara cati, Toxocari canis
573
Cutaneous larva migrans (CLM): Ancylostoma braziliense, A. caninum
574
Infective stage is the sheathed filariform larva: HOOKWORM
575
Infective stage is the unsheathed filariform larva: THREADWORM
576
Semilunar cutting plates, BIPARTITE bursa: NECATOR AMERICANUS
577
Two pairs of teeth, TRIPARTITE bursa: ANCYLOSTOMA DUODENALE
578
Alkaline phosphatase immunoassay (APIA) for Schistosoma antibodies
579
NON-OPERCULATED AND MATURE (embryonated) when laid: SCHISTOSOMA eggs
580
OPERCULATED AND MATURE (embryonated) when laid: HETEROPHYES, OPISTORCHISand CLONORCHIS eggs
581
Clonorchis, Opistorchis and Heterophyid egg CANNOT be differentiated under an ordinary light microscope.
582
OPERCULATED AND IMMATURE (unembryonated) when laid: FASCIOLA, FASCIOLOPSIS, PARAGONIMUS and ECHINOSTOMA eggs
583
Amoebic LIVER abscess (ALA) is the most common extra-intestinal form of amoebiasis
584
Entamoeba polecki cyst: consistently UNINUCLEATED (1 NUCLEUS)
585
ACHROMATIC karyosomal granules: IODAMOEBA BUTSCHLII
586
Amoeboflagellate: NAEGLERIA
587
Granulomatous amoebic meningoencephalitis: ACANTHAMOEBA
588
Gay bowel syndrome: G. LAMBLIA
589
Entero-string/String test: G. LAMBLIA
590
K39 and FAST (Fast Agglutination Screening Test) for Leishmania
591
Rupture of RBCs every 72 hours: P. MALARIAE
592
Band trophozoite: P. MALARIAE
593
Amoeboid trophozoite: P. VIVAX
594
Crescent-shaped gametocytes: P. FALCIPARUM
595
Cyclospora cayetanensis: cyanobacterium-like body (CLB)
596
Circumoval Precipitin Test (COPT) SCHISTOSOMES
597
Sabin Feldman Dye test: TOXOPLASMA
598
Sheather sugar flotation technique: CRYPTOSPORIDIUM
599
Stool preservatives: formalin, Schaudinn’s solution, PVA (polyvinyl alcohol), MIF (merthiolate-iodine-formalin) and SAF (sodium acetate-acetic acid formalin)
600
Fecal concentration procedure (formalin-ether/ethyl acetate) FOUR LAYERS a) top layer of ether or ethyl acetate, b) a plug of fatty debris adherent to the wall of the tube, c) layer of formalin, and d) sediment.
601
DELAFIELD HEMATOXYLIN stain is mainly useful in demonstrating the detailed structures of MICROFILARIAE.
602
Iron conversion factor from conventional to SI (µmol/L): 0.179
603
Bilirubin conversion factor from conventional to SI (µmol/L): 17.1
604
Thyroxine conversion factor to SI (µg/dl to nmol/L): 12.9
605
Specimen collection & processing: Pre-analytical QA
606
Long-term accuracy of analytical methods: External QC
607
Abrupt change: Shift
608
Gradual change: Trend
609
One control value exceeds +2s and another exceeds -2s: R4s
610
2 consecutive ctrl values exceed the same mean +2s or -2s: 2:2s
611
Fixed-angle centrifuge advantages over the horizontal centrifuge: Lesser air friction, smaller increase in sample temperature, quicker sedimentation of small particles, and operated over higher speed
612
Used to determine whether there is statistically significant difference between the SD of 2 groups of data: f-test
613
Used to determine whether there is statistically significant difference between the means of 2 groups of data: t-test
614
Sample of known quantity with several analytes.: Control
615
Anticoagulant for cardiopulmonary bypass: Heparin
616
Basal state collection: Early morning blood collection
617
Uses 2 monochromators, affected by quenching: Fluorometry
618
Uses 2 photodetectors, for the sample beam and reference beam: Double – beam in space
619
Obsolete blood glucose methodologies: Folin- Wu, Nelson Somogyi
620
Chemical method for glucose, still widely used: Ortho-toluidine, condensation method
621
Test for chylomicrons, creamy layer on top: Standing plasma test
622
Apolipoprotein component of VLDL: Apo-B100
623
Transports exogenous triglycerides: Chylomicrons
624
Transports endogenous triglycerides: VLDL
625
Highest cholesterol content: LDL
626
One step method for cholesterol determination: Liebermann - Burchardt
627
Cholesterol esterase: Used in enzymatic method of cholesterol determination
628
CV of HDLc (NCEP Guidelines for Acceptable Measurement Error): ≤ 4%
629
Assay for Uric acid that uses mercury arc vapor lamp: Enzymatic: UV
630
