Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

UMN functions

A

initiate voluntary movement
maintain tone (posture)
inhibit extensor mm (moderate activity)

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2
Q

LMN functions

A

link between CNS & effector muscles
direct innervation of effector mm

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3
Q

efferent motor tracks

A

brain to muscles
movement

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4
Q

afferent motor tracks

A

muscles to brain
coordination

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5
Q

what happens when something goes wrong with the motor tracts?

A

weakness, paresis or plegia

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6
Q

what happens when something goes wrong with the sensory tracts?

A

ataxia (reduced coordination)

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7
Q

when can you see both weakness and ataxia together? lesion in the ____

A

UMN spinal cord region

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8
Q

UMN signs

A

Paresis or paralysis of innervated muscles
↑ stride length
Normal to ↑ reflexes “hyperreflexia”
none/mild muscle atrophy, occurs slowly due to “disuse atrophy”
Normal to hypertonic/spastic muscle tone

+ standing/walking on dorsum of foot or dragging/scruffing foot “nail wear”

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9
Q

LMN signs

A

Paresis or paralysis of innervated muscles
↓ stride length
↓ to absent reflexes “hyporeflexia”
Severe, rapid muscle atrophy (5-7 days) “denervation atrophy”
hypotonic/atonia/flaccid muscle tone

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10
Q

paresis localizes to LMN and paralysis localizes to UMN

true or false

A

false

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11
Q

intention tremor
no proprioceptive deficits & paresis
wide based stance
irregular foot placement
dysmetria (hypermetria or hypometria)
ipsilateral absent menace

A

Cerebellar Ataxia

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12
Q

asymmetric gait
head tilt, circling
spontaneous nystagmus
proprioceptive deficits & paresis

A

Vestibular Ataxia

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13
Q

proprioceptive deficits & paresis
knuckling
long overreaching “solider marching”
UMN hypermetria

A

General Proprioceptive Ataxia
(caudal brainstem and spinal cord lesion)

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14
Q

Indications of multifocal lesions

A

LMN signs in both limbs

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15
Q

what part of the brain does proprioception

A

cerebellum & brainstem

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16
Q

what part of the brain does gait

A

brainstem & cerebrum

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17
Q

schiff sherington posture
lesion?
signs?

A

T3-L3 lesion - no prognostic significance
PL flexed, TL extended

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18
Q

forebrain lesion clinical signs

A

behavior change
contralateral blindness
ipsilateral head turn, body turn, circling, head press, pacing
deficits in contralateral limbs
contralateral facial hypoalgesia
seizures

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19
Q

what is the imaging modality of choice for the brain

A

MRI

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20
Q

CSF analysis contraindications

A

in absence of MRI
increased ICP
coagulopathy
cerebellomedullary cistern contraindicated with chiari-like malformation, AA instability or cervical trauma

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21
Q

cat ddx for forebrain disease of infectious origin

A

toxoplasma gondii
FIV
FeLV
FCov

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22
Q

CSF max volume

A

1ml/5kg

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23
Q

SRMA does NOT result in forebrain disease but may cause CSF abnormalities

true/false

A

true – results in neutrophillic, mononuclear or mixed pleocytosis

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24
Q

function of an EEG

A

assess forebrain activity
identifies seizures activity

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25
DDX for forebrain diseases in older animals
intracranial neoplasia (most common is meningioma) canine cognitive dysfunction (degenerative)
26
Slowly progressive, confusion, anxiety, loss of sleep-wake cycle, decreased pet-owner interaction > 8 yr old dog females & smaller breeds more common disease?
canine cognitive dysfunction
27
treatment for intracranial neoplasia
prenisolone
28
treatment for canine cognitive dysfunction
MCT Diet, omega3, carnitoids, vitamin E & A Selegiline cognitive enrichment levetiracetam
29
what are the DDX for any aged animal with forebrain disease due to metabolic dysfunction?
hypernatremia (>170-175) hyponatremia (<125)
30
chronic hypernatremia treatment
corrected slowly 48-72 hrs not faster than 0.5 mEq/L/hr half or normal saline then 5% dextrose
31
acute hypernatremia treatment
5% dextrose
32
acute hyponatremia treatment
correct quick with normal saline
33
chronic hyponatremia treatment what is the risk of rapid correction?
corrected slowly 48-72 hrs normal saline not faster than 0..5 mEq/L/hr risk of central myelinolysis with rapid correction
34
younger animal DDX for forebrain diseases
hepatic encephalopathy hypoglycemia hydrocephalus
35
treatment for hepatic encephalopathy
IV fluids, enemas, lactulose, diet antibiotics (metronidazole or potentiated amoxicillin) Levetiracetam
36
small breed, toy breed or brachycephaic dog with domed shape head and fontanelles, obtundation, behavior abnormalities, difficulty training, decreased vision, circling and pacing disease?
hydrocephalus
37
hydrocephalus diagnostic modality of choice & treatment
MRI glucocorticoids furosemide omeprazole acetazolamide surgery
38
type of seizure: sustained increase in muscle contraction followed by repetitive involuntary muscle contractions at a frequency of 2-3 seconds
tonic-clonic (most common)
39
type of seizure: sudden brief involuntary contraction of a muscle or group of muscles
myoclonic
40
type of seizure: sustained increase in muscle contraction lasting a few seconds-minutes
tonic
41
type of seizure: regular repetitive myoclonus, involving the same muscle groups, freq 2-3 sec
clonic
42
type of seizure: sudden loss of muscle tone
atonic
43
what are 3 forms of focal seizure
motor autonomic behavioral
44
idiopathic head tremor syndrome is found in what breeds
dobermans english bull dogs boxers
45
episodic falling due to paroxysmal hypertonicity is found in what breed
calvalier king charles spaniels
46
paroxysmal gluten sensitive dyskinesia (canine epileptoid cramping) is found in what breed
border terrier
47
causes of reactive seizures
metabolic or toxic
48
causes of structural epilepsy
inflammatory, neoplastic, traumatic
49
causes of idiopathic epilepsy
genetics - diagnosis of exclusion - dogs 6 mo - 6 yr
50
most common cause of reactive seizures in cats
hypoglycemia, hepatic encephalopathy and intoxication
51
most common cause of structural epilepsy in cats
hippocampal necrosis
52
criteria for starting treatment for seizures
structural epilepsy or reactive seizures status epilepticus or cluster seizures 2+ seizures in 6 month period post-ictal signs are severe or last longer than 24 hours
53
type of seizure: seizure lasting > 5 min or >2 seizures without full recovery of consciousness
status epilepticus
54
type of seizure: 2 or more seizures within 24 hours
cluster seizures
55
only antiepileptic that is FDA approved in dogs? cats?
primidone none in cats
56
phenobarbital MOA: steady state reached: metabolism:
increased inhibitory effect of GABA 2-3 weeks induces cytochrome P450 (contraindicated in dogs with hepatic dysfunction)
57
Potassium Bromide (KBr) MOA: steady state reached: contraindications:
competes with Cl transporter, inhibits Na, membrane hyperpolarization 12 weeks not used in cats due to eosinophillic bronchitis must be given along consistent diet don't use in patients with kidney disease
58
Levetiracetam (keppra) MOA: indications:
unknown AED of choice in PSS/liver disease
59
Zonisamide MOA: metabolism: dose:
blocks propagation of epileptic discharges metabolized by liver, use in dogs and cats dose increased when used with phenobarbital
60
treatment for stopping seizures immediately
diazepam per rectum midazolam intranasal
61
treatment if the patient is still seizing
phenobarbital then levetiracetam
62
treatment for breakthrough seizures
infusion of diazepam, midazolam, propofol
63
after 30 min of sustained seizure activity (prolonged status epilepticus) what drug do you use
NMDA receptor antagonists = Ketamine + dexmedetomidine
64
Hansen type I IVDD
chondroid degeneration nucleus pulposus extrusion young/middle aged chondrodystrophic breeds (dachunds) acute, painful
65
Hansen type II IVDD
fibroid degeneration annulus fibrosus protrusion older large breed (GSD) chronic, painful
66
gold standard diagnostic for IVDD
MRI
67
treatment for IVDD
crate rest 4-8 weeks medical management (pain) surgery recurrent/persistent pain or unresp to conservative therapy
68
young, middle aged, active dog that is acutely (hours) painful, non-progressive clinical signs
fibrocartilaginous embolism (FCE)
69
DDX for a FCE
acute non compressive nucleus pulposus etrusion (ANNPE) type I IVDD
70
young-middle aged, medium-giant breed dogs that have severe pain (spinal hyperesthesia), fever, inappetance, decreased mentation and reluctance to move
diskospondylitis
71
diskospondylitis diagnosis and treatment
radiographs (at 3 weeks) or MRI (right away) cephalosporins
72
> 7 yr old german shepherd, boxer or corgi with insidious onset, slowly progressive, non-painful T3-L3 signs
degenerative myelopathy
73
middle aged-older german shepherd with DJD at L7-S2
lumbosacral syndrome - bony proliferation = stenosis + type II disc protrusion
74
lumbosacral syndrome treatment
dorsal laminectomy conservation therapy
75
2 types of caudal cervical spondylomyelopathy "wobbelers"?
1. young great danes and mastiffs - degeneration/thickening of articular processes, dorsolateral compression 2. older dobermans - hypertrophy of articular processes, dorsal and ventral compression
76
what breeds are predisposed to atlantoaxial instability and what are the 2 causes
toy breeds, < 1 yr 1. congenital malformation of C2 2. trauma of dens
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