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Microbiology > Lectures 1-4 > Flashcards

Lectures 1-4 Flashcards

1
Q

A set of criteria for determining that a newly emerging organism causes a disease.

A

Koch’s postulates

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2
Q

Is Koch’s postulates used by our doctors? Why?

A

No, used by scientists to identify a NEWLY emerging organism.

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3
Q

Characteristics of bacteria in the genus Bacillus

A

Long rod, Form spores, live in the soil

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4
Q

What are endospores? How can bacteria use it to their advantage?

A

Durable structures that last for decades, protect genetic material, and remain dormant until germination.

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5
Q

What happens once a spore germinates?

A

It reforms a vegetative cell which can reproduce.

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6
Q

What bacteria is well suited for germ warfare? Why?

A

Bacillus anthracis. It forms spores that can be dispersed through the air.

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7
Q

What are the three types of anthrax disease? (least to most lethal)

A

Cutaneous, intestinal, and pulmonary.

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8
Q

How is cutaneous anthrax obtained? Does it become systemic?

A

Enters through wound in skin. Usually self-limiting, becomes systemic in 5% of cases.

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9
Q

What is anthrax named after?

A

Anthracite coal

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10
Q

How is intestinal anthrax obtained? Symptoms? Does it become systemic?

A

Eating meat contaminated with B. anthracis.
Causes bloody vomiting, ulceration of intestines, and enteritis.
Systemic in 20-30% of cases.

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11
Q

How is pulmonary anthrax obtained? Symptoms? Does it become systemic?

A

Inhalation of B. anthracis spores.
1st develop flu-like symptoms, infection becomes systemic, fluid accumulates in lungs and bloody discharge occurs from body openings, death.

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12
Q

How long do spores remain dormant for? Can they germinate right away?

A

Can remain dormant in lungs for 1-2 months. Yes, some germinate right away.

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13
Q

What is a macrophage? What do they do?

A

Non-specific immune cell. Attack any pathogen/ foreign body.

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14
Q

What happens after the endospores are engulfed by the macrophages in the lungs?

A

Macrophages carry germinated bacteria to lymph nodes. Here macrophages are killed by bacterial toxins. Toxins and bacteria are then released throughout the body.

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15
Q

What happens once the macrophages have been killed?

A

They uncontrollably release their own chemicals that cause blood vessels to be overly leaky.

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16
Q

How do macrophages work under normal conditions?

A

They release their chemicals in a controlled fashion, so immune proteins can leak thru the blood vessels to the site of infection.

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17
Q

What does it mean when an infection is systemic?

A

Moves all over the body thru the blood

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18
Q

In pulmonary anthrax, what specifically causes a person to go into shock?

A

Excessive amounts of fluid leaking out of blood vessels causing blood volume to decrease.

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19
Q

In pulmonary anthrax, what causes the blood vessels to leak uncontrollably?

A

Uncontrollable release of chemicals by dead macrophages and release of edema toxin from B. anthracis.

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20
Q

Gets the immune system ready for the infection so it can respond quickly. Gives the immune system its first look.

A

Vaccine

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21
Q

How is a vaccine made?

A

Made from culture filtrates from an avirulent strain of the bacteria.

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22
Q

When should antibiotics be given?

A

Shortly after exposure, at least 24 hrs.

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23
Q

How long would antibiotics need to be given? Why?

A

At least 2 months because some spores take 60 days to germinate.

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24
Q

After your first exposure, your immune system produces _______________. They “remember” the organism

A

memory cells

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25
Q

Liquid that has gone through a filter

A

filtrate

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26
Q

Toxins that are secreted by bacteria

A

Exotoxins

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27
Q

What are the components of exotoxins made of? Where are these made?

A

Polypeptides encoded by genes. They are made inside the bacterium.

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28
Q

What type of exotoxin is released by B. anthracis?

A

AB type

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29
Q

What is another name for A component?

A

Catalytic component

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30
Q

What does the A component part of the toxin do?

A

Causes the harmful effect; has to get into the cytoplasm to do so.

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31
Q

What is another name for B component?

A

Binding component

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32
Q

What does the B component part of the toxin do?