Greater specificity and more expensive BUN assay: Enzymatic: ammonia formation
631
Simple, Nonspecific test for Creatinine determination : Colorimetric: end point
632
Categories of Azotemia: Pre-renal, Renal, Post-renal
633
Test used to assess the ability to conjugate bilirubin and secrete bile: SERUM BILIRUBIN LEVELS
634
Gamma spike/ Monoclonal gammopathy: Multiple myeloma
635
Beta-gamma bridging: Hepatic cirrhosis
636
Reaction rate is directly proportional to substrate concentration: First-order kinetics
637
Enzyme specific for both pancreas and salivary glands: Amylase
638
Clinically significant if decreased: Cholinesterase
639
Substrate used in Bowers-McComb method for ALP activity measurement: p-nitrophenylphosphate
640
Chief counterion of sodium: Chloride
641
Driving force of bicarbonate buffer system: CARBON DIOXIDE
642
Chloride and Bicarbonate relationship: Reciprocal
643
Confirmatory test for Acromegaly: Glucose suppression test
644
Increased in Hypothyroidism (primary): TSH
645
T3 uptake levels in Hypothyroidism : Decreased
646
Begins with patient identification and continues until testing is completed and the results are reported : Chain of custody
647
Requires whole blood EDTA sample: Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus tests
648
Method of choice for measuring antidepressants: HPLC
649
Gold standard for drug testing: GC-MS
650
Inhibits acetylcholinesterase: Organophosphates & Carbamates
651
Dissociable substance that yields hydrogen ions: Acid
652
Dissociable substance that yields hydroxyl ions: Base
653
Dissociable substance that accepts hydrogen ions: Base
654
Dissociable substance that accepts hydroxyl ions: Acid
655
Comparing patient’s results with previous results: Delta check
656
POCT is most often performed by nurses, perfusionists (who operate heart-lung machine during open heart surgery), respiratory therapists and physician themselves.
657
Expressed in Ehrlich units (mg/dl): Urobilinogen
658
Used to differentiate myoglobin and hemoglobin: Blondheim’s test
659
Degree of Hazard 1: Slight hazard
660
Degree of Hazard 2: Moderate hazard
661
Degree of Hazard 3: Serious hazard
662
Degree of Hazard 4: Extreme hazard
663
Handwashing: Clean between fingers 15 sec (or 20 sec , 6th ed), downward
664
When skin or eye contact occurs, the best first aid is to immediately: Flush the area with water for at least 15 minutes and then seek medical attention
665
Preservative of choice for urine cytology studies: Saccomano’s fixative
666
Urine specimen for Urobilinogen: Afternoon sample (2-4pm)
667
Storage conditions for reagent strip: Cool, dry place
668
Reagent incorporated in Ketone pad: Sodium nitroprusside
669
Hoesch Test: Ehrlich’s reagent in 6M HCl
670
Speckled pattern on blood parameter: Hematuria
671
Principle of Automated Reagent Strip Reader: Reflectance photometry
672
Soluble in dilute acetic acid: Red blood cells, amorphous phosphates, carbonates
673
Soluble in ether: Lipids, chyle, lymphatic fluid
674
Appear microscopically as yellow brown-granules and produce a characteristic pink sediment (brick dust), uroerythrin: AMORPHOUS URATES
675
Cause a white precipitate following specimen refrigeration: Amorphous phosphates
676
Tubular injury: 2 or more RTE cells per HPF
677
Telescoped sediment: Elements of glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome
678
Glitter cells: Neutrophils seen in hypotonic urine
679
Formation of casts: Hyaline→cellular→granular→waxy
680
Hyaline cast consists entirely of: Uromodulin
681
Crystals seen in liver disease: Bilirubin, tyrosine, leucine
682
Forms of Struvite: Coffin-lid, Feather-like, Fern-leaf, Prism, Colorless sheets, Flakes
683
Ethylene glycol poisoning: Monohydrate Calcium Oxalate (oval, dumbbell)
684
Most frequent parasite encountered in urine: Trichomonas vaginalis
685
Fecal contaminant in urine: Pinworm ova
686
Diluent for CSF WBC Count: 3% Glacial HAc with methylene blue
687
Precipitation test for CSF total protein: TCA and SSA
688
Positive for pellicle clot formation: Tubercular meningitis
689
