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Pathology > Misc Questions pt. 4 > Flashcards

Misc Questions pt. 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which one is harder to contract? Hepatitis B or C?

A

Hepatitis C is harder to contract that B

  • Transmitted by blood & sex (not feco-oral)
  • Highest level of chronic disease
  • AKA NABA (non A non B)
  • Hep. A has no carrier state, but gives long life immunity
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2
Q

The best test to diagnose acute toxoplasmosis infection in a newborn is to look for …..

A

IgM (formed against the possible infection)

* IgG might be transferred from the mother

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3
Q

methenamine silver is used for ……

Perussian blue is used for demonstrating ….

A

staining of fungus

iron

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4
Q

Trichinosis is ……

A

parasitic disease, transmitted by ingesting raw meat (pork).

  • Causes pain, fever, myalgia, periorbital edema & conjunctival hemorrhage
  • There is also eosinophilia to the larvae
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5
Q

Inf. A & rotavirus both can show cause pandemcis via ……

A

gene shift

  • Virus capable of shift are segmented. HIV, Rubella & Measles virus are NOT segemented
  • HIV is capable of gene drift, not shift
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6
Q

Entamoeba histolytica is associated with …..

A

pulmonary abscesses as an extension of a liver abscess across the diaphragm

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7
Q

The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is …….

A

pneumococcus

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8
Q

Vagina of 5 yrs old girl is usually colonized by …..

A

Staph. aureus or epidermidis (prepuberty & postmenopausal)

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9
Q

A circumferential band of rash & vesivles on one side of the chest could be ……..

A

shingles

* While measles tend to be maculopapular rash on the head and neck

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10
Q

Quellung reaction is …..

A

the binding of antibodies to the capsule of Streptococcus pneumoniae, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, H. influenzae & Salmonella
* There is swelling of the capsule

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11
Q

Bacterial causes of hepatic abscesses include ……

A

E. coli, Klebsiella, Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Bacteroides, and Pseudomonas.

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12
Q

Compare the CSF findings after both bacterial & viral meningitis

A
  • Bacterial: Increased neutrophils, decreased glucose levels, increased proteins
  • Viral: Increased lymphocytes, normal glucose, increased proteins
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13
Q

Susceptibility to recurrent infection is caused by deficiency of …..

A

IgG antibodies

* Normally, these rise dramatically once the antigen is re-encountered

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14
Q

Epididymitis & orchitis with increased neutrophile count on biopsy suggests …….

A

c. trachomatis or t. pallidum infection

* Note that: M. tuberculosis caused granulomas in those areas

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15
Q

The characteristic lesion of impetigo is …..

A

large with golden crust

  • caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes
  • Erysipelas are caused by the same agents, however they are large erythematous patches (no crust)
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16
Q

Ethylene oxide is used for …….., while Ethyl alcohol & glutaraldehyde are used for …..

A

sterilization

high level disinfection (non sporicidal)

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17
Q

A known complication of bacterial endocarditis caused by S. aureus is …….

A

brain abscess

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18
Q

Emboli from endocarditis usually end in …..

A

brain, gut, heart, kidney

* Less common in the breast

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19
Q

Patients with UTI may caused by ….. may develop bacteremia & subsequent ARDS

20
Q

Inf. A virus can not be phagocytized. T/F??

A

False

The virus bound to antibody & complement can be phagocytized

21
Q

Pasteurella multocida is transmitted by …..

Toxoplasma gondii is transmitted by ….

A

cat bites

ingestion of food contaminated with cat feces

22
Q

Plague is caused by …….

Clinical features include …….

A

Yersinia pestis

* Fever, headache, bronchopneumonia, hemoptysis, meningitis, lymphadenopathy

23
Q

C. Trachomatis causes blindness in newborns due to ……..

A

corneal scarring

24
Q

……… is the major cause of diarrhea in children under 2 years.

A

Rotavirus

  • It causes non bloody watery diarrhea, vomiting
  • Tx is supportive
  • Transmission is feco oral
  • The usual cause of the same symptoms in children over 2 is Norwalk virus. Transmitted by food (i.e shellfish)
25
Colorado tick fever is caused by ......
orbivirus * the only tick-borne viral disease in the US * There is weakness, headache behind eyes, photophobia, rash, sweating, vomiting
26
Infective endocarditis is usually caused by ..... | The HAECK group causes .....
S. aureus * HAECK is less frequent cause. (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Eikenella, Cardiobacterium, Kingella). These are normal oral flora * S. epidermidis causes endocarditis in patients with prosthetic valves
27
AIDS + diarrhea + chronic abdominal pain + OOcysts in stool suggests .......
infection with Isospora belli or Cryptosporidium parvum * Entamoeba & Giardia both cause diarrhea, but not associated with AIDS * Microsporidia a protozoa causing diarrhea, but produces spores not cysts
28
Chlamydia trachomatis is treated with .....
macrolides or tetracyclines | * Not sensitive to penicillins, along with Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
29
Streptococci do not have a cytochrome enzyme system because .........
they derive their energy from fermentation
30
The only oral agent effective against Pseudomonas is ......
fluroquinolones (cipro) | * Also effective against G-ve rods
31
What is the difference between Trimethoprim & sulfonamides?
* Sulfonamides inhibit an earlier step in folate synthesis, which is dihydropteroate synthase * Trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
32
Yersinia enterocolitica causes ......
enteritis in pediatrics | * Most common cause of mini epidemics
33
Circulating maternal IgG protects the newborn during ....
the first 4-6 months of life
34
The presence of HBc IgM Ab in serum indicates the infection is .......
acute * Characteristic of acute infection * See Testlet 60 in micro
35
Bacterial transformation is ........
uptake and integration of naked DNA by a bacteria from the environment * Only in Haemophilus, Streptococcus, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Helicobacter pylori
36
In bacterial growth, spores are formed during .......
the stationary phase
37
Sterility does not usually develop in mumps patient because ....
typically only one testicle is involved.
38
Administering a bacteriostatic & bacteriocidal antibiotic would cause ...
antagonism of the antibacterial effects of both agents (one cancel the other) * An extension of bacterial coverage would occur between two agents of the same type
39
Oxidase positive organisms means they .....
``` can respire (use oxygen) * Example is pseudomonas aerugenosa (also it is motile) ```
40
Patients with sickle cell anemia are more susceptible to osteomyelitis caused by .....
Salmonella (sensitive to acidic pH) * Note that: Staph. aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in sicklers and nonsicklers (look for it first in the answers)
41
What are the signs & symptoms of Entamoeba histolytica infection?
severe diarrhea (dysentery), ulceration of the cecum & ascending colon, severe cramps, amoeba with ingested RBC, later hepatopathy (abscesses), Tenesmus (the feeling of constant need to pass stool)
42
CD3 marker is located on .....
cell membrane of all T-cells | * It is involved in signal transduction, but not antigen recognition
43
To test if a patient is HIV positive, we use ..... . To eliminate the false positive results, we can confirm with ......
ELISA | Western blot
44
What is the function of Northern blot & Southern blot??
* Southern blotting can be used to detect mutations in DNA | * Northern blots are used to determine which genes are being expressed on RNA
45
Sinus venosus defect may cause ......
ASD, especially in upper part of the atrium

Pathology (18 decks)

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