A

Allows the toxin to bind to a receptor on the target cell so the A component/entire toxin is delivered to target cell.

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33
Q

In anthrax toxin, what part of the toxin enters the target cell?

A

the entire toxin is engulfed, the A component is then released into cytoplasm

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34
Q

What is the binding component that both anthrax toxins contain called?

A

protective antigen

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35
Q

How is the toxin assembled? Where does everything come from?

A

The individual components are secreted by bacterium, and toxin is assembled on target cell

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36
Q

What are the two toxins called?

A

lethal and edema toxin

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37
Q

What are the two different catalytic components?

A

lethal and edema factor

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38
Q

part of the toxin that allows it to bind to the receptor on the target cell

A

protective antigen

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39
Q

How did antibodies against PA keep the mouse from dying?

A

Prevented PA from binding to the target cell or prevent it from assembling to form toxin.

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40
Q

Highly specific proteins made by the immune system (shaped like a “y”)

A

Antibodies

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41
Q

Molecules the body sees as foreign

A

Antigens

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42
Q

How do antibodies work?

A

They bind to antigens acting like flags, marking the antigen for degradation by other immune cells

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43
Q

PA is assembled into a _____________ on the ____________ _________ on the surface of the target cell.

A

heptamer; cellular receptors

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44
Q

What happens to the little knob on the top of the PA? By what?

A

Cleaved off by a cellular protease.

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45
Q

Why is PA cleaved?

A

so that the catalytic components can assemble into the toxin.

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46
Q

Which components are released into the cytoplasm of the cell?

A

catalytic components

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47
Q

Inactivates immune cells; degrades an immune system kinase involved in chemical signaling between immune cells

A

lethal factor

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48
Q

adds a phosphate group to a protein, may activate the protein.

A

kinase

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49
Q

also kills macrophages

A

lethal factor

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50
Q

causes fluid accumulation and swelling by upsetting fluid balance in cell

A

edema factor

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51
Q

What is PA cleaved by? what is it?

A

furin, a membrane protease

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52
Q

is furin bacterial or eukaryotic in origin?

A

eukaryotic

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53
Q

Why is PA cleaved?

A

to exposed sites where LF or EF can bind.

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54
Q

Where are the toxins assembled?

A

on the plasma membrane of the target cell

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55
Q

What happens after the toxins are assembled on the target cell?

A

They are engulfed and a membrane bound vesicle forms around it.

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56
Q

What does the vesicle cause after it is formed around the toxin? and what does it do?

A

Causes PA to form a pore thru which the catalytic component can be released into cytoplasm

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57
Q

Acid causes _______ to change its shape. Why is this?

A

Heptamer; Because acid disrupts weak interactions like H bonds that give proteins its shape.

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58
Q

EF has ______ ______ activity.

A

adenylate cyclase

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59
Q

A class on enzymes that convert ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP)

A

adenylate cyclases

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60
Q

Acts as a chemical message. Also functions in a pathway that controls water balance in cell.

A

cAMP

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61
Q

What happens when a lot of cAMP is made? What does it cause?

A

Water balance is upset and fluid is released causing edema.

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62
Q

What else caused edema associated with pulmonary anthrax?

A

Chemicals released by dead macrophages, causing overly leaky blood vessels.

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63
Q

________ ________ is an enzyme that makes ________, a messenger that causes fluid to leave the cell. It is a type of __________ __________.

A

Edema factor; cAMP; adenylate cyclase

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64
Q

Once it enters the cytoplasm, LF cleaves a ________ __________ ________. Called what?

A

cellular protein kinase; MAPKK

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65
Q

Involved in generating signals which allow immune cells to communicate

A

MAPKK

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66
Q

Lethal factor ultimately does what to the cell?

A

ends up killing the cell

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67
Q

_______ _______ degrades the cellular kinase called ________ so that immune cells cannot communicate.

A

lethal factor; MAPKK

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68
Q

What does MAPKK stand for?

A

mitogen associated protein kinase kinase

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69
Q

The suspected pathogenic organism should be present in ALL cases of the disease and absent from healthy animals.