Oligoclonal bonding in CSF bonding but not in serum → Multiple sclerosis, encephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome and neurosyphilis
690
Semen fructose test is not tested within 2 hours: Specimen must be FROZEN
691
Reagent used in Florence test which detects choline: Potassium iodide, Iodine
692
Used to assess sperm cell velocity and trajectory: Computer-assisted semen analysis (CASA)
693
Normal volume of synovial fluid: less than 3.5 ml
694
Normal synovial fluid glucose: <10mg/dl lower than blood glucose
695
Cells seen in synovial fluid which resembles polished rice macroscopically: Rice bodies
696
Type of effusion caused by congestive heart failure: Transudate
697
Sputum: Not a normal body fluid, tracheobronchial secretions
698
Important diagnostic test for Pneumocystic carinii in immunocompromised patients: Bronchoalveolar lavage
699
Tests for Neural Tube defects: AFP, acetylcholinesterase
700
Microviscosity test for fetal lung maturity: measured by FLUORESCENCE POLARIZATION
701
Green amniotic fluid: MECONIUM
702
Dark red-brown color of amniotic fluid: FETAL DEATH
703
Normal Gastric fluid appearance: PALE GRAY WITH MUCUS
704
Noninvasive test to determine gastric acidity: DIAGNEX TUBELESS TEST
705
Collagen-like material with concentric striations seen in ovarian and thyroid carcinomas: PSAMMOMA BODIES
706
Melena: BLACK AND TARRY STOOL
707
Laminar flow: Biosafety Cabinet class II
708
HEPA filter: Removes org > 0.3 um (bacteria, fungi)
709
Blood culture collection: 2-3 samples (Max. 3 BAILEY'S) at least 1 hour apart in 24 hours
710
Grade A milk: <75,000 bacteria per mL when raw, and <15,000 bacteria once pasteurized
711
Enteric agar: XLD, EMB, HEA
712
Rickettsial stains: Gimenez, Macchiavello
713
Concentration of Hydrogen Peroxide as disinfectant: 3% H2O2
714
MIO medium: Motility Indole Ornithine
715
Quaternary ammonium compounds are inactivated by: Organic substances
716
Fite-Faraco stain: Hematoxylin as counterstain instead of methylene, AFB
717
Sodium polyanethol sulfonate: Anti-phagocytic, anti-complement
718
Bromthymol blue as indicator: HEA, TCBS, Simmon’s citrate agar
719
Nasopharyngeal swabs: H. influenzae, N. meningitidis, B. pertussis
720
Inhibits gram-positive bacteria: Crystal violet and sodium desoxycholate (bile salt)
721
Inhibits gram-negative bacteria: Sodium azide, phenylethyl alcohol
722
Detects gram-negative endotoxin: Limulus lysate test
723
Protein A: Staphylococcus aureus, coagglutination
724
Slime layer production: Staphylococcus epidermidis
725
Protein M: Streptococcus pyogenes
726
Colonies with ground glass appearance: Legionella (Mahon)
727
Increased resistance of Pseudomonas aeruginosa to aminoglycosides: Increased calcium and magnesium
728
Smallest free-living organism: Mycoplasma
729
Benchmarking: Comparison with peers
730
Histoplasma cross-reacts with: Blastomyces, Aspergillus and Coccidioides
731
Aman medium stain: Lactophenol cotton blue
732
Czapek’s medium: Isolation of Aspergillus
733
African histoplasmosis: Histoplasma duboisii
734
Test for Candida albicans that uses serum: Germ tube test
735
Chlamydospore production of Candida albicans: Cornmeal agar
736
Candidiasis infection affecting the oral cavity: Thrush
737
General isolation media for fungi: Saboraud’s dextrose agar
738
Major biologic hazard to laboratory personnel: Coccidioides immitis
739
Sensitive fungal (fluorescent) dye that binds to cell wall: Calcofluor white
740
Chromoblastomycosis: Sclerotic bodies
741
Rose gardener’s disease: Sporotrichosis
742
Eosinophilic material due to antigen-antibody reaction in cases of sporotrichosis: Asteroid body
743
Largest DNA virus: Poxvirus
744
Smallest DNA virus: Parvovirus
745
Largest RNA virus: Paramyxovirus
746
Smallest RNA virus: Enterovirus (Picornaviridae)
747
Cross reactive antigen in all human adenoviruses: Hexon
748
Gastroenteritis in children during winter months: Rotavirus
749
Nonbacterial gastroenteritis in adults: Norovirus
750
Toxic to HSV: Calcium alginate
751
Isolation medium for Cytomegalovirus: Human fibroblast cells
752
True amoeba: GENUS Entamoeba
753
Trophozoite with ingested red blood cell: Entamoeba histolytica
754
Trophozoite with ingested WBC: Entamoeba gingivalis
755
Gay bowel syndrome: Giardiasis
756
Cercaria minus a tail: Schistosomule
757
Infective stage of Diphyllobothrium latum: Plerocercoid larva
758
Resembles Diphyllobothrium latum adult: Spirometra
759
Passing of proglottids of Taenia: Irritated by ALCOHOL
760
Taenia spp. eggs: Hexacanth embryo with thick radial striations
761
Cercarial dermatitis: Schistosomes
762
Length of needle in routine phlebotomy: 1.0 – 1.5 inches
763
Angle of draw in venipuncture: 15 to 30 ° angle (15 degree angle)
764
The distance of drop of blood from the edge of the slide: 1 cm
765
Blood production outside the bone marrow: EXTRAmedullary hematopoiesis
766
Hematopoietic stem cell marker: CD 34
767
Common acute lymphocytic leukemia antigen: CD 10
768
Test for Hemoglobin S which uses black line: Dithionate solubility test
769
Starry sky pattern under low power imparted by numerous macrophages with apoptotic debris: Burkitt’s lymphoma
770
Granules (tertiary granules) present in Neutrophil: Alkaline phosphatase
771
Euglobulin clot lysis time: Screening test for fibrinolysis
772
Screening test for PNH: Sugar water screening test
773
Derived from RBC Histogram: MCV, RDW
774
Derived from Platelet Histogram: MPV, PDW
775
In cyanmethemoglobin method, all hemoglobin are measured, except: Sulfhemoglobin
776
Color of blood in sulfhemoglobinemia: Mauve lavender
777
Patient with PNH received blood transfusion: Less lysis due to the presence of normal RBCs transfused
778
Positive instrumental errors: Bubbles in the sample, extraneous electrical pulsesand aperture plugs (most common)
779
Negative instrumental error: Excessive lysing of RBCs
780
Instrumental error that is either a positive or negative error: Improper setting of aperture current or threshold
781
Purplish red pinpoint hemorrhagic spots: Petechiae
782
Blood escapes into SMALL areas of skin and mucous membrane: Purpura
783
Blood escapes into LARGE areas of skin, mucous membrane, and other tissues: Ecchymosis
784
Primary hemostasis: Vasoconstriction
785
Outer surface of platelet: Glycocalyx
786
Contains microtubules that maintains platelet shape: Sol-gel zone
787
Platelet estimate of 100,000 to 149,000/µL: Slight decrease
788
Platelet estimate of 150,000 to 199,000/µL: Low normal
789
Labile factors: Factors V and VIII
790
Prematurely activates at cold temperature: Factors VII FXI
791
Vitamin K-dependent factors: Factors II, VII, IX, X
792
Normal value for TEMPLATE bleeding time: 6 – 10 minutes
793
Christmas factor: Factor IX
794
Rosenthal syndrome: Factor XI deficiency
795
Platelet estimate of 401,000 to 599,000/µl: Slight increase
796
Platelet estimate of 600,000 to 800,000/µL: Moderate increase
797
A surgical connection between to structures, it usually means a connection that is created between tubular structures, such as blood vessels or loops of intestines: ANASTOMOSIS
798
Polyclonal antibodies used in immunohistochemical techniques are frequently derived from: RABBIT
799
Most rapid of the common freezing agents: LIQUID NITROGEN
800
General purpose fixative: 10% neutral buffered formalin
801
Protein fixation: Neutral buffered formol saline or formaldehyde vapor
802
Fixatives for nucleic acids: Ethanol, methanol and Carnoy’s solution
803
Amount of fixative used has been 10 to 25 times the volume of tissue to be fixed. Recently, the maximum effectiveness of fixation is noted to be 20 times the tissue volume.
804
Recommended ratio of fluid to tissue volume for DECALCIFICATION is 20 to 1
805
Amount of dehydrating agent should not be less than 10 times the volume of tissue
806
Dehydration: Low grade to high grade alcohol
807
Absence of water: WHITE anhydrous copper sulfate
808
Presence of water: BLUE anhydrous copper sulfate
809
Clearing: Dealcoholization
810
Most rapid embedding technique: Vacuum embedding
811
Automated tissue processor: Fix, dehydrate, clear, and infiltrate
812
Histochemical demonstration of ENZYMES: FROZEN SECTION
813
ACRIDINE ORANGE is the most commonly used fluorochrome to demonstrate DNA and RNA in fresh or fixed tissues.
