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1

1. You are using a multimeter to test a network cable for a break. What reading would indicate that there is a break in the cable?
Choose the correct answer

A. 0 amps
B. 0 volts
C. Infinite resistance
D. No resistance

C. Infinite resistance

When you are using a multimeter to test a network cable for a break, a reading of infinite resistance would indicate that there is a break in the cable. A multimeter is a diagnostic device that combines several tools into one. A multimeter has two probes, a function selector, and a display. You can use a multimeter to measure resistance in ohms, to measure voltage in volts DC or AC, or to measure current in amperes (amps). When you measure resistance, you can identify a faulty cable.

No resistance, or near no resistance, is the reading you should expect when testing cable continuity with a multimeter. This does not indicate any type of error.

A measurement of 0 amps or 0 volts. If you are measuring resistance, you are measuring ohms, not amps or volts.

2

2. A user plans to purchase a new iPhone at an Apple Store. What should the user do with his current iPhone to ensure a seamless transition prior to entering the store?
Choose the correct answer

A. Back up the iPhone to his computer.

B. Send the configuration details of the iPhone to the Apple Store.

C. Synchronize the iPhone to iCloud.

D. Purchase a USB data transfer cable.

C. Synchronize the iPhone to iCloud.

The user should synchronize his iPhone to iCloud. iCloud is Apple's cloud-based file storage service. At the Apple Store, the technician can restore the data from the user's iCloud account to his new device to ensure a seamiess transition.

The user should not send the configuration details of the iPhone to the Apple Store. This is not required to switch from an older device to a newer one.

The user should not back up the iPhone to his computer because the scenario does not mention that the user will bring the computer to the Apple Store. The technician would need local access to the computer to restore the data on the old device to the new iPhone.

The user should not purchase a Universal Serial Bus (USB) data transfer cable because the data transfer occurs over the Internet using WIFi Ethernet.

3

3. A customer has an Android smart phone. The customer is concerned about data security and wants to know what data is backed up automatically.

What data is backed up to Google automatically by default? (Choose three.)
Choose the correct answers

A. Game progress

B. Photos

C. Logins

D. Chrome browser data 

E. Contacts, Gmail emails, and calendars

F. Google authentication data

G. Purchased apps

D. Chrome browser data

E. Contacts, Gmail emails, and calendars

G. Purchased apps

Explanation
Android smart phones are designed to back up part of their data to Google automatically. Data that is backed up automatically includes:

* Contacts, emails, and calendars
* Chrome browser data
* Purchased apps
* Some third party app data
* Google Talk chat logs

4

4. A customer wants a device that supports viewing documents while travelling. The customer wants to go with the least expensive option.
What should you recommend?
Choose the correct answer

A. E-reader

B. Laptop

C. Tablet

D. Smart phone

A. E-reader

Explanation
You should recommend an e-reader. This is the least expensive option for a mobile device that lets you view documents. They also let you view graphics in various formats. Various document formats are supported, with nearly all devices supporting text files and most supporting PDF files.

E-readers are limited functionality devices. They do not provide phone support, so you cannot send and receive calls or texts. They do have a built-in operating system, but do not support mobile apps.

All of the other options listed support viewing documents but are more expensive. Reading documents on a
tablet or laptop is much the same as reading them on an e-reader. Using a smart phone can be more difficult because of the smaller screen size.

5

5. You are selecting a display for use by a digital artist. The display needs to have the best possible images and support the ability to turn off individual pixels.

Which type of display should you select?
Choose the correct answer

A. Plasma

B. OLED

C. LED

D. LCD

B. OLED

Explanation
Organic light-emitting diode (OLED) screens are the next generation in displays. OLED produces the best images of any display available on the market. It achieves this superiority by turning off individual pixels. When a pixel is black, it is the closest to the absence of black as is possible. Plasmas, light-emitting diodes (LEDs), and Liquid Crystal Displays (LCDs) cannot do this. The only drawback to OLED is its high price.

