NERVOUS-URINARY Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q

What does the central nervous system (CNS) consist of?

A

The brain and spinal cord

The brain is protected by the skull bones, while the spinal cord is protected by the backbone.

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2
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

A

The nerves that branch from the CNS

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3
Q

What are the three layers of membranes that cover the CNS?

A

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

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4
Q

Where does cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) circulate?

A

Between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater in the subarachnoid space

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5
Q

What are the three major causes of bacterial meningitis?

A

Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis

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6
Q

Fill in the blank: One of the major causes of bacterial meningitis is _______.

A

Listeria monocytogenes Type B

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7
Q

What is the normal flora location for H. influenzae?

A

Throat

H. influenzae is associated with the Hib conjugated vaccine.

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8
Q

What type of vaccine is used for N. meningitidis?

A

Purified capsular polysaccharide vaccine

N. meningitidis is normally found in the throat.

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9
Q

Where is S. pneumoniae normally found?

A

Nasopharynx

S. pneumoniae is associated with a conjugated vaccine.

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10
Q

What is the role of Procalcitonin in CSF fluid analysis?

A

Used as a diagnostic marker

It is one of the markers to test for changes in CSF fluid.

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11
Q

Which populations are at risk for meningitis caused by Listeria monocytogenes?

A

Newborns, immunosuppressed individuals, pregnant women, cancer patients

Listeriosis may be asymptomatic in healthy adults.

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12
Q

How can Listeria monocytogenes affect pregnancy?

A

Can cross the placenta causing spontaneous abortion and stillbirth

It is acquired by ingestion of contaminated food.

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13
Q

What causes Tetanus?

A

Exotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani

The neurotoxin tetanospasmin leads to symptoms like Lock Jaw.

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14
Q

What is the treatment for Tetanus?

A

Anti-tetano or Tetanus toxoid

These treatments are aimed at neutralizing the toxin.

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15
Q

What is the main characteristic of Botulism?

A

Caused by an exotoxin produced by C. botulinum

The toxin inhibits nerve impulse transmission.

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16
Q

What are the symptoms of Botulism?

A

Blurred vision, progressive flaccid paralysis

Symptoms can lead to respiratory and cardiac failure.

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17
Q

What causes infant botulism?

A

Growth of C. botulinum in an infant’s intestines

This condition is related to the floppy baby syndrome.

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18
Q

What test is used to diagnose leprosy?

A

Lepromin test

It assesses the activity of leprosy.

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19
Q

What are the two types of leprosy?

A

Lepromatous and Tuberculous

Each type has distinct clinical features.

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20
Q

What is the drug of choice (DOC) for leprosy?

A

Dapsone + Clofazimine

These medications are used to treat leprosy effectively.

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21
Q

What are the common symptoms of Poliomyelitis?

A

Sore throat, nausea, occasional paralysis

Fewer than 1% of cases result in paralysis.

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22
Q

How is Poliovirus transmitted?

A

Ingestion of water contaminated with feces

It first invades lymph nodes and the small intestine.

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23
Q

What is the Salk vaccine?

A

Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)

Involves injection of formalin-inactivated viruses.

24
Q

What is the Sabin vaccine?

A

Oral polio vaccine (OPV)

Contains three live, attenuated strains of poliovirus.

25
What does the Rabies virus cause?
Acute, usually fatal, encephalitis ## Footnote It is contracted through the bite of a rabid animal.
26
What are the symptoms of Rabies?
Spasms of mouth and throat muscles, extensive brain and spinal cord damage ## Footnote These symptoms often lead to death.
27
What is included in the postexposure treatment for rabies?
Administration of human rabies immune globulin (RIG) along with multiple intramuscular injections of vaccine.
28
What does preexposure treatment for rabies consist of?
Vaccination.
29
What are the symptoms of arboviral encephalitis?
Chills, headache, fever, and eventually coma.
30
What causes an increase in the incidence of arboviral encephalitis?
The increase in mosquitoes during the summer months.
31
What is a significant risk associated with Zika virus disease during pregnancy?
CNS birth defects if it infects a fetus.
32
What is the most effective way to control arboviral infections?
Control of the mosquito vector.
33
What is cryptococcosis?
Also known as cryptococcal meningitis caused by Cryptococcus spp.
34
How can cryptococcosis be contracted?
By inhaling dried infected pigeon or chicken droppings.
35
Who is most susceptible to cryptococcosis?
Immunosuppressed individuals.
36
What is the diagnosis method for cryptococcosis?
Latex agglutination tests for cryptococcal antigens in serum or CSF.
37
What protozoa cause African Trypanosomiasis?
Trypanosoma brucei gambiense and Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense.
38
What is the common name for African Trypanosomiasis?
Sleeping sickness.
39
What hinders vaccine development for African Trypanosomiasis?
The protozoan’s ability to change its surface antigens.
40
What is the fatality rate of encephalitis caused by Naegleria fowleri?
Almost always fatal.
41
What is the role of the urinary system?
Regulates chemical composition and volume of blood and excretes nitrogenous waste and water.
42
What prevents urine from flowing back to the urinary bladder and kidneys?
Valves.
43
What is the primary function of the reproductive system?
Produces gametes for reproduction and supports the growing embryo in females.
44
What is the most common cause of urinary tract infections?
Opportunistic gram-negative bacteria from the intestines.
45
What are the common etiologies of cystitis?
E. coli and Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
46
What is pyelonephritis?
Inflammation of the kidneys, usually a complication of lower urinary tract infections.
47
What is the causative agent of leptospirosis?
Leptospira interrogans.
48
What is the recommended drug of choice for treating leptospirosis?
Doxycycline.
49
What are the common symptoms of gonorrhea in men?
Painful urination and pus discharge.
50
What is a significant complication of untreated gonorrhea?
Blockage of the urethra and sterility.
51
What is the most common cause of nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)?
Chlamydia trachomatis.
52
What is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Extensive bacterial infection of the female pelvic organs.
53
What bacteria commonly cause PID?
N. gonorrhoeae, C. trachomatis, and other bacteria.
54
What is the diagnosis method for gonorrhea?
ELISA or NAATS.
55
Fill in the blank: Most infections of the reproductive system are _______.
sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
56
True or False: Most STIs can be prevented by the use of condoms.
True.