814
Von Kossa’s silver nitrate method: Calcium salts = black
815
Red chromogen for peroxidases: Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC)
816
Brown chromogen for peroxidases: Diaminobenzidine (DAB)
817
Administrative investigation:2 members of board + 1 legal officer
818
Policies and guidelines for Med Tech Education: CMO no. 14 s. 2006
819
Accreditation of clinical lab for training MT interns: CMO no. 6 s. 2008
820
STAT, STATIM: Immediately
821
Biodegradable wastes: Green bag
822
CC Bishop REFERENCE METHOD FOR CHOLESTEROL AND TRIGLYCERIDES: GC-MS CHOLESTEROL: Abell-Kendall ➡️GC-MS TRIGLYCERIDE: Modification of van Handel and Zilversmit ➡️ GC-MS
823
CC Bishop CHOLESTEROL MEASUREMENT In the past, the reference method for cholesterol involved hexane extraction after hydrolysis with alcoholic KOH followed by reaction with Liebermann-Burchard color reagent, which comprises sulfuric and acetic acids and acetic anhydride. Recently, the reference method has changed to a gas chromatography–mass spectrometry (GC–MS) method that now specifically measures cholesterol and does not detect related sterols.
824
CC Bishop TRIGLYCERIDE MEASUREMENT Like the reference method for cholesterol, the CDC has recently switched to a GC–MS method that involves the hydrolysis of fatty acids on triglycerides and the measurement of glycerol.
825
Urine for routine urinalysis: 10 to 15 ml urine (50 ml-container capacity)
826
Urine for drug testing: 30 to 45 ml (60 ml-container capacity)
827
Urine for cytology: at least 50 ml urine (Gregorios)
828
Venipucture: 15 to 30 degree angle
829
Arterial puncture: 45 to 60 degree angle (90 degrees for femoral artery)
830
Before blood is collected from the radial artery in the wrist, one should do a MODIFIED ALLEN TEST to determine whether the ulnar artery can provide collateral circulation to the hand after the radial artery puncture.
831
Central Venous Assess (CVA) collection: eliminates multiple phlebotomies and surgical situations. Five (5) ml of blood must be drawn and discarded to eliminate contaminants. CVA is not recommended for bacteriology (organisms can contaminate specimen)
832
Order of draw from CATHETER LINES: First 3 to 5 ml blood is discarded THEN, blood culture, anticoagulated tubes and clot tubes.
833
Donor bleeding: 45 degree angle to the skin, make a quick clean puncture; once in the skin, reduce the angle of the needle to about 10 to 20 degrees
834
Anaerobic and require ICE slurry (immediate cooling): Lactic acid, ammonia, blood gas (if not analyzed within 30 min = ↓ pH, and po2), iCa+2 (heparinized whole blood if not analyzed within 30 min)
835
C-Peptide test: evaluates hypoglycemia and continuous assessment of beta cell function
836
Increased C-peptide: Insulinoma, type 2 DM, ingestion of hypoglycemic drugs
837
Decreased C-peptide: Type 1 DM
838
Colorimetric method for Triglycerides: van Handel and Zilversmith
839
CDC reference method for TAG: Modified van Handel and Zilversmith ➡️GC-MS
840
Fluorometric method for Triglycerides: Hantzch condensation
841
Largest and least dense: CHYLOMICRONS
842
Smallest but the most dense: HDL
843
Found in obstructive jaundice and LCAT deficiency: Lipoprotein X
844
Floating beta lipoprotein: β-VLDL
845
Sinking pre-beta lipoprotein: Lp (a)
846
Triglycerides, LDLc: FASTING 12 to 14 hours
847
Formula for LDLc: Total cholesterol – HDL – VLDL
848
Friedewald VLDLc (mmol/L): Triglycerides/2.175
849
De Long VLDLc (mmol/L): Triglycerides/2.825
850
Friedewald VLDLc (mg/dL): Triglycerides/5
851
De Long VLDLc (mg/dL): Triglycerides/6.5
852
ONE-STEP direct method for cholesterol: LIEBERMANN-BURCHARDT (L-B)
853
One-step method for cholesterol: Colorimetry (Pearson, Stern and MacGavack)
854
Two-step method for cholesterol: C + Extraction (Bloors)
855
Three-step method for cholesterol: C+ E + Saponification (Abell-Kendall)
856
Four-step method for cholesterol: C + E + S + Precipitation (Schoenheimer, Sperry, Parekh and Jung)
857
REFERENCE METHOD FOR CHOLESTEROL: Abell-Kendall ➡️GC-MS (Bishop)
858
REFERENCE METHOD FOR TRIGLYCERIDE: Modification of van Handel and Zilversmit ➡️GC-MS (Bishop)
859
TANGIER’S DISEASE: HDL is abnormal and significantly reduced
860
