MTAP Flashcards
(236 cards)
1
Q
Specimen collection should be obtained during
A
Acute phase of infection (within 2-3 days for viruses).
2
Q
Specimen collection should be collected before administration of
A
Antibiotics
3
Q
For anaerobes, the preferred swab is
A
Aspirates
4
Q
Specimens should be transported to the laboratory within
A
30mins -2 hours
5
Q
The most temperature-sensitive bacteria is
A
Neisseria meningitidis
6
Q
The most pH-sensitive bacteria is
A
Shigella
7
Q
It is a transport medium that is used for both viral and bacterial transportation
A
Stuart transport medium
7
Q
What are the examples of transport medium
A
Cary-Blair
Amies
Stuart
8
Q
The examples of transport medium for virus
A
Earl’s transport medium
Hank’s transport medium
9
Q
Viruses, Chlamydia, and Mycoplasma should be stored at what temperature
A
4 degree celcius
10
Q
Improper swab for Viruses and Chlamydia
A
Calcium alginate
11
Q
It is a swab that is not appropriate for Chlamydia
A
Wood swab
12
Q
It is a swab that is not appropriate for Neisseria, Bordetella, and other Obligate Anaerobes
A
Cotton swabs
13
Q
Cotton swab is not appropriate for
A
Neisseria
Bordetella
and other Obligate Anaerobes
14
Q
What is the growth inhibitor of cotton swab
A
Fatty acids
15
Q
A preservative that is not used for bacterial examination but for ova & parasite examination
A
Formalin
Polyvinyl Alcohol
16
Q
A ranking a microorganism’s ability to cause injury through disease
A
Risk groups
17
Q
The agents not associated with disease in healthy adult humans.
A
Risk Group 1
18
Q
What BSC is used for Risk Group 1
A
Biosafety Cabinet Class 1
19
Q
The agents associated with human disease that is rarely serious and for which preventive or therapeutic interventions are often available.
A
Risk Group 2
20
Q
What BSC is used for Risk Group 2
A
Biosafety Cabinet Class 2
21
Q
It is the most commonly used BSC
A
Biosafety Cabinet Class 2
22
Q
The agents associated with serious or lethal human diseases for which preventive or therapeutic interventions may be available (high individual risk but low community risk)
A
Risk Group 3
23
Q
What BSC is used for Risk Group 3
A
Biosafety Cabinet Class 3
24
The agents likely to cause serious or lethal human diseases for which preventive or therapeutic interventions are not usually available (high individual risk and high community risk).
Risk Group 4
25
What BSC is used for Risk Group 4
Biosafety Cabinet Class 3
26
Risk Group 4 examples of pathogens
Ebola virus
Monkeypox virus
27
HEPA exhaust system that removes
particles equal to, or greater than to
0.3 microns
28
A hood with high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters that provide personnel, environmental, and/or product protection when appropriate practices and procedures are followed.
