L56 – Principles of Respiratory Pharmacology Flashcards

(79 cards)

1
Q

What are the afferent sensory nerves from the airways to the CNS?

A

 Periphery (airway)&raquo_space; nodose ganglion&raquo_space; CNS (brain stem)

 Periphery (airway)&raquo_space; dorsal root ganglion&raquo_space; CNS (spinal cord)

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2
Q

What are the 2 efferent nerves from the CNS to the airways?

A

Parasympathetic nerve > Vagus

Sympathetic nerve

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3
Q

Give pathway of vagus nerve from preganglionic nuclei to muscarinic receptors? (from brain stem to lungs)

A

Vagus:
preganglionic nuclei in brain stem&raquo_space; Release Ach to nicotinic receptors in nodose ganglion&raquo_space; post-ganglionic fibers&raquo_space; Release Ach to muscarinic receptors

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4
Q

What are the 3 types of muscarinic receptors in the lungs?

A

 M1, M3 on:
Bronchial smooth muscle
Submucosal glands

 M2: autoreceptor

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5
Q

What does the efferent parasympathetic vagal nerve innervate in the airways?

A

Bronchial smooth muscle (constrict)

Submocosal glands (secrete)

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6
Q

What do the sympathetic nerves innervate in the airways?

A

Blood vessels

submucosal glands

NOT bronchial smooth muscle

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7
Q

In asthma patients, which muscarinic receptor is dysfunctional?

A

In the parasympathetic vagal nerve ending:

M2 dysfunctions&raquo_space; all Ach released in vagal nerve to M1, M3

Normally M2 acts as autoreceptor and inhibits Ach release to M1, M3

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8
Q

Give the INDIRECT pathway of sympathetic nerve from CNS to airway?

A

Preganglionic fibers&raquo_space; release Ach to nicotinic receptors on Adrenal medulla > secrete Adrenaline through blood circulation > binds to β2 receptors on bronchial smooth muscle > airway relaxation

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9
Q

Give the DIRECT pathway of sympathetic nerve from CNS to airway?

A

Preganglionic neurons in sympathetic chain ganglia (T1-L2) of spinal cord > cervical thoracic ganglion > innervate submucosal glands, blood vessels

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10
Q

What is the role of respiratory stimulants?

A

Help increase the urge to breathe in the treatment of respiratory failure

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11
Q

What is the action of Doxapram (resp. stimulant)?

A

CNS stimulant > acts on both:

a) carotid chemoreceptors +
b) respiratory centre in brain stem

to increase respiration

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12
Q

How does breathing pattern and blood gas change after taking Doxapram?

A

Increase respiratory rate and tidal volume

Fall in pCO2, Increase in pO2

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13
Q

Route of admin for Doxapram?

A

IV

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14
Q

3 target patient groups of Doxapram?

A

Preterm infants with apnea

Old patients with sleep apnea

COPD patient with acute resp. failure

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15
Q

What is the action of respiratory depressants?

A

Diffuses into cell membranes of nerve cells 

> > inhibits passive neuronal flux of Na+

> > stop respiration

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16
Q

Name some respiratory depressants?

A BB HEN

A

 Antidepressants

 Barbiturates
 Benzodiazepines

 H1-histamine receptor antagonists (promethazine)
 Ethanol
 Narcotic analgesics (opioids: morphine, codeine)

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17
Q

What is the risk of taking excessive respiratory depressant?

A

Excessive dosage = decrease sensitivity of respiration to CO2 and abolish hypoxic drive

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18
Q

What receptors regulate hypoxic drive of respiration?

A

Peripheral chemoreceptors

@ carotid and aortic bodies

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19
Q

What drugs provoke asthma?

A

NSAIDs: Aspirin, ibuprofen

Nonselective beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists (Beta-blockers)

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20
Q

Explain how NSAIDs can lead to bronchoconstriction?

A

NSAIDs block cyclooxygenase in the Arachidonic acid pathway > inhibit synthesis of lipid mediators of inflammation

All Arachidonic acid directed to 5-lipoxygenase pathway to make Leukotrienes&raquo_space; potent bronchoconstrictor

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21
Q

Airway smooth muscle B receptor is the same or different from heat B receptor?

A

Heart = B1

Airway SM = B2

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22
Q

How does propanolol act on the heart and the airway?