Activated at cold temperature: Factors VII and XI (seven, eleven)
861
Labile factors, decrease on storage: Factors V and VIII (five, eight)
862
Wintrobe tube: 11.5 cm long, 3 mm bore
863
Westergren tube: 30 cm long, 2.5 mm bore
864
Capillary tube: 7 to 7.5 cm (70-75 mm) long, 1 mm bore (1.2 mm)
865
Macrohematocrit: Centrifuge at 2,000 to 2,300 g for 30 minutes
866
Microhematocrit: Centrifuge at 10,000 to 15,000 g for 5 minutes (five minutes)
867
Normocytic, normochromic: Acute blood loss, hemolytic anemia, aplastic anemia
868
Microcytic, hypochromic: Anemia of chronic disease, thalassemia, IDA and sideroblastic anemia
869
Macrocytic, normochromic: MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA
870
Poikilocytosis: DECREASED ESR
871
Correction for WBC count, Adult: 5 or more nucleated RBCs/100 WBC differential
872
Correction for WBC count, Neonate: 10 or more nucleated RBCs/100 WBC differential
873
Increased EDTA: Decreased hematocrit, decreased ESR
874
Hemoglobinopathies: QUALITATIVE defect in hemoglobin
875
Thalassemia: QUANTITATIVE defect in hemoglobin
876
Responsible for clot retraction: THROMBOSTHENIN
877
Electromechanical detection of fibrin clot: FIBROMETER
878
Photo-optical detection: Electra, COAG-A-MATE, Ortho-Koagulab
879
Stains for the BASEMENT MEMBRANE: PAS and azocarmine
879
Complement-dependent cytotoxicity: INVERTED PHASE CONTRAST microscope
880
Fixatives for H & E: All fixatives can be used except those that contain osmic acid. Osmic acid (like Flemming’s) inhibits hematoxylin
881
Manual H & E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING, it includes a differentiation step
882
Harris hematoxylin: Primary/Basic/Nuclear stain
883
Eosin: Secondary/Counterstain/Acid/Cytoplasmic stain
884
Stain of choice for cytology: ORIGINAL Pap’s stain
885
Pap’s stain consists of 3 stains: Harris hematoxylin, Orange green (OG6) and Eosin Azure (EA)
886
Harris hematoxylin: stains the nucleus
887
OG 6: stains the cytoplasm of mature cells (superficial cells)
888
EA 36/50/65: stains the cytoplasm of immature cells (parabasal, intermediate cells)
889
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS: FIRST PRESIDENT: Charlemagne T. Tamondong "Emergence of the Profession" (1963-1967)
890
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS: Nardito D. Moraleta "Professional Recognition" (1967-1970)
891
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS: Felix E. Asprer "Legislative Agenda" (1970-1971, 1973-1976)
892
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS: Bernardo T. Tabaosares "Celebration of the Practice" (1971-1973)
893
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS: Angelina R. Jose "Career Advocacy" (1973)
894
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS: Venerable C.V. Chua (Venerable OCA) "Educational Enhancement" (1977-1981)
895
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS: Carmencita P. Acedera "Image Building" (1982-1991)
896
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS: Marilyn R. Atienza "Proactivism" (1992-1996)
897
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS: Norma N. Chang "International Leadership" (1997-2000)
898
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS: Agnes B. Medenilla "Organizational Dynamism" (2001-2002, 2005-2006)
899
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS: Shirley F. Cruzada "Interdisciplinary Networking" (2003-2004)
900
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS: Leila M. Florento "Beyond Expectations" (2007-2012)
901
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS: Romeo Joseph J. Ignacio "Soar Higher through V.O.I.C.E." Visibility, Oneness, Integrity, Commitment and Excellence (2013 - 2015)
902
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS: Ronaldo E. Puno (2015-2020)
903
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS: Rommel Saceda (2020-2022)
904
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS: CURRENT PAMET PRESIDENT IS MA'AM LUELLA VERTUCIO (2020 to present)
905
FATHER OF PAMET: CRISANTO ALMARIO
906
PAMET was originally organized on SEPTEMBER 15, 1963
907
PAMET HYMN Music: Francis Jerota Pefanco
908
PAMET HYMN Lyrics: Hector Gentapanan Gayares, Jr.