HEPA filter
29
HEPA efficiency is
99.97%
30
Homogenization means
grinding or mincing of tissue specimen
31
Example of Solid Media
Blood Agar Plate
32
It is a medium for the culture of Salmonella
Selenite broth
32
Example of Liquid Media
Nutrient broth
Selenite broth
33
Example of Semi-solid media
Sulfide Indole Motility (SIM) Media
34
Examples of Basic Media
Nutrient broth
Nutrient agar
Saboraud’s broth (fungi; dextrose
agar)
35
- All-purpose medium
- Almost all organism can be cultured
Basic Media
36
Examples of Enriched Media
Blood Agar Plate
Chocolate Agar Plate
37
It is also known Nutritive Medium
Enriched Media
38
Used to support the growth of fastidious organism
Enriched Media
39
Organisms that grow on Enriched media
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis
Haemophilus influenzae
40
A type of culture medium that allows the growth of specific organisms while inhibiting growth of others
Selective culture medium
41
What is the inhibitor of MacConkey Agar
Crystal violet
Bile Salts
42
A culture medium the same as enriched media but different in consistency
Enrichment media
43
Enrichment media example
Selenite broth
44
A culture medium that differentiates organisms based on their appearance
Differential culture medium
45
It shows partial hemolysis
Alpha hemolysis
46
Alpha hemolysis shows
partial hemolysis (greenish)
47
It shows complete hemolysis (clear/colorless)
Beta hemolysis
48
It shows no hemolysis
Gamma hemolysis
49
What is an example of anaerobic medium
Thioglycollate
50
Anaerobic medium is also known as
Reduced medium
51
- more commonly known as LJ medium
- growth medium specially used for culture of Mycobacterium species, notably
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Lowenstein-Jensen medium
52
General-purpose media that are commonly used for fungal culture are
Sabouraud dextrose (SDA)
Malt extract
Brain Heart Infusion (BHI)
53
It is used for systemic fungi culture medium
Brain Heart Infusion (BHI)
54
What is added to prevent contamination of the medium by bacteria
Chloramphenicol
55
What is the temperature range for the culture of fungi
28-30 degree celcius
56
What is the temperature range for the culture of most the bacteria, viruses, and acid-fast bacillus
35-37 degree celcius
57
Contents of culture media for aerobic microorganisms
21% Oxygen
0.03% Carbon dioxide
58
Contents of culture media for anaerobic microorganisms
5-10% Hydrogen
5-10% Carbon dioxide
80-90% Nitrogen
0% Oxygen
59
what is the duration of incubation?
16-24 hours
60
What is the steps of gram staining
Crystal violet
Iodine
Acetone alcohol
Safranin
61
What are the examples of stains?
Gram stain
Acid-fast stain
Modified acid-fast stain
Acridine orange
KOH and calcofluor-white
62
Is a distribution of bacterial cells on a slide for the purpose of viewing them under the microscope.
Smear
63
Prolonged heat fixation causes what
Vacuolation
64
The inventor of gram-stain
Hans Christian Gram
65
What is the color of gram-positive bacteria
violet blue
66
What is the color of gram-negative bacteria
red/pink
67
What is the color of acid-fast organism
red/pink
68
What is the color of non-acid-fast organism
blue/violet
69
What is the hot method of acid-fast stain
Ziehl Neelsen method
70
What is the cold method of acid-fast stain
Kinyoun Method
71
What is the primary stain of acid-fast stain
Carbolfuchsin
72
What is the counter stain of acid-fast stain
Methylene blue/Malachite green
73
What is the remarks of AFB grading of 0
No AFB seen in 300 OIO field
74
What is the remarks of AFB grading of +n
1-9 AFB seen in 100 OIO field
75
What is the remarks of AFB grading of +1
10-99 AFB seen in 100 OIO field
76
What is the remarks of AFB grading of +2
1-10 AFB seen in 50 OIO field
77
Is a method of staining acid-fast microorganisms, specifically
Mycobacterium and Nocardia and cryptosporidium oocyst.
Kinyoun method
78
What is the remarks of AFB grading of +3
>10 AFB seen in 20 OIO field
79
Kinyoun method is used to detect what microorganisms
Mycobacterium
Nocardia
Cryptosporidium oocyst
80
What is the mordant used in Kinyoun method
Tergitol
81
It is an inexpensive fungal test to differentiate dermatophytes and Candida albicans symptoms from other skin disorders like psoriasis and eczema.
KOH wet mount preparation
82
KOH wet mount preparation is used to differentiate what fungi
Dermatophytes and Candida albicans
83
What is the content of KOH preparation
10g = KOH
10ml = Glycerin
80ml = Distilled water
84
What is the used of KOH in KOH wet mount preparation
To clear the sample
85
What is the term of fungal nail infection
Onicomycosis
86
What is required in KOH prep with calcofluor white
Fluorescent microscope
87
What color is produced in KOH prep with calcofluor white
Chalk white
Brilliant apple green
88
It is a dye that intercalates or binds with the nucleic acid (either DNA or RNA) present in organisms and fluoresce to emit various colors that help differentiate cellular organelles.