A

Propanolol is a NON-selective Beta blocker

> block both B1 on heart and B2 on airway smooth muscle

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23
Q

Can propanolol be used with inhaler?

A

No

Opposite action, contraindicate

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24
Q

What are the 3 types of drugs used to treat coughs?

AME

A

Antitussive

Mucolytics

Expectorants

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25
Name some causes for production of cough? DE CAPU
Drug induced cough Environmental: irritant, dust, smoking... Chronic pulmonary ailments Asthma Pleural disease Upper respiratory tract infection
26
Name one drug for heart problems that can cause cough?
ACE inhibitor
27
2 types of cough?
Productive/ Congested cough (remove excess secretions) Non-productive/ Dry cough
28
Antitussives is only used for which type of cough?
ONLY for Non-productive/ dry cough
29
What is the function of Antitussives?
Suppress the intensity and frequency of coughing
30
What is the site of action for antitussives?
Peripheral or Central nervous system
31
How does antitiussive affect peripheral nervous system to decrease intensity and frequency of coughing?
DECREASE sensitivity of peripheral sensory ‘cough | receptors’ in pharynx and larynx to irritation
32
How does antitiussive affect Central nervous system to decrease intensity and frewquency of coughing?
DECREASE sensitivity of cough centres in medulla oblongata to peripheral stimulus >> Decrease cough reflex
33
Different administrations for Antitussives acting on peripheral NS?
Above larynx = Oral = use demulcent, e.g. syrups, lozenges Below larynx = Inhalation = inhale water aerosol, warm environment
34
What are the 2 classes of antitussives that act on the CNS? Which one is more popular?
Codein (opioid/ opiate agonist) Dextromethorphan (non-opiod) ** more popular **
35
Why is codein rarely recommended for children?
Addictive
36
What are the gross effects of codeine? good and bad effects
Produce constipation, nausea, respiratory depression Strong cough suppressant
37
What is the action of Dextromethorphan?
Selectively depresses the cough center in medulla oblongata
38
What are some side effects of Dextromethorphan?
Mild and rare:  Dizziness  Drowsiness  Nausea
39
Compare the adverse effects between Codeine and Dextromethorphan?
Codein = addictive, euphoria, respiratory depression, constipation Dextromethorphan = No addictive, no euphoria, no respiratory depression, no constipation
40
Which antitussive is over the counter, which is not?
Codein (opioid) is prescription drug Dextromethorphan is OTC
41
What is the function of expectorants?
Act locally to help remove secretions/ exudates from the trachea, bronchi, lungs
42
How do expectorants change the mucus and affect the CNS?
Stimulate mucin secreting cells: Produce increased volume of thinner mucin with high water content (low viscosity) Increased mucin > Stimulate cough centre to help clear the bronchial tract
43
Name one expectorant
Guaifenesin (OTC)
44
Compare the action between expectorants and mucolytics on mucus? *think volume*
Mucolytics = decrease viscosity of mucus but **Not change volume of mucus** Expectorants = Decrease viscosity of mucus BY CHANGING VOLUME
45
Explain the action of Mucolytics on mucus?
Break disulphide bonds cross-linking mucus glycoprotein molecules >> thinner mucin > easier to clear
46
Why is mucolytics especially good for bronchitis patients?
Bronchitis patients produce very thick sputum with many polysaccharide fibres
47
Name 3 mucolytics? NBC
N-acetylcysteine (oral) Bromhexine Carbocisteine
48
What is Dornase Alpha?
Recombinant human deoxyribonuclease I
49
Why is Recombinant human deoxyribonuclease I (dornase alpha) used for patients with cystic fibrosis? (think DNA)
CF > DNA leak out of dead neutrophils makes mucin very thick and tenacious >> Viscous purulent exudate Dornase Alpha has rhDNase I to hydrolyze extracellular DNA in mucus >> decrease viscosity
50
Name the 2 types of pulmonary surfactants and give an example for each?
Natural surfactant = Curosurf | Synthetic surfactant = Colfosceril
51
Action of pulmonary surfactant?
Decrease surface tension of alveoli > prevent alveoli collapse
52
How are pulmonary surfactants administered?
Endotracheal tube directly into pulmonary tree