While LED, LCD, and plasma can produce quality images, they cannot turn off individual pixels. Backlit

LEDs can produce area-wide dimming of pixels, but not individual pixels themselves. Only OLED screens can do this.

6

6. Which component should be upgraded FIRST to use the workstation described below for virtualization purposes and to install a few Windows Servers and Linux machines?

CPU x64 base clock: 3.9 GHz
CPU cores: 4
TDP: 51W
Storage: 512 GB SATA SSD
RAM: ECC 8 GB
Optical drive: none
USB: 3x USB 3.0, 2x USB 2.0

Choose the correct answer

A. Optical drive

B. RAM

C. CPU

D. Storage

B. RAM

Explanation
The system might not have enough random access memory (RAM) to run multiple virtual machines (VMs). For example, Windows Server 2019 requires at least 2 GB of RAM.

Virtualization allows a company to minimize the hardware cost by deploying multiple servers on a single platform.

Central Processing Units (CPUs) and hard disks are rarely a bottleneck for a virtual system. The configuration uses a high-end 64-bit 4-core CPU and a solid-state drive (SSD) disk.

An optical drive is not required for a virtual machine. An administrator should use an International Standards Organization (ISO) image or mount a virtual hard disk (VHD) file to install an operating system. Both Windows and Linux can be downloaded as an ISO file.

The presented system will be an efficient virtualization platform after upgrading the RAM to 16 or 32 GB. The system will allow the company to create a small virtual environment.

7

7. A company is concerned about the potential for theft of laptop computers purchased to replace user desktops. The laptops should be used as user desks only. The company is looking for a way to prevent the theft of the laptops.
What should you recommend?
Choose the correct answer

A. Install cable locks.

B. Install or enable LoJack support.

C. Password protect the operating system and BIOS.

D. Encrypt the laptop hard disk.

A. Install cable locks.

Explanation
You should recommend installation of cable locks. This is the surest way to prevent the physical theft of devices. Most cable locks attach to a slot known as the Kensington Security Slot or K-Slot. Removing the device requires unlocking or cutting the cable. This slot is found on laptop computers, desktop computer cases, and most high-value removable peripherals.

You should not recommend password protecting the operating system and BIOS as a way to prevent theft. These actions make it harder to access a device if stolen. They do nothing to prevent physical theft, but they may help to deter information theft.

You should not recommend that ke company encrypt the laptop hard disk. This can be done to help protect the data on the disk, but it does nothing to prevent theft.

You should not recommend that the company install or enable LoJack support to prevent theft. This would make it easier to locate and recover a device if it is stolen. It would not prevent physical theft.

8

8. You replace a laptop's cracked LCD panel with a new panel of the same type. You restart the laptop. The new panel works properly, but you are unable to detect or connect to your office WIFI signal.

You need to determine the cause and correct the problem. What is most likely wrong?
Choose the correct answer

A. The WIFI modem is incompatible with the LCD panel.

B. The WIFI antenna cable is disconnected.

C. The WIFI modem is not properly seated.

D. The LCD panel is interfering with the wireless signal.

B. The WIFI antenna cable is disconnected

Explanation
The most likely problem is that the WIFI antenna cable is disconnected. The WIFI antenna on most laptops with an internal modem is installed in the laptop frame. The frame must be disassembled when you replace the LCD screen, and there is a risk that the antenna cable can get disconnected or damaged during the process.

It is unlikely that the WIFI modem is not properly seated. The WIFI modem is installed on the system board

and is not directly accessed when you replace an LCD panel, so it is very unlikely that it would come unseated.

The LCD panel is not interfering with the wireless signal. An LCD pane! does not generate a signal that would interfere with communications.

It is very unlikely that the WIFI modem is incompatible with the LCD panel because you replaced the original panel with the same type of panel. Even then, there is no reason to suspect that the LCD panel would result in an incompatibility.

