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Misc. Flashcards

1
Q

What is the relationship between centric position and medial occlusal position in the Jaw

A

Centric position should be the same as medial occlusal position.

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2
Q

The second major stabilizer of the elbow , following the UCL, is reported to be the ________.

A

Bony articulation

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3
Q

The anomalous structure that can be responsible for entrapment of the median nerve proximal to the elbow in some individuals is_________.

A

The Ligament of Struthers

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4
Q

Which of the following surgical procedures involves overlapping and shortening of the subscapularis muscle?

A

Putti Platt

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5
Q

This procedure advances the subscapularis tendon laterally over the humerus, thus tightening the anterior capsule.

A

stack- manson

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6
Q

yoemans test

A

The examiner stands at the painful side and flexes the patient’s knee to 90° and extends the hip

Pain localized to the sacroiliac joint indicates pathology in the anterior sacroiliac ligament

Anterior thigh paresthesia may indicate a femoral nerve stretch

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7
Q

meniscal tear

A

Key discriminators: 1) Mechanism of injury: step and twist; 2)Effusion that occurs over several hours (as opposed to immediate); 3) Joint line tenderness

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8
Q

The most common type of acetabular labral tear is ____________.

A

anterior and anterior superior

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9
Q

straight lasted shoe

A

Athletic shoes built on a straight last are most often designed as ​motion control shoes, with motion control elements added. This results in a heavier shoe.

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10
Q

semi-curved lasted shoes

A

It is good for those with normal arches and runners and walkers with a neutral gait who do not overpronate. It is often found in stability shoes and neutral shoes.

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11
Q

curved lasted shoes

A

t is good for those with a high, rigid arch. Lightweight shoes and racing flats are often built on a curved or semi-curved last.

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12
Q

slip last

A

The resulting shoe is lighter and good for those with rigid feet who need more motion.

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13
Q

board last

A

It makes the shoe more rigid and stable and suitable for those who under pronate or overpronate. This method isn’t used very often for modern athletic shoes.

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14
Q

combination last

A

the board method is used in the heel and the slip method in the forefoot.

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15
Q

strobel last

A

This has become the most-used lasting type for athletic shoes. The upper is attached to a layer of material that is glued onto the midsole, much like board lasting but lighter and more flexible.

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15
Q

strobel last

A

This has become the most-used lasting type for athletic shoes. The upper is attached to a layer of material that is glued onto the midsole, much like board lasting but lighter and more flexible.

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16
Q

open packed position of 1st MTP

A

10-20 degrees of extension

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17
Q

lippel trenaunay syndrome

A

a constellation of symptoms involving mesodermal structures manifesting as capillary malformation, varicose veins, hypertrophy of bony and soft-tissue structures

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18
Q

meralgia parasthetica

A

entrapment of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, which has a sensory distribution to the lateral hip and proximal anterior thigh. It is cause most often by compression, with the use of tool belts, or tight pants/belt lines in obese patients.

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19
Q

capsular pattern of GH

A

ER, abd, IR

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20
Q

medial epicondylitis

A

This condition is more typically associated with an older age group and pain at the origin of the wrist flexor muscle group - just distal to the medial epicondyle.

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21
Q

pronator teres syndrome

A
  • weakness of the muscles supplied by the median nerve.
  • paresthesia to the 2nd and 3rd digits of the hand
  • complaint of fatigue with the use of hand muscles
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22
Q

anterior interosseous syndrome

A
  • weakness of pronator quadratus muscle
  • no sensory changes
  • unable to make OK sign
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23
Q

