Neuro 2 Flashcards
(92 cards)
1
Q
where is the location of grey vs white matter in the spinal cord?
A
white on the outside, grey on the inside
2
Q
from where do sensory nerves originate? motor? in the spinal cord
A
sensory: dorsal funiculi
motor: ventral funiculi
3
Q
how do you tell ventral from dorsal spinal cord?
A
ventral = ventral fissure
4
Q
tell me the 3 layers of the meninges from outside to inside
A
dura mater
arachnoid
pia mater
5
Q
what is the leptomeninges?
A
arachnoid + pia
6
Q
when we remove the brain, the dura does what?
A
stays with the cranium
7
Q
where does CSF be?
A
subarachnoid space (b/t arachnoid and Pia)
8
Q
what is the epidural space?
A
separation b/t dura and bone
9
Q
when we remove the spinal cord, what does dura do?
A
stays with spinal cord
10
Q
what do the meninges “become” in the PNS?
A
epinerium, perineurium, endoneurium
11
Q
what are the 5 cell types in the brain/spinal cord?
A
neuron, astrocyte, oligodendrocyte, microglia, ependymal cells
12
Q
_____ are the most numerous type of CNS cell, important for regulation, repair, and support.
A
astrocytes
13
Q
_______ myelinate axons within the CNS
A
oligodendrocytes
14
Q
what are the glial cells?
A
astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglial cells
15
Q
Ependyma includes _______ and _______.
A
ependymal cells & choroid plexus
16
Q
tell me the 4 portals of entry into the CNS.
A
- hematogenous
- direct extension
- leukocyte trafficking
- retrograde axonal transport
17
Q
Tell me 5 examples of diseases that come from retrograde axonal transport
A
rabies, herpes, Listeria, tetanus, prions
18
Q
what is meningitis?
A
inflammation of the meninges
19
Q
what is meningoencephalitis?
A
inflammation of meninges and the brain
20
Q
tell me some possible causes of meningitis (you have to know the first one fo sho!)
A
bacteria
virus
parasites (Protozoa esp)
fungi
idiopathic
21
Q
in neonates < 5 days old, what is the common bacterial cause of meningitis?
A
E. coli
22
Q
Define these terms:
1. bacteremia
2. septicemia
3. sepsis
A
- presence of bacteria in blood
- presence and multiplication of bacteria in blood
- body wide inflammatory response to septicaemia
23
Q
what is the number 1 risk factor for neonatal septicaemia?
A
failure of passive transfer
24
Q
neonatal septicemia is common in animals what age?
A
<3 days old
25
in neonatal septicemia, bacteria from the blood tend to seed out in what locations?
filtration organs (liver, lung, spleen, kidney)
joints
growth plates
uvea
meninges
26
tell me the gross appearance of bacterial meningitis
cloudiness
esp on the ventral side, because this is where things settle with gravity
27
what is the lesion?
bacterial septicaemia
28
vertebral body abscesses are common in young production animals secondary to....
tail docking [lambs], tail biting [pigs], septicaemia
29
what are the portals of entry for vertebral body abscesses? where are the abscesses located? why do bacteria go here?
direct or hematogenous
vertebral growth plates or intervertebral discs (most commonly above the heart and above kidney)
hair-pin loops --> blood slows down and bacteria can jump out here
30
what is discospondylitis?
inflammatory disease involving intervertebral discs and adjacent vertebral bodies
31
how do vertebral body absences cause spinal deficits?
compression of spinal cord or extension of infection into cord (meningitis)
32
lesion?
vertebral body abscess
33
lesion?
discospondylitis
34
spina bifida is a _______ defect. what breeds are predisposed?
neural tube closure defect
English bulldog & Manx cat
35
spina bifida affects where in the spine?
caudal spine (last part of tube to close)
36
what is a bad outcome of spina bifida?
may get secondary spinal cord infection
37
Spina bifida can have herniation or no herniation. Please tell me the types of herniation and what it's called when there's no herniation. how can you tell there's no herniation?
meninges herniating alone = meningocele
meninges + spinal cord = meningomyelocele
spina bifida occulta = no herniation --> absence of skin over this area, but muscle still present with spinal cord below
38
these are examples of what?
spina bifida occulta
39
what is hydromyelia?
dilation of the central canal of spinal cord
40
tell me the pathogenesis of hydromyelia?
1. infectious or genetic damage to the ependymal cells
2. disruption of the normal CSF flow and abnormal pressure gradients
3. increased CSF pressure causes compression and loss of surrounding tissues
4. CSF fills the resulting space forming a cystic dilation
41
What is syringomyelia?
tubular cavitation of the spinal cord that extends over several segments
42
what lesion?
Syringomyelia
43
What is the other name for Cervical Stenotic Myelopathy?
Wobbler's
44
who does Wobbler's/Cervical stenotic myelopathy affect?
young, rapidly growing horses and dogs (large breed)
males > females
45
tell me the two types of Wobbler's and what they mean.
Static stenosis: 1-4 yrs, c5-c7, compression all the time
dynamic stenosis: 8-18 mos, c3-c5, compression not all the time (neck flexion only)
46
Great Danes and Dobermans only get what kind of Wobbler's?
static stenosis
47
tell me the pathogenesis of Wobbler;s
narrowing of vertebral canal causes compression of the spinal cord/nerve roots
get Wallerian degeneration
48
what is the lesion? what if I told you the lesion affected C6? What about C3?