9

9. You need to install a new mass storage device in a laptop. You want to optimize disk read and write perfor" mance. The device should support standard disk configuration utilities.

Which type of device should you install?
Choose the correct answer

A. USB 3.0 HDD

B. SAS SSD

C. NVMe SSD

D. SATA HDD

C. NVMe SSD

Explanation
You should install a non-volatile memory express (NVMe) solid state drive (SSD). An SSD is a solid state device based on high-speed persistent memory with significantly faster read and write performance than traditional hard disk drives (HDDs). SSD supports multiple interfaces, including NVMe, serial ATA (SATA), and serial SCSI (SAS). NVMe provides the best performance. NVMe is a host adapter technology that connects through the Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (PCle) bus.

You should not install an HDD. Of all HDD options that are presented, SATA would give the better performance, but it would not be equal to using an SSD.

10

10. A laser printer is printing dim printouts.

What is the most likely cause of the problem?
Choose the correct answer

A. The paper is damp.

B. The drum or imaging kit needs to be replaced.

C. The paper rollers are dirty.

E. The fuser assembly needs to be replaced.

Explanation
Dim printed images are usually caused by a drum or imaging kit that is near the end of its lifetime and needs to be replaced.

Damp paper and dirty paper rollers are usually associated with paper jams. Damp paper can also cause the printer to pick up multiple sheets of paper. A worn pad that separates the sheets can also cause a printer to grab multiple sheets of paper.

When the fuser assembly needs to be replaced, the toner will not adhere to the page.

11

11. You are replacing the motherboard, processor, memory, and video adapter in a computer.

When you assemble the computer and power it on, the computer appears to begin the startup process, but then & beeps several times and stops.
What should you do?
Choose the correct answer

A. Check the power connection to the motherboard.

B. Check all the fans.

C. Check the Web site of the motherboard manufacturer for the beep codes.

D. Reseat the memory.

C. Check the Web site of the motherboard manufacturer for the beep codes.

Explanation
When a computer fails to start and emits a series of beeps, there is a hardware error of some sort. It could be an ill-seated component like memory or the processor, or it could be the fans if the motherboard is set to require a certain fan speed. The only sure way, other than checking every component, is to see what the beeps mean by going to the Web site of the motherboard manufacturer and looking up the beep codes for that motherboard.

You should not check the power connection to the motherboard. If there is no power to the motherboard, it would not be able to beep.

While reseating the memory could fix the problem, you should check the beep codes first so you know what component is causing the problem.

It is somewhat likely that a disconnected or slow fan could cause the problem, but the best course of action is to look up the beep codes so you know for sure and do not ‘have to check every component.

12

12. You are experiencing dropped packets over your network. You suspect a faulty router and want to determine exactly where the packets are being dropped.

Which tool should you use?
Choose the correct answer

A. ping

B. ipconfig

C. tracert

D. nslookup

C. tracert

Explanation
You should use tracert. Tracert is a command-line utility that you can use to track the route that a data packet takes to a specified destination. You can use tracert to determine where the packets are being dropped.

You should not use ipconfig. The ipconfig command-line utility is used to obtain IP configuration

information. You can also use ipconfig to release or renew a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) lease. Ipconfig does not determine where packets are being dropped.

You should not use ping. The ping command is used to test connectivity and verify the TCP/IP stack. The

ping command sends test data packets to verify connectivity to another computer using Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). Ping does not determine where packets are being dropped.

You should not use nslookup. The nslookup command-line utility is used to verify that Domain Name System (DNS) name resolution is functioning correctly. Nslookup does not determine where packets are being dropped.

13

13. You are configuring an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain member computer running Windows 8.1 for client virtualization. The host computer is configured with the following

* Dual core processor
* 8 GB RAM
* One network adapter

The guest operating system is running Windows 8. The guest operating system can connect to local resources but cannot access the network.