posterior interosseous syndrome

A
  • pain increased with extension of middle finger against resistance
  • weakness of extensors of the thumb, abductor pollicis longus, and extensor indices
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24
cheralgia paresthetica (handcuff palsy)
- burning pain on dorsal hand and wrist - fingertips are spared
25
The inability to fully restore the following motion is common after dislocation of the elbow.
extension
26
Signs and symptoms immediately following closure by primary intention that dictate prompt referral to a surgeon include____________.
- severe pain and neurologic signs
27
In order to differentiate between a median nerve injury and an anterior interosseous nerve injury, the therapist should:
- assess for sensory changes in C5 dermatome
28
a fat pad sign at the elbow describes
- radiographic finding indicative of intra-articular fracture
29
Which describes the correct order of structures in the cubital fossa from lateral to medial?
- biceps tendon, brachial artery, median nerve
30
what muscles go through carpal tunnel
Flexor pollicis longus flexor digitorum superficialis flexor digitorum profundus
31
wartenbergs sign
- patient asked to hold fingers adducted - (+) if little finger drifts away from midline - due to weakness or paralysis of the adducting palmar interosseous muscle - ulnar nerve injury
32
Tietze syndrome
happens when the cartilage in the joint where your ribs connect to your breastbone — your costochondral joint — is irritated. -This irritation leads to inflammation around the joint and causes chest pain and swelling
33
Pre-cordial catch syndrome (Texidors twinge)
condition in which there are sharp stabbing pains in the chest.
34
scheuermann's disease
- thoracic kyphosis in kids - When a child has Scheuermann's, the front edge of some of the vertebrae in the upper back grow slower than the back edge. These vertebrae become wedge shaped, so when the vertebrae stack up, the spine curves, making the back round out.
35
external validity
the ability of a measure to predict or relate to outcomes beyond the population of a given trial.
36
construct validity
the extent to which your test or measure accurately assesses what it's supposed to
37
predictive validity
determining how well a certain measure, metric or statistic can predict future behavior
38
concurrent validity
measures how a new test compares against a validated test
39
discriminate validity
refers to the ability of a test to determine one form of a disorder from another
40
kappa
a good tool to assess reliability of fixed or ordinal data.
41
causes of coxa saltans (snapping hip)
- iliopsoas over femoral head, proximal lesser trochanter, iliopectineal eminence - glute max over greater trochanter - iliofemoral ligament over anterior femoral head
42
iliopsoas OINA
O: level L5-S2, passes from pelvis to thigh under inguinal ligament I: lesser trochanter N: femoral nerve/lmbar plexus A: flex hip, lateral flexor of lower vertebral column
43
plyometrics
Plyometric exercise involves stretch of the muscle-tendon unit immediately followed by shortening. The stretch-shortening cycle enhances the ability of the muscle to produce maximal force in the shortest amount of time. Training in this manner is appropriate to enhance return to sports after injury.
44
Slocum test
This test can detect anterior and rotary instabilities, which is reflective of the rotational mechanism of ACL injury incurred by many skiers. In order to perform the test, the patient is supine with knee flexed 90 deg. and hip flexed 45 deg. Therapist rotates foot 30 deg. medially to test anterolateral instability or 15 deg. laterally to test anteromedial instability. Therapist stabilizes leg by sitting on foot. Therapist grasps the prox. tibia with hands and places thumb on tibial plateau and administers an anterior directed force to tibia on femur. Positive test is indicated by movement of tibia occurring primarily on lateral side, may be indicative of anterolateral instability
45
The portion of the anterior cruciate ligament most often injured when the knee is in extension is the _________.
posterior bundle
46
The special test most likely to detect an injury of the anterior bundle of the anterior cruciate ligament for this individual is the ______________.
anterior drawer test
47
primary component of articular cartilage is
Type 2 collagen
48
anterior placement of tibial tunnel would cause
loss of extension
49
anterior placement of femoral tunnel would cause
flexion loss
50
radiographic views for 5th met
AP/lateral and oblique
51
hammer toe
Flexion deformity of the PIP, no fixed deformity of the DIP or MTP. Often isolated to a single toe (2nd toe most common). Associated with improper shoe wear.
52
mallet toe
Flexion deformity of the DIP, no fixed deformity of the MTP or PIP. Often isolated to a single toe (2nd toe most common). Associated with improper shoe wear.
53
claw toe
fixed extension of MTP, flexion of PIP, sometimes flexion of DIP - usually in multiple toes, associated ith RA and neurological disorders
54
ultrasound for deep tissues (2-5 cm)
Frequency: 1MHz Duty cycle: 1.5-2.0 W/cm
55
ultrasound for superficial (1-2 cm)
frequency: 3MHz duty cycle: .5-1.2 W/cm
56
According to Panjabi, the mechanism by which the spine is stabilized includes
- passive subsystem - active subsystem - neural subsystem
57
risk factors for diastasis rectus abdominus
obesity, a narrow pelvis, multipara, 3rd trimester, multiple births, excess uterine fluid, large babies, and weak abdominal muscles prior to pregnancy
58
AA joint ROM
flex: 5: ext: 10 rot: 35-40
59
lower cervical ROM
flex: 35-40 ext: 55-60 rot: 30-35 lat flex: 30-35
60
what manual technique is contraindicated for patients with RA
