Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Reproduction > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

(80 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

what STIs are commonly seen together

A

gonorrhoea and chlamydia

genital ulcers (syphilis, herpes) increase the probability of getting HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are normal vaginal flora

A

lactobacillus (predominant and protective)
L. crispatus and L. jensenii (produce lactic acid)
group B strep
candida (in small numbers)
strep viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the normal vaginal pH

A

4-4.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are hypae

A

branches and buds seen on fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the most common cause of a candida infection

A

candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the predisposing factors to a candida infection

A

recent antibiotic therapy
high oestrogen levels (pregnancy, contraceptives)
poorly controlled diabetes
immunocompromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the presentation of a candida infection

A

intensely itchy white thick ‘cottage cheese’ vaginal discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how do you diagnose candida infections

A

often clinical

can do high vaginal swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the treatment for candida

A

topical clotrimazole pessary/ cream (OTC)

oral fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

can men get candida infections

A

yes can get candida balanitis but less common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

is candida sexually transmitted

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the pathogenesis of a gonococcal infection

A

attaches to host epithelial cells
is endocytosed into the cells to replicate
released into subepithelial space
typically cause prominant inflammation due to release of toxic lipo-oligosaccharide factors and pepitoglycan fragments
some can be asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is seen on gram stain of gonorrhoea

A

gram -ve intracellular diplococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where can N gonorrhoeae infect

A

urethra, rectum, throat and eyes

endocervix in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

N gonorrhoea is fastidious, what does this mean

A

dies easily if not in ideal growth conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is more common chlamydia or gonorrhoea

A

chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what tests for gonorrhoea

A

microscopy of swabs on selective agar plates (not for high vaginal swabs)

NAAT (higher sensitivity than culture, can test urine and vaginal swabs, cant test sensitivities to antibiotics, can detect dead organisms (wait 5 weeks for test of cure), only do if person at risk as false positives)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the commonest STI in the UK

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

where can Chlamydia Trachomatis infect

A

urethra, rectum, throat, eyes and endocervix in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the pathogenesis of Chlamydia Trachomatis

A

intracellular bacteria with biphasic life cycle

cannot replicate ouside a host cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

can you see Chlamydia Trachomatis on a gram stain

A

no has no peptidoglycan in the cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what serological group of Chlamydia Trachomatis causes genital infections

A

serovars D-K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the treatment for Chlamydia Trachomatis

A

Doxycycline 100 mg bd x 7 days

erythromycin, ofloxacin are other options

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what test can diagnose both chlamydia and gonorhoeae in one go