What is most likely wrong?
Choose the correct answer

A. You need to rename the guest virtual machine.

B. You need to upgrade the guest to Windows 8.1.

C. You need to configure the virtual network adapter (virtual switch).

D. You need to install an additional network adapter.

C. You need to configure the virtual network adapter (virtual switch).

Explanation
You need to configure the virtual network adapter, which is called a virtual switch in Windows 8.1. When

you configure a guest operating system, you can configure a virtual network adapter to communicate through the host computer's network adapter.

There is no need to install an additional physical network adapter. A single physical network adapter can support multiple virtual network adapters.

You do not need to rename the guest virtual machine. There is nothing to indicate a name conflict or a need to rename the computer.

There is no need to upgrade the guest operating system. Windows 8 is supported as a client Hyper-V guest.

14

14. Which protocol uses port 110?

Choose the correct answer

A. HTTPS over SSL/TLS

B. POP3

C. FTP

D. SMTP

B. POP3

Explanation
Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) uses port 110. POP3 is the protocol used by local e-mail clients to connect to the mail server to get mail.

File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses port 20 for data transfer and port 21 for control.

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) over Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)/Transport Layer Security (TLS) uses port 443.

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses port 25. SMTP is used by mail servers for sending and receiving mail and by many mail clients for sending mail to the mail server.

15

15. Which type of network connection has the highest latency?
Choose the correct answer

A. Cable modem

B. Satellite

C. DSL

D. Dial-up

B. Satellite

Explanation
Satellite connections have a high degree of latency because of the time it takes for a signal to reach a satellite in low Earth orbit. Latency is the amount of time between an event and a device's knowledge of the event. Latency (one-way) can be as much as 250 - 900 milliseconds (ms). Satellite connections have an average download bandwidth of 1 megabit per second (mbps). This is the only high bandwidth option available in many rural and remote areas.

A dial-up connection has high latency and the lowest bandwidth. The highest possible bandwidth for a dialup networking modem is 56 kilobits per second (kbps). However, noise on the phone line can significantly decrease the available bandwidth. Dial-up networks have high latency, typically about 150 - 200 ms or even more. Increases in higher bandwidth solutions has led to very limited use of dial-up connections.

A Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) is a high-speed Internet connection that uses the existing telephone network infrastructure. The available bandwidth depends on the Jevel of service purchased. The latency of a 256 kbps DSL connection is between 60-110 ms. The bandwidth of DSL connections can go as high as 100 Mbps for VDSL2, but 10 Mbps is more common.

Cable modem connections use the cable television network as the transmission medium. Bandwidth depends on the level of service purchased, but connections are typically high bandwidth (100 Mbps or more), low latency connections.

16

16. You are following the CompTiA six-step troubleshooting method to repair a computer. You determine that the problem can probably be avoided in the future if proper preventive measures are applied.

During which step should these measures be applied?
Choose the correct answer

A. While verifying system functionality

B. After completing all of the troubleshooting steps

C. Immediately after determining the probable cause of the problem

D. While implementing your action plan to correct the problem

A. While verifying system functionality

Explanation
You would implement preventive measures as Part of step five, while testing your solution and verifying system functionality.

Preventive measures should be applied as part of the troubleshooting and repair process, not after.

The six steps in the troubleshooting model are:

* Identify the problem.
* Establish a theory of the cause.
* Test your theory of the cause.
* Establish an action plan.
* Verify system functionality.
* Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Identifying the problem includes asking the user about symptoms and, if possible, observing the symptoms yourself. Ask the user if he has made any changes to the system recently.

Next you need to establish a theory of the probable cause of the problem. Keep in mind that the most obvious cause is very often the right answer.

17

17. Which types of mobile devices have a built-in camera? (Choose two.)
Choose the correct answers

A. GPS

B. Smart phone

C. E-reader

D. Fitness monitor

E. Glasses

B. Smart phone
E. Glasses

Explanation
Smart phones, glasses (smart glasses) typically have built-in cameras. Most smart phones have both frontand back-facing cameras. Glasses have a forward-facing camera only.