53
When are pulmonary surfactants used?
Management of respiratory distress syndrome (esp. premature babies)
54
What is oxygen therapy used for and what is the threshold in PaO2 for starting it?
Used in the management of acute pulmonary disorders, Chronic obstructive diseases Used when PaO2 falls below 55mmHg/ 7.3kPa
55
What are the 2 effects of drugs used to treat COPD?
Dilate airway smooth muscle Inhibit airway inflammation
56
What type of HS is allergic rhinitis?
Type I
57
Describe the symptoms caused by allergic rhinitis?
nasal congestion, itching, redness, sneezing, runny nose, teary eyes
58
What is the drug used for allergic rhinitis and what is the action?
H1 Antihistamines (H1 receptor antagonist) Block histamine released by Mast cells from receptor >> stop vasodilation and stop increased capillary permeability
59
Name 2 first generation H1 antihistamines and name the side effects? CD
 Chlorphenamine  Diphenhydramine Sedative/ drowsiness/ dizziness Hypotention and dry mouth
60
Why is the second generation of H1- antihistamines non-drowsy?
2nd gen. works peripherally to block action of histamine **NEVER CROSSES BBB
61
Name the three 2nd generation H1 Antihistamines and name which ones are OTC or not. CLF
 Cetirizine OTC  Loratadine OTC  Fexofenadine : potent, effective,prescription
62
What are some other effects of 2nd generation H1 Antihistamines apart from treating allergic rhinitis?
Anti- nausea | anti-emetic, local anaethesia (if high dose)
63
What is the function of decongestants?
Reduce congestion of nasal passages >> open clogged nasal passages, enhances drainages of sinuses
64
What are the 2 decongestants? PP
Phenylephrine > selective α1-adrenergic agonist Pseudoephedrine > sympathomimetic drug
65
What is the action of Phenylephrine ?
Constrict dilated arterioles in nasal mucosa and reduces airway resistance
66
2 forms of phenylephrine? Compare their onset and systemic effects?
 Aerosol: rapid onset of action, few systemic effects  Oral: longer duration, more systemic effects
67
Name one combo therapy (1 pellet containing 2 classes of respiratory drug)
cetirizine (2nd generation antihistamine) + pseudoephedrine (sympathomimetic decongestant)
68
What is the function of a glucocorticoid nasal spray?
beclomethasone anti-inflammatory drug, immune suppressor
69
What is the function of Cromolyn sodium? When is it mostly used?
Intranasal spray > Anti-allergic mast-cell stabilizers Mostly for prophylaxis: stop mast cell degranulation to avoid allergic rhinitis
70
``` What drug classes do the following drugs belong to: Dextromethorphan Guaifenesin Dornase Alfa Phenylephine Chlorphenamine Doxapram ```
Dextromethorpan = non-opioid Antitussive Guaifenesin = expectorant Dornase alpfa = mucolytics Phenylephine = selective α1-adrenergic agonist decongestant Chlorpheamine = 1st gen H1 antihistamine Doxapram = resp. CNS stimulant
71
3 routes of administering resp. drugs?
Oral Inhalation Nasal spray (topical )
72
Which method of resp. drug admin. results in lowest effective dose and least side effects?
Inhalation Greatest and quickest deposition of drug into lungs
73
What are the 3 types of inhalation devices? Which one is most common
pressurized Metered-dose inhaler (pMDI) Dry powder inhaler (DPI): Turbuhaler and Diskhaler Nebulizer *DPI is most common
74
What drugs are put into pMDIs? (4) BSBF
Bronchodiators: - Short acting B2 agonist - Salmeterol Steroid: - BDP/ budesonide - Fluticasone
75
Compare the propellant in pMDI and DPI? Which needs coordinated inhalation?
pMDI = CFC profellant, need coordinated inhalation DPI = no propellant, no need for coordinated inhalation
76
Which type of drug delivery system is not great for patients with low Peak Expiratory Flow Rate?
Dry powder inhaler | Problem in patients with low PEFR (<60L/min)
77
What is the site of pulmonary absorption via inhalation?
Pulmonary epithelium, mucosa of respiratory tract
78
What are some advantages of pulmonary absorption via inhalation? Disadvantages?
 Advantages: fast at site of action, avoid hepatic first pass  Disadvantages: poor to regulate doses, cumbersome, local irritation (e.g. dry cough, dry mouth)
79
What are some advantages of drug intake via oral route?
 Advantages: easy  Disadvantages: hepatic first pass, possible GI irritation (e.g. diarrhea) .... etc