A 
NAATs or PCR
males- first pass urine sample 
female- HVS/ vulvo vaginal swab 
rectal and throat swabs 
eye swabs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what are the pros and cons of nucleic acid amplification tests
slight increase in sensitivity over culture, the ability to test urine specimens and self-obtained vaginal swabs Inability to perform antimicrobial susceptibility testing and the poor or inadequately defined positive predictive value of some NAATs when they are used to test low-prevalence (<1%) populations
26
what is Trichomonas vaginalis
single cells protozoal parasite that infects human hosts only
27
how is Trichomonas vaginalis transmitted
sexual contact
28
what does a Trichomonas vaginalis cause
yellowish, frothy and purulent vaginal discharge and irritation in females can cause urethritis in males
29
how is Trichomonas vaginalis diagnosed
high vaginal swab for microscopy
30
what is the treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis
oral metronidazole
31
what causes bacterial vaginosis
dont know, lots of different things coccobacilli lots of anaerobes
32
what is the presentation of bacterial vaginosis
fishy smelling, thin, homogenous discharge
33
what is bacterial vaginosis associated with
upper tract infections (endometritis, salpingitis) premature ruptureof membranes and preterm delivery increased risk of HIV acquisition
34
what is the treatment for bacterial vaginosis
is drirected against the anaerobic flora | metronidazole for 7 days
35
does treatment of male partners help in bacterial vaginosis
no, but can cause urethritis so if symptomatic yes
36
what causes syphilis
spireochaete organisms treponema pallidum
37
can you see syphilis on a gram stain
no
38
how is syphilis diagnosed
dark ground microscopy, PCR or serological blood tests to look for antibodies cannot be grown in artificial culture media
39
what are the stages of illness in syphilis
primary lesion- painless chancre, organism multiplies at inoculation site (site of contact), gets into bloodstream, chanre will heal without treatment secondary- large numbers of bacteria in blood with multiple manifestations (snail track mouth ulcers, generalised rah, flu like symptoms) latent stage- no symptoms, low level multiplication in intima of small blood vessels later stage syphilis- cardiovascular (aortic aneurysms), neurovascular complications many years later some will self cure/ be treated co- incidentally
40
what are non specific serological tests
e.g. VDRL, RPR indicate tissue inflammation, used n syphilis useful in monitoring response to therapy usually become negative after successful treatment OR over time can be falsely positive (SLE, malaria, pregnancy)
41
how do you diagnose primary syphilis
dark ground microscopy, PCR, IgM
42
how do you diagnose secondary syphilis
serology (specific and non specific)
43
how is teriary syphilis diagnosed
serology (specific and non specific)
44
what is the pathway for syphilis serological testing
``` syphilis combined IgM and IgG screening test (ELISA test on clotted blood specimen) = if negative no more tests = if positive: IgM ELISA (specific) VDRL/ RPR (non specific) TPPA (specific) ```
45
what is the treatment for syphilis
injectable long acting penicillin
46
why does penicillin have to be long acting to treat syphilis
as syphilis has slow rate of replication
47
what causes genital herpes
herpes simplex virus type 1 (usually cause mouth cold sores) and 2
48
what type of organism is HSV
enveloped virus containing double stranded DNA
49
how is genital herpes transmitted
close contact with someone shedding the virus | genital/ genital or oropharyngeal/ genital contact
50
what is the pathogenesis of genital herpes
primary infection may be asymptomatic (or very florid) virus replicates in dermis and epidermis gets into nerve endings (sensory and autonomic) inflammation at nerve endings (v painful multiple small vesicles, easily deroofed) virsu migrates to sacral root ganglion where it becomes latent, can reactivate at any time intermittent virus shedding can occur in the absence of symptoms
51
how is herpes diagnosed
swab in virus transport medium of deroofed blister for PCR | serology - for partner wanting to know risk of getting it from partner
52
what treatment for genital herpes
aciclovir | pain relief
53
what organisms is pubic lice
phthirus pubis
54
how are pubic lice spread
close genital skin contact
55
what is the pathogenesis of pubic lice
lice bite skin and feed on blood - itching in pubic area | female louse lays eggs on hair
56
what is the treatment for pubic lice
malathion lotion
57
what is the treatment for gonorrhoea
swab every site infected for culture | IM ceftriaxone
58
how are gonorrhoea and chlamydia primarily diagnosed
PCR (NAATs) testing
59
what other infections should you test for in a patient with gonorrhoea
HIV, syphilis, hep B and C
60
after exposure when do you know if they have HIV
4 weeks
61
when do you need to retest gonorrhoea after treatment- why
6 weeks- as lots of resistance
62
what general advice for thrush (candida infection)
``` avoid irritants (soaps, emollients) wear cotton nickers if recurring maybe change contraceptives if high oestrogen pill ```
63
what candida is an aids defining infection
oesophageal candida
64
what specific is needed from females to test for chlaymdia and gonorrhoea
vulvovaginal (self taken) swan
65
how is bacterial vaginosis acquired
sexual intercourse
66
why is it important to diagnose HSV
To offer appropriate counselling. If lesion was mimicking a dermatomal distribution (recurring HSV can go on buttocks) so to differentiate it from herpes varicella zoster. Also if pregnant need to know so can prevent baby getting herpes encephalitis
67
was causes genital warts
human papilloma virus types 6 and 11
68
what treatment for genital warts
nothing, 30% will resolve in 3 months podophyllotoxin cream iminquimod cryotherapy
69
what vaccine can reduce incidence of genital warts
HPV
70
what are the specific syphilis serological tests
TPPA TPHA (not used in tayside) specific for syphilis but remain positive for life IgM and IgG ELISA combined and used as screening test for syphilis
71
can you use specific serological tests to monitor response of syphilis to treatment
TPPA, TPHA no- stay positive for life
72
what is IgM ELISA a marker of
recent, untreated infection | should be viewed as indication of active syphilis infection
73
what is TPPA a marker of
positive for life in anyone who has/ has had syphilis
74
what is VDRL a marker of
untreated active infection
75
what does positive IgG mean in syphilis
can be active, latent, treated or congenital
76
IgG + IgM + IgM + TPPA + VRDL +
primary/ secondary syphilis
77
IgG + IgM + IgM - TPPA + VRDL +/-
latent syphilis
78
IgG + IgM + IgM - TPPA + VRDL +/-
latent untreated syphilis
79
IgG + IgM + IgM - TPPA + VRDL -
old treated syphilis
80
IgG + IgM + IgM + TPPA + VRDL +
congenital

Reproduction (51 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions