Micro VIII Flashcards by tcarlso 3

What is the morphology of campylobacter jejuni?

Gram negative rod that is comma shaped

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What does campy cause?

Bloody diarrhea

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Does camp grow on macconkey?

Naw dawg

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are the shapes of campy and helicobacter?

Seagull shape

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the agar that is used to culture campy and helicobacter pylori?

Skirrow’s medium

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the DOC of Campy?

Erythromycin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Is Campylobacter oxidase-positive or negative?

Positive

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Diagnosis of campy is quite often difficult. Hence,

one suspects infection with campy after:

R/o other causes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the morphology and gram stain of H. Pylori? Shape? Motility? Urease?

Gram negative rod
Curve shaped
Motile
Urease positive

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where do ulcers occur with H. Pylori?

Antrum of the stomach

Duodenum

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the effect of ammonia in the GI mucosa?

irritates

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the long term risk of H. pylori infx?

Gastric CA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the triple therapy for h. pylori?

Bismuth salts
Amox / erythromycin
Metronidazole

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the stain that can be used for H . Pylori?

Warthin-Starry silver stain

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Helicobacter is the leading cause of duodenal ulcers and chronic gastritis. What is the second cause of ulcers?

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

EBV predisposes to what cancers?

burkitt’s and nasopharyngeal

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

HSV 8 causes what ca?

Kaposi

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is schistosomiasis CA?

Bladder

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the morphology, lactose fermenting status, and motility of Klebsiella pneumoniae?

Gram negative rod
Lactose fermenting
Non-motile

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the cause of UTIs caused by klebsiella?

Catheterization

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the treatment for Klebsiella?

All generations of cephalosporins

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Name the lactose-positive enterobacteriaceae.

E.coli

Klebsiella

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Name the lactose-negative enterobacteriaceae.

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Name the top four causes of sepsis as a result of

urinary tract infection.

The top four are: Klebsiella, Proteus, Pseudomonas, and E coli.

killer pee’s expansion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the sputum that is had with klebsiella?

Currant jelly

Last resort for pseudomonas bacteria=?

polymyxin E (Colistin)

What is the gram stain, lactose fermenting status, urease, flagella, and motility of proteus?

Gram-negative rods, non lactose-fermenting; urease-positive, flagellated and highly motile (swarming effect on agar)

Tumbling motility = ?

Listeria

Swarming motility = ?

Proteus

Proteus increases the risk for what UG pathology?

Struvite Kidney stones

Proteus cross reacts with what with Weil-Felix serology?

Rickettsia

What are 3 components of struvite calculi?

MAP stands for: Magnesium, Aluminum and Phosphate!

Are struvite stones radio-opaque or translucent?

Struvite stones, translucent (with light opacity); | and urate crystals are transparent!

Most renal stones (75%) contain what?

COP stands for: Calcium, Ammonium and Phosphate

Are COP calculi radio-opaque or translucent?

COP stones are opaque;

What is the treatment for proteus?

Cephalosporin

What are the four causes stones?

1. COP 2. Struvite 3. Uric acid stones 4. cystinuria

What are the amino acids that cannot be resorbed with cystinuria?

Cysteine

What are the three components of struvite stones?

Mg Ammonium Phosphate

What are the characteristics of pseudomonas? Lactose? Oxidase?

Gram negative rod Non lactose fermenters Oxidase positive

What are the virulence factors of pseudomonas? (2)

- Exotoxin that inactivates EF-2 | - antiphagocytic capsule

What is the treatment for pseudomonas?

Ticarcillin or piperacillin together, with aminoglycosides

What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?

Inhibits bacterial 30S ribosomal subunit

What is the important side effect of gentamicin?

Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

What is the mechanism of action of Ciprofloxacin?

Inhibition DNA gyrase

What is the important side effect of Ciprofloxacin?

Cartilage and tendon damage

What other bug acts like pseudomonas and produces a | toxin that inhibits EF-2

diphtheria

Exotoxin of pseudomonas by ADP-ribosylation inhibits EF2.There is another compound produced by pseudomonas that inhibits p21ras via ADP-ribosylation; what is it?

The compound that inhibits p21ras is Exo-enzyme S. This inhibition may distort structural proteins such as microtubules and particularly affects epithelial cells. From another standpoint, Exotoxin S may have some anticancer effects (please see next page’s diagram on oncogenes and anti-oncogenes).

What is the second most common cause of nosocomial pneumonia and the most common cause of intensive care unit pneumonia?

Pseudomonas

What is the most common cause of osteomyelitis?

The most common cause of osteomyelitis is Streptococcus pyogenes

What is the gram stain and morphology of bacteroides Fragilis? Aerobic?

Gram negative rod | Anaerobic growth

What are the early s/sx of septic shock?

Vasodilation

What is warm shock?

HIgh CO and low peripheral vascular resistance occurs first, d/t release of histamine, bradykinins, 5HT, and endorphins

What is cold shock?

Late stage, low CO stage***

What happens after the cold stage of shock?

Catecholamines release cause selective vasoconstriction of the renal, pulmonary and splanchnic circulations. This brings about multisystem failure.

What are the 2 treatments for bacteroides fragilis?

Metronidazole | Clindamycin

What are the top two causes of sepsis due to | abdominal infection?

Escherichia coli and bacteroides fragilis

What is the mechanism of action of metronidazole?

Selectively absorbed by obligate anaerobic bacteria and sensitive protozoa metronidazole is activated by getting reduced to an active anion radical that damages DNA and proteins

What bugs are acted upon by metronidazole? (6)

Protozoa (Giardia, amoeba, Trichomonas), Clostridium difficile, Bacteroides and Helicobacter.

What are the 3 bacteria for metronidazole treatment?

C diff Bacteroides H. pylori

What are the gram stain and morphology of TB?

- Rod | - Acid fast using Ziehl-Neelsen stain

Is TB an anaerobic?

Obligate aerobe

What is the virulence factor that causes TB to be resistant?

Cord factor

How does TB survive within macrophages?

The waxy wall prevents the fusion of | the phagosome with a lysosome after phagocytosis

How infectious is TB?

10 bacteria cause dz

What is the mechanism of action of isoniazid?

INH inhibits mycolic acid formation

What is Pott’s disease?

Pott’s disease (Spinal tuberculosis) is caused by hematogenous spread from a primary focus or reactivated site and destroys the vertebral bodies and disks and may cause paraplegia

What is the mechanism of action of rifampin?

Rifampin inhibits RNA polymerase

What is caseous necrosis?

Mycolic acid release from dead TB cells causes the cheesy | characteristics of the granuloma

What are the cell types in granulomatous inflammation?

Lymphocytes, Giant epithelial cells and multinucleated giant cells

Micro VIII Flashcards

(70 cards)