A

Postulate 1

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70
Q

The suspected organism should be grown in pure culture

A

Postulate 2

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71
Q

A culture containing a single organism

A

pure culture

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72
Q

Cells from a pure culture of the suspected organism should cause disease in a healthy animal

A

postulate 3

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73
Q

The organism should be reisolated and shown to be the same as the original

A

postulate 4

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74
Q

Will B. anthracis be found in blood of most pts w cutaneous anthrax?

A

No, it becomes systemic in only 5% of pts

75
Q

This bacteria was mistakenly given its name because it was thought to cause the flu

A

Haemophilus influenzae

76
Q

What does H. influenzae actually cause?

A

A secondary infection in pts infected w flu virus.

Can also cause meningitis

77
Q

What is meningitis?

A

An infection of the meninges, the lining of the brain and spinal cord

78
Q

Bacteria that causes meningococcal meningitis

A

Neisseria meningitidis

79
Q

Gastric ulcers were thought to be caused by stress, but they’re actually caused by what bacteria?

A

Helicobacter pylori

80
Q

Who discovered what bacteria caused gastric ulcers?

A

Barry Marshall

81
Q

What postulate did Barry Marshall have trouble proving? What is it?

A

postulate 3, a lab animal would not develop ulcers if fed the bacterium (no animal model)

82
Q

What are ulcers treated with?

A

antibiotics

83
Q

How did Barry Marshall prove the bacterium caused the disease without an animal model?

A

He ingested the bacterium himself and had an endoscopy completed before and after the experiment.

84
Q

How does H. pylori cope with the stomach acid?

A

It has a flagella and creates a microenvironment by generating an ammonia cloud.

85
Q

What does the flagella on H. pylori allow the organism to do?

A

allows it to bore thru the mucin gel to reach the epithelial cells in stomach

86
Q

How does H. pylori create a microrenvironment?

A

It raises pH in the area by producing ammonia.

87
Q

For what 2 reasons does H. pylori raise the pH (generate ammonia)?

A

Makes pH neutral, (protect itself from stomach acid) and causes the mucin gel to fall apart.

88
Q

Once H. pylori reaches the epithelial cells the __________ and _______ it produces causes damage to the stomach cells which causes __________ and __________.

A

ammonia and proteases; inflammation and ulceration.

89
Q

What enzyme breaks down urea to ammonia?

A

urease

90
Q

Microscopic organisms living as a single cell or clusters of cells in nature. What’s an example?

A

Microorganism; bacteria

91
Q

Larger organisms composed of numerous cells that are not found in nature. Example?

A

macroorganisms; plants and animal cells

92
Q

Is mitochondria considered a macro or micro organism?

A

Neither, it does not live on its own in nature.

93
Q

lack nucleus and membrane bound organelles

A

prokaryotic

94
Q

Have nucleus and membrane bound organelles

A

Eukaryotic

95
Q

What are the three domains of organisms?

A

Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya

96
Q

Shows how organisms are genetically related to one another in evolutionary terms.

A

Phylogenetic tree

97
Q

What two organelles evolved from a bacterium?

A

mitochondria and chloroplast

98
Q

Although bacteria and archaea are both _________, they have diff major enzymes and structures used in __________ and __________.

A

prokaryotic; transcription; translation

99
Q

_______ and _______ are related to each other and share similarities that are not shared with _________.

A

Archaea; Eukarya; Bacteria

100
Q

Archaea that live in extreme environments

A

extremophiles

101
Q

Produce methane and live in the colon, produce an unpleasant smell when gas is released.

A

methanogens

102
Q

Thermophilic bacteria found in hot springs

A

Thermus aquaticus

103
Q

Because T. aquaticus can handle high temps, its enzymes are very ______ ________.

A

heat stable

104
Q

Biologists use ______ ________ to perform the polymerase chain rxn (PCR) which requires high heat

A

Taq polymerase

105
Q

A DNA polymerase that can handle high temps

A

Taq polymerase

106
Q

Allows DNA to be amplified so that billions of copies of the target DNA sequence can be made.

A

polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

107
Q

What do high temps do to proteins? Why?

A

denature proteins, they disrupt weak interactions (H bonds).

108
Q

How are eukaryotic microorganisms classified?

A

how they obtain their food.

109
Q

Does a bacterium have a mitochondrion?

A

No, no membrane bound organelles

110
Q

What are three eukaryotic microorganisms?

A

Algae, fungi, protozoa

111
Q

Contain chloroplasts and their source of energy is sunlight (microorganism)

A

algae

112
Q

Secrete digestive enzymes and move digested organic compounds into the cell for energy (like no other org)

A

fungi

113
Q

ingest other organisms and break them down to get energy (microorg)

A

protozoa

114
Q

_______ are precursors to plants and ________ are precursors to animals.

A

algae; protozoa

115
Q

What are 2 eukaryotic macroorganisims?

A

plants and animals

116
Q

Where does bacteria live?

A

in their food supply

117
Q

When bacteria are grown in media they grow until:

A

They run out of nutrients or accumulate so much waste it kills them

118
Q

What bacteria dies slowly?

A

E. Coli

119
Q

What bacteria grows and dies rapidly? what does it cause?

A

Vibrio cholerae; cholera

120
Q

A graph that shows growth of a culture over time

A

Growth curve

121
Q

What is on the 2 vertical axes of a growth curve?

A

Viable organisms/mL (log10) and optical density

122
Q

What is on the horizontal axis?

A

time

123
Q

Measures how cloudy of turbid the culture is using a spectrophotometer.

A

optical density

124
Q

Do dead cells still make the culture cloudy?

A

Yes, as long as they do not lyse.

125
Q

Enzyme that breaks down proteins

A

proteolytic enzyme

126
Q

Occurs at beginning of growth; cells are not reproducing bc they have been depleted of essential components and need time to make more

A

lag phase

127
Q

lag phase occurs under what 3 conditions?

A

Going from stationary phase culture to fresh media

Going from rich media to minimal media

Treating culture w UV light or X ray radiation

128
Q

Minimal media normally contains _______ as the carbon source, ______ as the nitrogen source, and a phosphate source

A

glucose; ammonia

129
Q

Strand breakage is caused by x-rays which along w UV light can cause ______bonds to form between ______ in the same strand.

A

covalent; bases

130
Q

Very rapid growth, during this period the culture is very healthy. (Population doubles)

A

exponential/log phase

131
Q

Growth rate slows so the number of new cells being made = the number of cells dying.

A

Stationary phase

132
Q

Cells are dying and they are not being replaced; nutrients are depleted and waste products accumulated

A

Death phase

133
Q

Act as a selective barrier to keep some substances from entering the cell and some from leaving the cell

A

membrane

134
Q

Membranes are permeable to…

A

Gases, water, small not fully charged molecules (alcohols)

135
Q

Can glucose get thru the lipid bilayer? Why?

A

no, it’s too large

136
Q

How many carbons does glucose have? and glycerol?

A

6; 3

137
Q

Can fully charged ions get through the lipid part of the membrane? (H+, Na+)

A

No

138
Q

Allow water to move in and out of the cell more efficiently than thru the lipid bilayer.

A

aquaporin

139
Q

The bilayer and the phospholipids are considered ____________ meaning they are both hydrophobic and hydrophilic

A

amphipathic

140
Q

Phospholipids are composed of what 3 things?

A

glycerol, fatty acid, and phosphate group

141
Q

What is the backbone of phospholipids?

A

glycerol

142
Q

What has a carboxylic and acidic part?

A

fatty acid

143
Q

What has a hydrocarbon tail?

A

fatty acid

144
Q

What part of the phospholipid is hydrophilic? hydrophobic?

A

hydrophilic heads, hydrophobic tails

145
Q

Contains a lipid/ fatty part and a phosphate group also contain glycerol

A

phospholipid

146
Q

The uncharged region of a phospholipid contains a _________ chain

A

hydrocarbon

147
Q

in the phospholipids in bacteria/eukaryotes, the fatty acid is linked to glycerol by an ____________ linkage

A

ester

148
Q

a phosphate group gives a membrane a ____________ charge. Why is this?

A

negative; When H+ leave it makes the phosphate grp acidic, what remains is a negatively charged ion.

149
Q

What allows the phosphate grp to have full charges?

A

lost its protons

150
Q

a phospholipid contains 2 _______ _______ and 1 _______ _______ connected to _______.