Acridine orange
89
What is emitted when acridine orange is bounded to dsDNA
Green fluorescence
90
What is emitted when acridine orange is bounded to ssDNA or RNA
Red fluorescence
90
What is emitted when acridine orange bound to bacteria and yeast
bright orange
91
What is emitted when acridine orange is bound to Trichomonas vaginalis
Orange or Red with yellow-green nucleus
91
The family of micrococci includes
Staphylococci
MIcrococci
Stomatococcus (animals)
Planococcus (animals)
92
It can be visualized on acridine orange staining
Mycoplasma
Ureaplasma
93
What is the arrangement of Micrococci
Tetrads
Sarcina
94
What is the alternative for 5% sheep blood agar
Horse's blood
Rabbit's blood
95
It is a small zone of alpha hemolysis surrounded by a zone of beta hemolysis after refrigeration
Alpha prime hemolysis
96
It is an enzyme that causes intravascular hemolysis
hemolysins
97
The purpose of this media is an enrichment of the pigment production of Staphylococcus
Loeffler's Serum Slant
98
What is the pigment of S. aureus
Golden-yellow pigment
99
What is the pigment of S. citreus
Lemon-yellow pigment
100
What is the pigment of S. albus
Porcelain-white pigment
101
Specific for S. aureus and Differential
Mannitol Salt Agar
102
What is the carbohydrate of MSA
Mannitol
103
What is indicator of MSA
Phenol Red
104
Inhibitor of MSA
7.5% NaCl
105
Give the example of CoNS
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
106
Classic test that Differentiates Staphylococcus and Streptococcus
Catalase test
107
Catalase test reagent
3% H2O2
108
The positive result of Catalase test
bubbling formation
effervescence
gas bubbles
109
Catalase test positive organism
Staphylococcus
Micrococcus
110
On acridine orange stain, Human epithelial and inflammatory cells and tissue debris appear
pale green to yellow.
111
Reagent of Modified Oxidase Test/Microdase Test
1%tetramethylparaphenylenediaminedihydrochloride in dimethylsulfoxide
(DMSO)
112
Indicator of microdase test
Bromthymol blue
113
A bacteria is positive in microdase test
Micrococcus luteus
114
Most definitive test/determinant to S. aureus (+)
Coagulase test
115
It detects cell bounded coagulase/clumping factor
Slide coagulase test (screening)
116
It detects free coagulase
Tube coagulase test (confirmatory)
117
Enzyme that can possibly dissolve clot
Fibrinolysin / Staphylokinase
118
cell wall, anti-phagocytic, virulence factor of S. aureus
Protein A
119
#1 wound infection
#1 osteomyelitis (septic arthritis)
S. aureus
120
S. aureus is resistant to what antibiotics
Beta-lactam (CEFOXITIN)
121
Treatment for MRSA
Vancomycin
122
Detects DNase (deoxyribonuclease)
DNase test
123
It degrades DNA
DNase
124
What are the DNase positive bacteria
Serratia marcescence
Moraxella catarrhalis
Aeromonas
Streptococcus pyogenes
Helicobacter pylori
Vibrio cholerae
Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
Staphylococcus aureus
125
Differentiates: (CoNs) Coagulase Negative Staphylococcus; Identification of
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Novobiocin Test (5ug)
126
A bacteria that causes endocarditis (associated with Prosthetic Heart Valve Surgery infection)
Staphylococcus epidermidis
127
A bacteria that is considered as blood culture contaminant
Staphylococcus epidermidis
128
A bacteria that causes UTI in young women
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
129
Novobiocin zone mm for resistant
less than 16 mm
130
A test that detects specific antigens of S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, N. gonorrheoae and
H. influenzae
Staph A Coagglutination Test
131
Staph A Coagglutination Test positive bacterias
S. pneumoniae
N. meningitidis
N. gonorrheoae
H. influenzae
132
It inhibits phagocytosis
protein A
133
it destroys stratum granulosum of skin (SSS - Scalded Skin Syndrome)
exfoliatin
134
white “pinpoint” colonies on SBA
Streptococci
135