Cervical stenotic myelopathy
C6 = static stenosis
C3 = dynamic stenosis
49
lebl
A: Annulus fibrosus
B: nucleus pulposus
50
Intervertebral disc disease is most common in ______ breeds. name 1 example.
Chondrodystrophic
Dachschund
51
What is intervertebral disc disease?
nucleus pulposus is replaced by cartilage and the annulus fibrosus weakens
52
_____ rupture occurs most commonly, and at the _________.
dorsal rupture
thoracolumbar junction (T12-L2)
53
what?
intervertebral disc disease
54
Tell me about the 2 classes of herniation involved in intervertebral disc disease.
Hansen type 1: sudden rupture of annulus fibrosus, nucleus pulposus into spinal canal, chondrodystrophic breeds, associated with mild trauma, more severe (young bois)
Hansen type 2: gradual degeneration of intervertebral disc, bulging of disc into spinal cord, non-chondrodystrophic breeds (old bois)
55
Intervertebral disc disease results in _____.
Wallerian degeneration
56
label
L: Hansen type 2 intervertebral disc disease
R: Hansen type 1
57
lesion?
Hansen type 1 intervertebral disc disease
58
lesion?
Hansen type 2 intervertebral disc disease
59
what is another term for ischemic myelopathy?
Fibrocartilaginous emboli
60
Ischemic myelopathy/fibrocartilaginous emboli are most common in ____ (species), and specifically _____ (breed). but they can occur in any species.
dogs, larger breeds
61
Ischemic myelopathy/fibrocartilaginous emboli are associated with ____ or ______.
exercise or trauma
62
true or false: ischemic myelopathy/fibrocartilagous emboli are more common in chondrodystrophic breeds.
false!
63
what is ischemic myelopathy? (fibrocartilaginous emboli)
what does it lead to?
herniation of fibrocartilage from the intervertebral disc (nucleus pulposus) into the vasculature
leads to infarction of spinal cord
64
what this an example of?
ischemic myelopathy aka fibrocartilaginous emboli
65
tell me the 2 forms of copper deficiency in lambs and kids. and where location affect
congenital = swayback --> cerebrum, brainstem, spinal cord
enzootic ataxia --> brainstem, spinal cord
66
nutritional/toxic lesions are often ______ (symmetrical/asymetrical)
bilaterally symmetrical
67
copper deficiency in lambs and kids associated with what?
poor wool/hair quality and pigmentation, osteoporosis
68
what are the clinical signs of equine motor neuron disease (EMND)?
progressive weakness and atrophy of skeletal muscles
older adult horses
pigmentary retinopathy
69
what is equine motor neuron disease?
degeneration of lower motor neurons in the ventral horns of hte spinal cord and brain stem nuclei
70
what is equine motor neuron disease associated with ?
vitamin E deficiency
71
what are the gross lesions of equine motor neuron disease?
pale red-yellow discolouration of skeletal muscle
most apparent in the medial head of triceps brachia and vastus intermedius
72
Equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy (EDM) is most common in _____ animals, ____ breed
young, Arabian
73
Equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy always involves what? it may have a ____ component to it too.
vitamin E deficiency
genetic
74
what is the histo lesion we have to know for equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy?
demyelination of the white matter of the spinal cord funiculi and brainstem
75
What is the ethology of Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM)? most common in what signalment?
Sarcocystis neurona
young adult horses
76
what wild animal is associated with equine protozoal myeloencephalitis?
opossum
77
equine protozoal myeloencephalitis can occur anywhere, but is most common where?
spinal cord >> brainstem
78
equine protozoal myeloencephalitis histo:
1. what histo lesion do we have to know?
2. what's another obvious one?
1. white and grey matter both affected
2. can see protozoal cysts in tissues
79
what is this an example of
equine protozoal myeloencephalitis
80
how do herpes get into the CNS?
retrograde axonal transport, leukocyte trafficking
81
Equine Herpesvirus 1 causes what 3 major syndromes in horses?
1. abortion and neonatal death
2. rhinopneumonitis
3. myeloencephalitis
82
Equine herpesvirus 1 myeloencephalopathy affects what signalment? infected through what mechanism? where does virus like to hang out before CNS?
adult horses
inhalation
lymphocytes and macrophages
83
Equine herpesvirus 1 can become ____ in the lymph nodes or trigeminla nerve
latent
84
Equine herpesvirus 1 myeloencephalopathy is ____ NOT neutropic
endotheliotropic
he loves blood vessels
85
how does equine herpesvirus 1 move to hte CNS?
leukocyte trafficking
86
what is this an example of?
equine herpesvirus 1 myeloencephalpathy
87
histo finding in equine herpesvirus 1 myeloencephalopathy?
vasculitis, leading to infarction
88
gross findings of equine herpesvirus 1 myeloencephalopathy?
well-demarcated areas of hemorrhage and necrosis
89
equine herpesvirus 1 myeloencephalopathy is more ____end oriented
hind
90
Degenerative radiculomyelopathy of dogs is most common in what breed?
German shepherd
91
what is dural ossification in old dogs?
a form of osseous metaplasia of the dural
92
what is the lesion?
dural ossification in old dogs
