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Flashcards in Micro IX Deck (56)
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1
Q

The BCG vaccine is derived from what mycobacterium?

A

Bovis

2
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction does TB cause?

A

IV

3
Q

What is the agar used to culture Mycobacterium TB?

A

Lowenstein-Jensen agar

4
Q

When is the usual presentation of IFN-gamma deficiency?

A

BCG vaccine causes disseminated TB

5
Q

What are the three cells that Mycobacterium leprae survives in

A

Skin cells
Macrophages
Schwann cells

6
Q

What disease is caused by Mycobacterium leprae?

A

Leprosy

7
Q

What is the difference between Mycobacterium leprosy and tuberculoid leprosy?

A

Tuberculoid is Th1 cell mediated, and has few organisms in lesions

Lepromatous leprosy is a Th2 cell mediated response, that causes lesions with a large amount of bacteria in the lesions

8
Q

What animal is suspected as a source of leprosy?

A

Armadillos

9
Q

Can we culture Mycobacterium leprae?

A

M. leprae cannot be cultured.

10
Q

Which of the RESPIRE medications is the only one
that can be used as a solo medication in prophylaxis of
TB?

A

INH (isoniazid) is the only TB medication that can be used as a solo
medication in prophylaxis of the exposed individuals or asymptomatic
positive-PPD responders.

11
Q

Rifampin is used as a combination drug because of rapid plasmid-mediated resistance formation. What is the only solo indication for its use?

A

The only instance when Rifampin is used as a solo medication is for the
prophylaxis of meningitis in patients with unidentified etiology or children that have been exposed to H. influenzae type B patients

12
Q

What is the MOA and use of Clofazimine?

A

Binds to and damages DNA

Anti-leprosy

13
Q

What are ghon complexes?

A

TB granulomas on the lung, found on CXR

14
Q

What is the basis of the PPD test?

A

Macrophages present mycolic acid on MHC II to Th1, releasing Il-2 to resting lymphocytes to activate CD8 T cells

15
Q

True or false: most of the time, the body effectively controls TB infections via B cell mediated immunity

A

False–T cell mediated immunity

16
Q

Where in the body do lesions from Mycobacterium leprae usually appear? WHy?

A

Hands and distal extremities d/t predilection for cold areas

17
Q

True or false: the DTH test with lepromatous leprosy is negative

A

True

18
Q

What are the DOCs for lepromatous leprosy?

A

Dapsone

Rifampin

19
Q

What happens to the neurons with Mycobacterium leprae infx?

A

loss of distal neurons cause a loss of sensation

20
Q

Which has lion like lesions: lepromatous or tuberculoid?

A

Lepromatous

21
Q

What are the skin lesions of Tuberculoid leprosy?

A

Small tubercles that do not have active organisms

22
Q

What are the skin lesions of Lepromatous leprosy?

A

large, lion like reaction that have tons ‘o bacteria in the lesions

23
Q

How contagious is lepromatous leprosy?

A

Not very

24
Q

What is the bacteria that does not have a cell wall

A

Mycobacterium pneumoniae

25
Q

What is the disease caused by Mycobacterium pneumoniae?

A

Atypical pneumonia

26
Q

Who is Mycobacterium pneumonia common in?

A

Young adults (5-20 yo)

27
Q

Cold agglutinins = ?

A

Agglutination of the RBCs with cold (IgM mediated

28
Q

Warm agglutinins?

A

Agglutination of the RBCs in warmth (IgG mediated)

29
Q

What type of agglutinins does Mycobacterium pneumoniae cause?

A

Cold

30
Q

What is the treatment for Mycobacterium pneumoniae?

A

Erythromycin

31
Q

What are the diseases that cause cold agglutination?

A

Mycobacterium pneumoniae
CMV
HIV

32
Q

What are the diseases that cause warm agglutination?

A

Brucellosis
Rickettsia
Salmonella

33
Q

What are the drugs that cause warm agglutinins?

A

Methyldopa
PCN
Quinidine

34
Q

Monospot heterophile = ?

A

EBV

35
Q

s/sx of mono with a negative monospot = ?

A

CMV

36
Q

What are the bacteria that have a positive Weil-Felix rxn?

A

RMSF

37
Q

What is the quellung test used for?

A

Strep pneumonia

38
Q

What does the VDRL / RPR test assess for? What autoimmune disease is this positive in?

A

Syphilis

SLE

39
Q

ASO titers are for what?

A

Rheumatic fever

40
Q

Treponema pallidum has cross reactivity with what?

A

Cardiolipin

41
Q

What is the microscopy method that can help visualize Treponema pallidum?

A

Darkfield

42
Q

What are the s/sx of primary, secondary, and tertiary syphilis?

A

1 = Chancres
2. Maculopapular rash on palms and soles
3 = Gummas, aorta, CNS

43
Q

What is the treatment for syphilis?

A

PCN

44
Q

Titier of baby is less than the mother for RPR = ?

A

IgG is from the mother, and the fetus is not infected

45
Q

What are gummas?

A

Granulomas to Treponema pallidum

46
Q

What is the confirmatory serology for syphilis?

A

FTA-ABS

47
Q

What is the Jarisch-Herxheimer rxn?

A

a reaction to endotoxin-like products released by the death of harmful microorganisms within the body during antibiotic treatment (usually syphilis). Resembles sepsis s/sx

48
Q

What are condyloma latum?

A

a cutaneous condition characterized by wart-like lesions on the genitals. They are generally symptoms of the secondary phase of syphilis, caused by the spirochete, Treponema pallidum.

49
Q

How long does it take for form primary, secondary and tertiary

A

“Sex” weeks for each step except tertiary***

50
Q

At what point is syphilis VDRL negative? What do you need to test then?

A

Tertiary

CSF

51
Q

What are the other infection diseases that can cause a false positive VDRL?

A

EBV

Viral hepatitis

52
Q

Tree barking of the aorta = ?

A

Tertiary syphilis

53
Q

What is the confirmatory test for syphilis?

A

FTA-ABS

54
Q

If a VDRL/RPR and FTA ABs test are all positive what does this indicate?

A

ACtive infx

55
Q

If VDRL/RPR tests are all positive, but FTA ABs is negative, what does this indicate?

A

Successful treatment

56
Q

What may cause false negative of VDRL/RPR and FTA ABS?

A

AIDS or other immunosuppressants