selective medium for streptococci
Phenyl Ethyl Alcohol Agar (PEA)
136
medium of choice for streptococci
SBA
137
It is based on the antigens (polysaccharides or carbohydrates) present on the surface of their cell wall (A, B, C, D)
Lancefield frouping
138
it is based on hemolytic reactions (a,b, y)
Smith and Brown’s grouping
139
A classification of streptococci based on temperature
Bergey’s grouping
140
cell wall, anti-phagocytic, virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes (group A)
M-protein
141
O2 labile, Antigenic, anerobic, lytic
Streptolysin O
142
O2 stable, Non-antigenic
Streptolysin S
143
Result of Streptococcus pyogenes on Bacitracin test
Susceptible (+)
144
What toxin that causes scarlet fever
Erythrogenic toxin
145
The leading cause of flesh-eating bacteria (necrotizing fasciitis)
Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
146
Disease-associated of Streptococcus pyogenes (group A) infection
Rheumatic Heart Disease/ Rheumatic Fever
Acute Glomerulonephritis (AGN)
147
The bacteria that is common in mother-baby transmission
Streptococcus agalactiae (group B)
148
Streptococcus agalactiae is the #1 cause of
Neonatal meningitis
149
It differentiates Group D from other Streptococcus; presumptive test for Group D
Bile Esculin Hydrolysis Test
150
The indicator of Bile Esculin Hydrolysis Test
Ferric ammonium citrate
151
The medium of Bile Esculin Agar (BEA) composition
40% bile and Esculin
152
What is the positive control of Bile Esculin Hydrolysis Test
Enterococcus faecalis
153
(+) result of CAMP Test
Arrow-head zone of β-hemolysis
154
Bacteria that are CAMP test (+)
Streptococcus agalactiae
Listeria monocytogenes
Helicobacter pylori
155
what is the indicator of Sodium-Hippurate Hydrolysis Test
Ninhydrin reagent
156
- Best test to identify S. pyogenes
- Test to differentiate Group A from Group B Streptococcus
Bacitracin Susceptibility Test (Taxo A)
157
What group is susceptible (+) to bacitracin
Group A
158
What group is susceptible (+) Sulfamethoxazole
Group C, F and G
159
What bacteria has capsule as virulence factor
Streptococcus pneumoniae
160
causative agent of Lobar pneumonia / pneumococcal pneumonia / Diplococcus
pneumonia (#1 community acquired pneumonia in the Philippines)
Streptococcus pneumoniae
161
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the #1 causative agent of
adult bacterial meningitis
otitis media
162
Streptococcus pneumoniae causes
Meningitis
Otitis media
Pneumonia
Sinusitis
163
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the normal flora of
nasopharynx
oropharynx
164
It causes Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE)
Viridans
165
Bacteria that causes dental plaques/caries
Streptococcus mutans
166
An antibiotic that is used to identify S. pneumoniae
Optochin Disk Test (Taxo P)
167
Optochin Disk Test (Taxo P) zone of inhibition
>14 mm
168
Detects pneumococcal antibody; skin test for S. pneumoniae infection
Francis test
169
Detects erythrogenic antigen; skin test for S. pyogenes infection;
Dick's test
170
A skin test and immunity test for scarlet fever that uses antitoxin to the
erythrogenic toxin of S. pyogenes subcutaneously;
Schultz-Charlton Test
171
A positive result on Schultz-Charlton Test
Blanching (rash fade)
172
A positive result on Dick's test
Redness
173
Neisseria spp. are catalase positive except
Neisseria elongata
174
Neisseria spp. on superoxol test
Positive
175
Transport system for Neisseria
JEMBEC system
176
Pigmented Neisseria
Neisseria subflava
Neisseria flavescens
177
How many percent of carbon dioxide Neisseria spp. needs
5-10% CO2
178
It is presumptive (screening) test for gram negative cocci
Oxidase test/Taxo N
179
Reagent of Superoxol Catalase Test
30%H2O2
180
What is the virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Pili
181
also known as super bug
(PPNG) penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrheoa
182
Neisseria meningitidis virulence factor
Capsule
Endotoxin
183
What are the serotypes of N. meningitidis
A
B
C
Y
W135
184
Meningococcemia can lead to
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
185
Causative agent of Waterhouse- Friderichsen Syndrome
N. meningitidis
186
It is the disease of the adrenal gland caused by N. meningitidis
Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome
187
A bacteria with former names: Neisseria catarrhalis or Branhamella catarrhalis
Moraxella catarrhalis
188
- It is Tributyrin Hydrolysis (Butyrate Esterase Disc Test) = (+)
- Assacharolytic – most of sugars; cannot ferment
Moraxella catarrhalis
189
The #3 most causative agent of otitis media
Moraxella catarrhalis
190
Moraxella catarrhalis culture media
Cysteine Trypticase Agar (CTA)
191
What is the indicator of Cysteine Trypticase Agar (CTA)
Phenol red
192
Thayer-Martin Agar (TMA) composition
CAP with
Vancomycin
Colistin
Nystatin
193
Modified TMA composition
CAP with
Vancomycin
Colistin
Nystatin
Trimethoprim
194
NYC Agar composition
CAP with
Vancomycin
Colistin
Amphotericin B
Trimethoprim
195
Martin-Lewis Agar composition
CAP with
Vancomycin
Colistin
Anisomycin
Trimethoprim
196
what is the #1 blood culture contaminant
Propionibacterium acnes (Cutibacterium acnes)
197
Causative agent of bacterial vaginitis
Mobiluncus
Garnerella vaginalis
198
A bacteria with horse manure odor
C. difficile
199
A bacteria with breadcrumb colony
Fusobacterium nucleatum
200
A bacteria with Molar tooth colonies,
sulfur granules
Actinomyces israelli
201
A bacteria that causes pitting agar
Bacteroides ureolyticus
202
All Enterobacteriaceae are motile except
Klebsiella
Shigella
203
All Enterobacteriaceae are catalase-positive except
Shigella dysenteriae
204
All Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase-negative except
Vibrio
Pleisiomonas
Aeromonas
205
All Enterobacteriaceae are nitrate-positive except
Erwinia
Pantoea agglomerans
206
Enterobacteriaceae that are H2S producers
Salmonella
Proteus
Arizona
Citrobacter freundii
Edwardsiella
207
Bacteria that are Rapid Urease
Proteus
Providencia
Morganella
208
Rapid urease reacts within
2 hours
209
Bacteria that are Slow urease
Citrobacter
Klebsiella
Enterobacter
Yersinia
Serratia
210
rapid test to detect β-galactosidase
ONPG test
211
Bacteria that are Late lactose fermenters
Salmonella arizonae
Shigella sonnei
Hafnia
Yersinia
Citrobacter
Serratia
212
#1 cause of UTI
Escherichia coli
213
#2 cause of meningitis in infant
Escherichia coli K2
214
Causative agent of Montezuma revenge (Turista or Traveller’s diarrhea)
causes “Childhood diarrhea”
ETEC
215
causes dysentery – painful passage of stool
Causes Shigella-like infection or diarrhea (invasin)
EIEC
216
Other name: VTEC - Verotoxin Escherichia coli
EHEC
217
Most virulent strains of E.coli
O157:H7
218
source of OX2 and OX19
Proteus vulgaris
219
source of OXK
Proteus mirabilis
220
can be isolated from cold and warm blooded animals (tilapia)
Edwardsiella tarda
221
Yersinia pestis vector
Xenopsylla cheopsis (rat flea)
222
Yersinia pestis inclusion bodies
bipolar bodies (safety pin appearance)
223
Yersinia pestis stain
Wayson
224
causes zoonotic infections through ingestion of unpasteurized milk
#1 blood bag contaminant
Yersinia enterocolitica
225
Yersinia enterocolitica appearance
bull’s eye appearance/colony
226
#1 ICU (Intensive Care Unit) isolate
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
227
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the causative agent of
Whirlpool dermatitis / “Jacuzzi” Hot Tub Syndrome
228
Causative agent of "Vietnamese Time Bomb Disease"
Burkholderia pseudomallei
229
A bacteria with common name of Pfieffer’s Bacillus
Haemophilus influenzae
230
A bacteria with Seagull wings appearance
Campylobacter
231
Causative agent of chancroid or soft chancre
Haemophilus ducreyi
232