upper cervical mobilization or manipulation
61
lateral scapular slide test
The Lateral Scapular Slide Test (LSST) is used to determine scapular position with the arm abducted 0, 45, and 90 degrees in the coronal plane. Assessment of scapular position is based on the derived difference measurement of bilateral scapular distances." Patients with suspected scapular weakness have increased measurement values on the involved side. - indicates weakness of scapular stabilizers
62
reverse segond fracture
- avulsion fracture of medial tibial plateau - segond fractures are associated with excessive varus force and internal rotation applied to the lower leg. Reverse Segond fracture, as its name suggests, is caused by abnormal valgus forces.
63
best exercise for fibromyalgia
aerobic exercise
64
stork standing test
- involves assessment of PSIS symmetry while moving into single leg stance
65
positive predictive value
- proportion of patients with positive test who are correctly diagnosed
66
normal grade of 5/5 for plantar flexors
20 reps of heel raises
67
most appropriate shoe/orthotic for mortons neuroma
The patient's shoes should have no heel (or a low heel), well cushioned, with a wide toe box. A felt or gel pad can be placed just proximal to the painful area, and if effective can be made into a more permanent orthotic.
68
initial approach for non surgical syndesmotic ankle injury
PRICE, immediate non-weight bearing with crutches, a posterior splint with the ankle positioned in ten degrees plantar-flexion.
69
Type 1 chiari malformation
Chiari type I malformation is the most common and the least severe of the spectrum, often diagnosed in adulthood
70
type 2 chiari malformation
This is usually only seen in children born with spina bifida. Spina bifida is the incomplete development of the spinal cord and/or its protective covering. Type II is also known as "classic" Chiari malformation or Arnold-Chiari malformation. In type II Chiari malformation, both the cerebellum and the brain stem extend into the foramen magnum.
71
type 3 chiari malformation
This is the most serious form of Chiari malformation. It involves the protrusion or herniation of the cerebellum and brain stem through the foramen magnum and into the spinal cord. This usually causes severe neurological defects. Type III is a rare type.
72
type 4 chiari malformation
This involves an incomplete or undeveloped cerebellum. It sometimes is associated with exposed parts of the skull and spinal cord. Type IV is a rare type.
73
Which of the following factors does increase the risk for nonunion after a fracture?
- cox 1 inhibitors - cox 2 inhibitors - smoking
74
In adults males with initial episodes of anterior glenohumeral dislocation, what is the best initial course of action to maximize outcomes?
at least 1 week of immobilization
75
Which positions should be avoided during the initial (protection) phase of rehabilitation following radial head ORIF.
- flexion with pronation
76
grades of glenohumeral translation
Grade 0: no translation, grade I: translation to the glenoid rim, grade II: translation of the head over the glenoid rim grade III, when the head stays out of the joint after removing the examiner hands
77
imaging for slap lesion
MRA
78
hill sachs lesion on humer head location
posterolateral
79
contraindication following lumbar total disc arthroplasty
lumbar extension
80
lumbopelvic rhythm
Initial flexion of the lumbar spine following by anterior rotation of the pelvis
81
The TMJ is innervated by branches of which cranial nerve?
Trigeminal nerve
82
mason classification for radial head fracture
type I: non-displaced radial head fractures (or small marginal fractures), also known as a "chisel" fracture type II: partial articular fractures with displacement (>2 mm) type III: comminuted fractures involving the entire radial head IIIa: fracture of the entire radial neck, with the head, completely displaced from the shaft IIIb: articular fracture involving the entire head, consisting of more than two large fragments IIIc: fracture with a tilted and impacted articular segment type IV: fracture of the radial head with dislocation of the elbow joint
83
delphi technique
a method of group decision-making and forecasting that involves successively collating the judgments of experts.
84
Which of the following factors are most predictive of successful healing of the rotator cuff repair?
The absence of rotator cuff muscle fat infiltration.
85
Which of the following special tests during pregnancy is most associated with greater post-partum disability and lower post-partum health-related quality of life?
active straight leg raise
86
What is the optimal position of the hip to maximize distraction of articular surfaces?
30° flexion, 30° abduction, slight external rotation
87
Which test or measure has been shown by the literature to be an established predictor of post-operative unicompartment/total knee arthroplasty function?
quad strength
88
criteria for unicompartment knee arthroplasty
degenerative arthritis of the knee affecting one compartment, >60 years of age, body weight <82 kg (180 lb), low-demand for activities, range of motion ≥90°, flexion contracture ≤5°, angular deformity <15°, and absence of symptoms and signs of inflammatory arthritis
89
type of splint for carpal tunnel
A volar wrist cock-up orthosis that positions the wrist at 0° extension/flexion.
90
According to the literature, which combination of clinical tests is most useful in detecting the presence of carpal tunnel syndrome at this point in the patient’s disease process?
Phalen and carpal compression tests and the Tinel sign.

OCS Prep (11 decks)

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