E-readers, GPS, and fitness monitors do not include a camera. These are the most limited, specialized devices that support fewer features than "smart" devices.

18

18. Which of the following is a RAM feature that is used in critical infrastructure servers where in-memory data corruption is unacceptable?

Choose the correct answer

A. Buffered RAM

B. Double-sided RAM

C. ECC

D. Parity

C. ECC

Explanation
Error Correcting Code (ECC) is a feature that is used in critical infrastructure servers where in-memory data corruption is unacceptable. ECC technology detects memory-based data errors and corrects them before the RAM module passes the data for further processing or persistent storage.

Parity is a RAM feature that is used by the RAM module to perform checksum validation of in-memory data. The parity function can detect but not correct memory-related errors.

Buffered RAM makes in-memory data storage more efficient by allocating extra storage space for data prior to its transmission to the central processing unit (CPU). This feature improves memory efficiency but does not detect or correct errors.

Double-sided RAM is a RAM module with chips that are soldered to both sides of the printed circuit board (PCB). The RAM form factor is not involved with detecting or correcting errors.

19

19. A business customer called to ask for your advice. The customer wants to be able to distribute draft copies of documents for review and comment. The review copies should include the document formatting. Employees will be using iOS, Windows, and mobile devices to review the documents.

What technology should the customer use?
Choose the correct answer

A. Print to PDF

B. Print to image

C. Print to XPS

D. Print to text

A. Print to PDF

Explanation
The customer should print documents for review to PDF. The PDF format is considered as standard for documents and is supported on the broadest assortment of platforms. The PDF standard has been an open standard since 2008. Fonts used are embedded in the document and formatting is maintained. It is also possible to add comments to PDF documents and edit the document with some applications.

A large number of applications are available that let you select PDF output as a printer. Many applications also support exporting directly to PDF.

The customer should not print documents for review to the Open XML Paper Specification (XPS). It is similar to PDF in that it is page description language but is not supported on as many platforms as PDF. The only operating system with native XPS support is Windows (Windows Vista and later) and most applications do not directly support XPS. XPS was developed by Microsoft and released under a royalty-free patent license. The format has had very limited popularity since its introduction and is not recommended for general use.

The customer should not print the document for review to an image file. An image file would let users view the document, but not comment. Also, compatibility with different platform would depend on the image format used.

The customer should not print the document for review to text: This would not save the fonts or formatting of the document.

20

20. A user is replacing the power supply on his desktop computer. The computer includes a 3.5-inch floppy disk drive. Which connector type must the replacement power supply support to ensure a successful repair? |
Choose the correct answer

A. An 8-pin External Power Supply connector

B. A 4-pin Molex connector

C. A 20-pin ATX connector

D. A4-pin Berg connector

D. A4-pin Berg connector

Explanation
To power the floppy drive, the user needs to ensure that the replacement power supply includes a 4-pin

Berg connector. This is a +5V power cable that is considered to be legacy due to the large-scale absence of 3.5-inch floppy drives in modern desktop computers.

The user does not need a 4-pin Molex connector to power the floppy drive. The +5v 4-pin Molex is = normally used to power Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) hard drives or optical drives.

The user does not need an 8-pin External Power Supply connector to power the floppy drive. This +12V connector and cable are used to provide some central processing units (CPUs) with additional power.

The user does not need a 20-pin Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) connector to power the floppy drive This +12V connector and cable is used to power the motherboard.

21

21. An administrator manages a server with five disks that are configured as a RAID 5 array. One of the hard drives fails. Which two actions should he perform? (Choose two.)
Choose the correct answers

A. Replace the failed drive.

B. Repair the RAID array using a utility program.

C. Restore the RAID array from a backup.

D. Perform a low-level format of the failed drive.

A. Replace the failed drive.

B. Repair the RAID array using a utility program.

Explanation
The administrator should replace the failed drive and repair the Redundant Array of Independent Disks

(RAID) array by using a utility program. The repair program depends on the RAID controller manufacturer or on the operating system.

A RAID 5 array is a collection of three or more physical hard drives that are configured to appear to the host computer's operating system as a single volume. Data is striped horizontally across all drive members, and redundantly stored data means that the array can rebuild the contents of a single failed member drive.

The administrator should not perform a low-level format of the failed drive. This does not have any testorative effect on the failed drive or on the RAID 5 array.

With a RAID 5 configuration, the loss of a drive is inconsequential. The array can rebuild the data from the failed drive by accessing redundant (parity) data that is stored on the other disk array members. Therefore,

the administrator does not need to restore the RAID array from a backup. This is only necessary when the RAID 5 array loses a second member.

22

22. A customer has questions about connection technologies. The customer is considering installing a contactless payment point-of-sale (POS) terminal in his business. He is worried about interference with Wi-Fi and Bluetooth peripherals currently in use in his business. He wants to know the type of connection required for POS transactions.
What type of connection is used?
Choose the correct answer

A. Lightning

B. Bluetooth

C. Wi-Fi

D. NFC

D. NFC

Explanation
Connectional payment (also known as "tap-and-pay” and by other terms) uses near field communication (NFC) technology to communicate with devices set up for payments, such as smart phones. NFC operates in a different frequency spectrum than Bluetooth, Wi-Fi, or ISM (industrial, scientific and medical band of 13.56 MHz). NFC communicates through magnetic loop induction between two devices. This is a low-power connection and requires the devices to be within 4 inches (10 cm) of each other. Because of the different spectrum and short range, it does not interfere with Bluetooth or Wi-Fi communications.

You will find some devices that are both Bluetoothand NFC-enabled. With these devices, NFC is used to make the initial connection between the devices and then Bluetooth is used for data transfer because of its higher data rates. The connection is then dropped after the transfer.

A Lightning connection is a wired connection used by iPhone and iPad devices for data and power and
would not work in this scenario.

23

23. A small development group meets offsite. Group member laptops are configured with WIFI and Bluetooth support. The WIFI at the meeting site does not provide Internet access. Members can access the Internet on their cellular phones.
You need to configure Internet access for group member laptops. You need to optimize performance.
What should you configure?
Choose the correct answer

A. Bluetooth partnering

B. Mobile tethering

C. Ad hoc networking

D. Bluetooth network

B. Mobile tethering

Explanation
You should configure mobile tethering by using one of the cellular phones with Internet. Mobile tethering lets you configure a mobile hot spot with the phone acting as an access point. This would provide internet connectivity for the laptops through a WIFI connection with the phone.

You should not configure Bluetooth networking or Bluetooth pairing. Bluetooth pairing is the process of connecting a device, such as a laptop or cell phone, with peripherals. A Bluetooth network is a type of personal area network (PAN) made up of multiple Bluetooth pairings. While you might be able to provide

Internet access, access performance would be slow.

You should not configure ad hoc networking. An ad hoc network is made up of unmanaged peer-to-peer connections between devices. An ad hoc network could be used to enable the laptops to communicate with each other but does not provide for optimal Internet access.

24

24. A laser printer is experiencing paper jams.
What should you do?
Choose the correct answer

A. Clean the fuser assembly roller with water on a fibrous cleaning towel.

B. Use the maintenance software to realign the guide rollers.

C. Clean the rubber guide rollers using alcohol on a fibrous cleaning towel.

D. Replace the fuser assembly.

C. Clean the rubber guide rollers using alcohol on a fibrous cleaning towel.

Explanation
You should clean the rubber guide rollers using alcohol on a fibrous cleaning towel. The guide rollers are responsible for moving the paper through the printer. They should be a little rough but clean. When they get dirt or paper dust on them, it can cause paper jams. You can clean them using alcohol on a fibrous cleaning towel. If they become too smooth, you can use alcohol on a non-metallic scouring pad to make them rough so they work better.

