Miscellaneous Flashcards

(38 cards)

1
Q

What class of antibiotics is most effective against Gram-positive bacteria?

A

Penicillins, Cephalosporins, and Glycopeptides (e.g., Vancomycin).

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2
Q

Which antibiotic class is commonly used to treat Gram-negative bacterial infections?

A

Aminoglycosides, Carbapenems, and Monobactams.

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3
Q

What type of bacteria do Metronidazole target?

A

They are effective against anaerobic bacteria.

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4
Q

Which antibiotic class is used to treat Urinary Tract Infections (UTIs) caused by Enterobacteriaceae?

A

Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX).

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5
Q

What does CRP (C-reactive protein) indicate in the body?

A

CRP is a protein produced by the liver in response to inflammation, indicating the presence and severity of inflammation in the body.

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6
Q

What does a low hemoglobin (Hb) level indicate?

A

A low hemoglobin level is indicative of anaemia.

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7
Q

What condition is associated with an abnormally high red cell count?

A

An abnormally high red cell count is known as polycythaemia.

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8
Q

What is the mean corpuscular volume (MCV) used to assess?

A

MCV measures the average size of red blood cells and is useful in diagnosing types of anaemia.

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9
Q

What does an elevated white blood cell count (WCC) indicate?

A

An elevated WCC is known as leukocytosis, which can indicate an infection or inflammation.

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10
Q

What does thrombocytopenia refer to?

A

Thrombocytopenia refers to a reduced platelet count, increasing the risk of bleeding due to impaired blood clotting.

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11
Q

What are the five Ds in antimicrobial stewardship (AMS)?

A

Drug (suitable)

Dose (suitable)

Drug route (suitable)

Duration (suitable)

De-escalation (timely, e.g., from IV to oral).

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12
Q

What is the risk associated with the overuse of antibiotics in healthcare?

A

The overuse of antibiotics contributes to antimicrobial resistance (AMR), a growing public health threat.

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13
Q

What is the importance of trust-specific antimicrobial guidelines?

A

Trust-specific antimicrobial guidelines help improve the appropriateness and uniformity of antibiotic use based on local AMR trends and surveillance data.

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14
Q

What is de-labelling antibiotic allergies and why is it important?

A

De-labelling antibiotic allergies involves removing spurious allergy labels (e.g., due to side effects), which can help reduce reliance on second and third-line antibiotics and combat AMR.

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15
Q

How can scheduled antibiotic reviews (antibiotic timeouts) help in AMS?

A

Scheduled antibiotic reviews allow clinicians to assess the ongoing appropriateness of antibiotic use, switch to narrow-spectrum agents, step down to oral agents, or discontinue unnecessary therapy.

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16
Q

Which notifiable disease is considered urgent when diagnosed in the acute phase?

A

Acute flaccid paralysis (AFP) or Acute flaccid myelitis (AFM).

17
Q

Which disease is considered urgent in the case of a food poisoning outbreak?

A

Food poisoning (if part of a cluster or outbreak).

18
Q

What is the status of COVID-19 as a notifiable disease?

19
Q

Which disease is urgent in the case of a healthcare worker diagnosis, or suspected cluster or multi-drug resistance?

A

Tuberculosis.

20
Q

What disease is routine but becomes urgent if acquired in the UK?

21
Q

Which disease requires urgent notification if diagnosed during the acute phase?

A

Whooping cough (pertussis).

22
Q

Which disease is urgent if associated with injecting drug use?

23
Q

What does the acronym MALT = Protein refer to in the context of antibiotics?

A

MALT = Protein refers to the antibiotic classes that inhibit protein synthesis:

Macrolides

Aminoglycosides

Lincosamides (and Linezolid)

Tetracyclines

24
Q

Which antibiotic class in the MALT acronym inhibits protein synthesis and includes drugs like Azithromycin and Clarithromycin?

25
Which class of antibiotics in MALT inhibits protein synthesis and includes drugs like Gentamicin and Tobramycin?
Aminoglycosides.
26
What is the mechanism of action for the antibiotics in the MALT group?
The antibiotics in MALT inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria, preventing them from producing essential proteins for growth and function.
27
What class of antibiotics inhibits cell wall synthesis and is characterized by a beta-lactam ring in its structure?
Beta-lactams.
28
What is the combination in Co-amoxiclav that enhances the action of amoxicillin?
Clavulanic acid is mixed with amoxicillin to prevent the breakdown of amoxicillin by bacteria.
29
What is the role of Tazobactam when combined with Piperacillin?
Tazobactam is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that prevents bacteria from destroying Piperacillin, thereby expanding its effectiveness.
30
What are Cephalosporins used for?
Cephalosporins are used to inhibit cell wall synthesis and are classified into 1st, 2nd, and 3rd generations based on their spectrum of activity.
31
Which generation of Cephalosporins includes Cefuroxime and Cefazolin?
2nd generation Cephalosporins.
32
What is the mechanism of action of Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)?
TMP-SMX inhibits bacterial folate synthesis, which is essential for DNA and protein synthesis in bacteria.
33
Which class of antibiotics includes Gentamicin, Neomycin, and Streptomycin and inhibits protein synthesis?
Aminoglycosides.
34
Which antibiotic class, including Doxycycline and Minocycline, inhibits protein synthesis?
Tetracyclines.
35
What is the mechanism of action of Fluoroquinolones, like Ciprofloxacin and Levofloxacin?
Fluoroquinolones inhibit DNA replication, disrupting bacterial DNA structure.
36
Which antibiotic class includes Clarithromycin, Erythromycin, and Azithromycin and inhibits protein synthesis?
Macrolides.
37
Which antibiotic class, like Vancomycin, inhibits cell wall synthesis?
Glycopeptides.
38
How does Metronidazole, a Nitroimidazole antimicrobial, stop bacterial growth?
Metronidazole disrupts bacterial DNA structure, causing strands to break and preventing DNA replication.