A

fatty acids; phosphate group; glycerol

151
Q

Organisms that live at ________ temps may have more fatty acids in their membranes w bends in them.

A

lower

152
Q

The bend makes the ___________ fatty acids liquid at room temp

A

unsaturated

153
Q

The bend in a fatty acid occurs where a __________ ________ is present, which is in the ____ configuration

A

double bond; cis

154
Q

What bond causes the bend in unsaturated fatty acids? which does not?

A

cis; trans

155
Q

In Archaea, glycerol and phosphate are both present but not ____ ______

A

fatty acids

156
Q

What is the lipid-like molecule used in Archaea phospholipids? (instead of fatty acids)

A

isoprene

157
Q

What are 4 isoprenes repeated in a phospholipid called? What links an isoprene to glycerol?

A

phytanyl group; ether linkage

158
Q

Which linkage is more stable? Why?

A

ether; because the C with 1 O is less charged than the C with 2 Os.

159
Q

Electronegativity makes the ______ linkage more susceptible to a ______ rxn in which a bond is broken by water.

A

ester; hydrolytic

160
Q

having a high affinity for electrons

A

electronegativity

161
Q

______ is electronegative, which means it pulls _______ from elements it is bonded to closer to itself.

A

oxygen; electrons

162
Q

Oxygen in water has a slightly _______ charge and the H’s are slightly ________.

A

negative; positive

163
Q

What compound in a phospholipid contains 3 C’s and can be linked to fatty acids or nonacidic lipids?

A

glycerol

164
Q

Characteristics of bilayer in eukaryotes and bacteria?

A

less stable
hydrophobic interactions hold layers together
not strong, can be disrupted by heat

165
Q

Characteristics of monolayer in Archaea? what’s another name for monolayer?

A

very stable
covalent bonds hold layers together
very strong, not disrupted by heat
called a biphytanyl

166
Q

Archaea that are not ________________ can have a mix of both mono/ bilayer

A

hyperthermophilic

167
Q

two phytanyl groups linked together

A

biphytanyl

168
Q

In a biphytanyl 2 phytanyl groups are linked by what kind of bond?

A

covalent

169
Q

The anthrax toxin that acts as a protease is ________ and it cleaves the protein called _______. The protein is cleaves normally adds a _______ to another protein in the immune sys.

A

lethal toxin; MAPKK; phosphate

170
Q

Edema factor causes the cell to make ________.

A

cyclic AMP

171
Q

Furin cleaves ______ ________ of the anthrax toxin.

A

protective antigen

172
Q

The bacterium H. pylori makes an enzyme called _______ that produces the compound _____ which is used to adjust the pH of the stomach.

A

urease; ammonia

173
Q

In a growth curve, the 1st phase that will be present when transferring culture from a log culture in rich media to minimal media will be the _____ phase.

A

lag

174
Q

The phase in a growth curve that is less dramatic when taking the OD of the culture rather than determining the viable cell count is the _______ phase.

A

death

175
Q

The org that can handle very high temps and is in the domain Bacteria is?

A

Thermus aquaticus

176
Q

The toxin that blocks the release of glycine in neurons is ________ toxin.

A

tetanus

177
Q

Bacteria in the genera _____ and ______ form spores.

A

Bacillus; Clostridium

178
Q

______ did not develop into a macroorganism like algae did

A

fungi

179
Q

Cis and trans double bonds would be found in a ______ ______ which is an acidic constituent of _________ which make up the membranes of organisms in the prokaryotic domain __________.

A

fatty acid; phospholipids; Bacteria

180
Q

In Archaea membranes the phospholipids, instead of a fatty acid have a larger molecule called a _______ which is made up of molecules that are shorter and don’t contain any oxygens called _______. The bond that connects blank 1 to the backbone is the ______ bond.

A

phytanyl; isoprenes; ether

181
Q

Yes or no: The ester linkage is more stable than the ether linkage.

A

No

182
Q

Yes or no: The ester linkage contains 1 oxygen and the ether linkage contains 2.

A

No

183
Q

Yes or no: In an ester linkage, the C from the carboxyl group would have a slightly positive charge.

A

Yes

Microbiology (16 decks)

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