Replacing the fuser assembly will not resolve the problem. The fuser assembly is used to fuse ink to the paper, not to move the paper through the printer.

You should not clean the fuser assembly roller with water on a fibrous cleaning towel. A dirty fuser assembly roller is not the problem. Also, you should not use a fibrous cleaning towel and water to clean the fuser assembly roller. You should use alcohol and a soft cloth. You must be very careful not to scratch the fuser assembly roller.

You should not use maintenance software to realign the guide rollers. Ink jet printers include maintenance software, which can be used to realign the print heads. Laser printers have maintenance kits that contain spare parts.

25

25. A support agent receives a call from a customer. The customer has bought a new high-end Windows 10 laptop and is concerned about an unknown port that looks similar to a micro USB connector, What is the MOST likely port described by the customer?
Choose the correct answer

A. USB Type C

B. Mini USB

C. Lightning Port

D. eSATA

Explanation
The customer has bought a laptop with a USB type C port (USB-C). This is the most likely connector to be installed on a high-end device. it measures 8.4mm by 2.6mm and is very similar to the micro USB port found in mobile phones. USB-C supports the latest USB 3.1 standard, offering data transfers up to 10 Gbps. A USB-C cable is reversible, which makes it easier to use than the old USB 2.0 and USB 3.0 cables.

It is unlikely the customer is describing a lightning port. A lightning port is a popular connecter on mobile devices manufactured by Apple.

It is unlikely the customer has an External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (eSATA) or mini USB port. These ports are not installed on high-end slim laptops. eSATA is an interface for device storage. Mini USB is twice as thick as micro USB and is considered a legacy connector type.

26

26. Which statements correctly characterizes network cable types and their usage? (Choose two.)
Choose the correct answers

A. Category 6 cable supports 10 Gigabit Ethernet.

B. Fiber optic cable is primarily used for networking within a single building.

C. Plenum-rated cable is primarily used to reduce EMI.

D. STP cabling is limited to up to 500 meters.

E. STP cable is more resistant to interference than UTP cable.

A. Category 6 cable supports 10 Gigabit Ethernet.
E. STP cable is more resistant to interference than UTP cable.

Explanation
Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cable is more resistant to interference than Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable. STP cable has an outer metal shielding that surrounds each copper wire pair. This outer shielding minimizes the electromagnetic interference (EMI). EMI might still occur, but it is much less likely. You should note that | fiber optic cable eliminates EMI completely because it uses transmitted light rather than an electronic signal. |

Plenum-rated cable is not primarily used to reduce EMI. An enclosed space, such as above a drop ceiling or below a raised floor, that is used for heating, ventilation, or air conditioning is known as a plenum. Plenum-rated cable is used in such areas. Plenum-rated cable has a special coating that does not burn as easily and that reduces the amount toxic fumes released when it does. Fire and building codes often require plenum-rated cable for specific locations.

Fiber optic cable is not primarily used for networking within a single building. UTP cable would generally be used in this case. It is the most common type of cabling used for shorter distances because it is less expensive. Fiber optic cable provides faster transmissions over longer distances than copper wire and is the most secure type of cable. Fiber optic is sometimes used to meet special configuration requirements, such has high speed data storage networks.

STP cabling is not limited to up to 500 meters. STP cabling is limited to no more than 100 meters. The limit is the same for UTP cable.

Category 6 cables support the 1OOBASE-TX (Fast Ethernet), 1OOOBASE-T/1000BASETX (Gigabit Ethernet), and 10GBASE-T (10-Gigabit Ethernet) standards.