909
Current PAMET President: Ma'am Luella Vertucio
910
Current PASMETH President: Dean Jose Jurel Nuevo
911
Board of MT Head: Dr. Marilyn Barza
912
Board of MT Member: Ma'am Leila Lani Florento
913
PRC CHAIRPERSON: Atty. Charito Zamora
914
DOH SECRETARY Dr. Teodoro Herbosa
915
BIPHASIC MEDIUM/CASTANEDA BOTTLES: BRUCELLA
916
CIN medium: Y. enterocolitica
917
CCFA: C. difficile
918
BCYE medium: Legionella
919
HBT medium: Gardnerella
920
ssDNA: Parvovirus
921
dsRNA: Reovirus
922
Smallest RNA virus: Enterovirus (Picornaviridae)
923
Acid-resistant: Enterovirus
924
Acid-sensitive: Rhinovirus
925
KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES
926
Measles: RUBEOLA
927
German measles: RUBELLA
928
Chickenpox: VARICELLA
929
Odor of bitter almonds: CYANIDE
930
Garlic on breath, metallic taste on mouth: ARSERNIC
931
A blood alcohol level in the range of 80 mg/dL has been established as the statutory limit for operation of a motor vehicle in the United States. This is associated with a diminution of judgment and motor performance. The determination of blood ethanol concentration by the laboratory in cases of drunk driving requires an appropriate chain of custody, documentation of quality control, and proficiency testing records.
932
Potentiometry: measurement of pH and pCO2
933
Amperometry: measurement of pO2
934
High affinity to keratin: ARSENIC
935
Visible region: 400 to 700 nm
936
UV region <400 nm
937
Infrared region > 700 nm
938
Cholesterol, acceptable CV ≤ 3%
939
Triglyceride, acceptable CV ≤ 5%
940
HDLc, LDLc acceptable CV ≤ 4%
941
OBESE BMI ≥ 30 kg/sq.m. [ASIA-PACIFIC 25]
942
Overweight BMI 25 to 29.9 kg/sq.m.
943
Underweight BMI < 18.5 kg/sq.m.
944
BASAL STATE: early morning before the patient has eaten or become physically active
945
STAT for the Latin word statim meaning immediately. Tests that fall into this category include: Glucose in diabetic ketoacidosis Some drug levels such as theophylline Amylase in suspected pancreatitis CK in suspected MI Hematocrit Blood gases Potassium
946
CRITICAL VALUES or PANIC VALUES: list of analytes that truly do have the potential to be lethal if unchecked for a short period.
947
SCHILLING TEST: Laboratory determination of vitamin B12 absorption
948
Hemostatic mechanisms comprise four (4) main systems: the vascular system, platelets, coagulation system and fibrinolytic system.
949
OSMOLALITY Osmolality = 2Na + ( Glucose/20 ) + ( BUN/3 ) Osmolality = 1.86Na + ( Glucose/18 ) + ( BUN/2.8 ) + 9
950
ANION GAP (AG) AG = Na - (Cl + HCO3) AG = (Na + K) – (Cl + HCO3)
951
NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS: Uric acid is alkali soluble
952
NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS: Amorphous urates - soluble in alkali and heat
953
NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS: CaOx - soluble in dilute HCl
954
NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS: Amorphous phosphates - soluble in dilute acetic acid
955
NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS: Calcium phosphate - soluble in dilute acetic acid
956
NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS: Triple phosphate - soluble in dilute acetic acid
957
NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS: Ammonium biurate - soluble in acetic acid with heat
958
NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS: Calcium carbonate - forms gas from acetic acid
959
ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS: Cystine is soluble in ammonia, dilute HCl
960
ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS: Cholesterol is soluble in chloroform
961
ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS: Leucine is soluble in hot alkali or alcohol
962
ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS: Tyrosine is soluble in alkali or heat
963
ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS: Bilirubin is soluble in acetic acid, HCl, NaOH, ether and chloroform
964
ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS: Sulfonamides soluble in acetone
965
ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS: Radiographic dye soluble in 10% NaOH
966
ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS: Ampicillin crystals form bundles when refrigerated
967
F. tularensis is a very small, strictly aerobic, coccoid to pleomorphic rod-shaped, gram-negative bacillus that requires CYSTINE or CYSTEINE for growth
968
Legionella spp. may be isolated on BCYE agar supplemented with growth factors, including L-CYSTINE, FERRIC SALT, AND Α-KETOGLUTARATE.
969
Bordetella spp. are strictly aerobic, nonfermentative, catalase-positive, minute coccobacilli requiring NICOTINIC ACID, CYSTEINE, and usually METHIONINE for growth.
970
MEDICAL MALPRACTICE is misconduct or lack of skill by a health-care professional that results in injury to the patient.