27

27. When you turn on your laptop, you hear the hard drive spinning, but you see nothing on the display.
What should you do first?
Choose the correct answer

A. Disassemble the laptop and reseat the video card.

B. Connect an external monitor and toggle the display to it.

C. Replace the power adapter.

D. Replace the LCD screen.

B. Connect an external monitor and toggle the display to it.

Explanation
You should connect an external monitor and toggle the display to it. Before disassembling the laptop, you should to try to determine whether or not the problem is with the LCD screen. You can connect an external monitor and toggle the video to the external monitor. If the external monitor displays information, then the problem is likely the LCD or the internal video cable. If the external monitor does not display information, it is likely some other problem. You can usually use a function key on laptop keyboards to toggle between displays.

You should not disassemble the laptop and reseat the video card first. You might need to do this, but it is better to analyze the problem before proceeding to disassemble the unit.

You should not check the power adapter. In this case, the hard drive is spinning, so you obviously have power.

You should not replace the LCD screen first. You should first determine if the problem is with the LCD screen.

28

28. A technician wants to improve performance on an Intel processor-based laptop that is used for high-level gaming. She replaces the existing memory with two 8 GB memory modules. The memory is designed as high-performance RAM and can operate at levels higher than DDR industry standards.

The technician restarts the computer and discovers that memory is configured to the DDR industry standard. The technician needs to configure memory to optimize performance. The effort required should be kept to a minimum.
What should the technician do?
Choose the correct answer

A. Enable SPD.

B. Configure XMP.

C. Disable Automatic Configuration.

D. Manually set memory clocking.

B. Configure XMP.

Explanation
She needs to configure Extreme Memory Profiles (XMP), which is an Intel technology for supporting highperformance RAM. This is an extension to Serial Presence Detect (SPD), which is used to configure default memory settings that are based on installed memory.

XMP is enabled through Basic Input/Output System (BIOS), typically with two profiles available. Profile 1 is the more conservative setting and is designed to provide stability while improving memory performance. Profile 2 is more aggressive in its performance settings but can result in stability problems in some situations.

She should not enable SPD. SPD is enabled by default, and there is no reason to make any changes to SPD. SPD is used to detect the installed memory and to configure the memory based on the standard default settings. Configuring XMP will override SPD.

She should not disable Automatic Configuration, if that is supported by the computer BIOS. You would disable this setting if you wanted to manage memory configuration parameters individually and manually.

She should not manually set memory clocking. This is only one of the settings that are necessary if you want to manually configure the memory for optimization.

29

What is the purpose of cloud metered services?
Choose the correct answer

A. Pay-per-use billing structure

B. Limited access bandwidth

C. Shared public resources

D. Failure detection and reporting

A. Pay-per-use billing structure

Explanation
Metered services refer to a pay-per-use billing structure where the tenant is billed based on resource use rather than on provisioned resources. Accurate billing
requires accurate monitoring and reporting by the cloud provider, sometimes referred to as measured services.

Metered services are not a way to limit access bandwidth. This is accomplished through various bandwidth throttling methods.

Metered services do not refer to shared public resources. Providing resources
that can be shared as needed between tenants and adjusted as necessary is referred to as resource pooling.

Metered services are not related to failure detection and reporting. Failure detection and reporting is accomplished through different technologies and by activity monitoring.

30

Your customer wants to deploy a new IP phone. He finds a label on the device that says PoE-enabled.
What device should you install in the local area network to support this phone?
Choose the correct answer

A. PoE battery

B. PoE switch

C. PoE computer

D. PoE firewall 

B. PoE switch

Explanation
You should recommend a Power over Ethernet (PoE) switch. PoE allows you to send electrical power using a standard Ethernet cable. You do not need a separate power supply for this phone. You should use a PoE switch in your network or buy a PoE injector to send electrical power to a network device. You would use this solution for IP phones, wireless access points), IP cameras, etc.

You should not recommend a PoE firewall. A firewall is a special network device that is designed to protect your network. You do not place a firewall as a dedicated PoE device for a local area network

Computers and batteries do not offer PoE features. You should use a PoE switch or injector.