971
NEGLIGENCE, which is defined as failure to give reasonable care by the health-care provider, must be proven in a malpractice suit.
972
SERUM or PLASMA is the specimen of choice for the determination of circulating concentrations of most drugs.
973
Analysis for the presence of ABUSED SUBSTANCES has focused primarily on the use of URINE as the test sample of choice. The urine specimen represents the net load of the drug over a long period, whereas the blood sample provides only a quick picture of the drug level at a specific time. DRUGS OF ABUSE, CALBREATH
974
CHAIN OF CUSTODY Processing steps for such specimens—initial collection, transportation, storage, and analytical testing— must be documented by careful record keeping. Documentation ensures that there has been no tampering with the specimen by any interested parties, that the specimen has been collected from the appropriate person, and that the results reported are accurate. Each step of the COLLECTION, HANDLING, PROCESSING, TESTING, AND REPORTING PROCESSES must be documented; this is called the chain of custody.
975
RICE BODIES are fragments of degenerating proliferative synovial cells or microinfarcted synovium.
976
OCHRONOTIC SHARDS, ground pepper appearance from pigmented cartilage fragments may be the result of a metabolic disorder (i.e., ochronosis).
977
PROBLEMS: RBCs appear gray, WBCs are too dark, eosinophil granules are gray, not orange. CAUSES: Stain or buffer too alkaline (most common), inadequate rinsing, prolonged staining, heparinized blood sample.
978
PROBLEMS: RBCs are too pale or are RED, WBCs are barely visible. CAUSES: Stain or buffer too acidic (most common), underbuffering (too short), over-rinsing.
979
HBeAg indicates HIGH INFECTIVITY.
980
CORDOCENTESIS, or percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS).
981
SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES: Formaldehyde – for Addis count
982
SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES: HCl – for epinephrine, norepinephrine, catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid
983
SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES: Glacial acetic acid pH 4.5 – for aldosterone
984
SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES: Sodium carbonate – for porphyrins and urobilinogen (to ensure alkalinity)
985
SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES: Glacial acetic acid pH 2.0 – for serotonin
986
SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES: Conc. HCl – for steroids, ammonia, urea, total nitrogen
987
SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES: Chloroform – for aldosterone
988
SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES: Sulfuric acid – preserves calcium and other inorganic constituents
989
SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES: Sodium fluoride or benzoic acid – ideal for glucose analysis, prevents glycolysis
990
TYPES OF HUMAN STEM CELLS Functionally, three types of human stem cells exist: 1. Totipotential stem cells These cells are present in the first few hours after an ovum is fertilized. Totipotential stem cells, the most versatile type of stem cell, can develop into any human cell type, including development from embryo into fetus. 2. Pluripotential stem cells These cells are present several days after fertilization. Pluripotent stem cells can develop into any cell type, except they cannot develop into a fetus. 3. Multipotential stem cells These cells are derived from pluripotent stem cells. They can be found in adults, but they are limited to specific types of cells to form tissues. For example, bone marrow stem cells can produce all types of blood cells, bone cartilage, and adipose (fat) cells.
991
Rheumatic fever, which is manifested by fever, endocarditis (inflammation of heart muscle), subcutaneous nodules, and polyarthritis, usually follows respiratory tract infections and is thought to be mediated by antibodies produced against S. pyogenes M protein that cross-react with human heart tissue. Acute glomerulonephritis, characterized by edema, hypertension, hematuria, and proteinuria, can follow respiratory or cutaneous infections and is mediated by antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in glomeruli, where they initiate damage.
992
WORLD HEALTH ORGANIZATION PUBLISHED STANDARDS FOR: 1. GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE (GMP) 1999 2. GOOD CLINICAL PRACTICE (GCP) 1995 3. GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE (GLP) 2001
993
Additional information: FUNCTIONS OF THE DANGEROUS DRUGS BOARD - The Dangerous Drugs Board. – The Board shall be the policy-making and strategy-formulating body in the planning and formulation of policies and programs on drug prevention and control.
994
Highest CK
Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)
995
Highest LD
Pernicious anemia
996
Killer immunoglobulin-like receptor (KIR) system. KIRs are one of several types of cell surface molecules that regulate the activity of NK lymphocytes. Alloreactive NK cells have been shown to mediate a graft-versus-leukemia (GVL) reaction and prevent relapse after transplantation for certain types of hematologic malignancies.
Noted, these alloreactive NK cells have been shown to mediate a graft-versus-leukemia (GVL) reaction and prevent relapse after transplantation for certain types of hematologic malignancies.