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VM749 Clin Sci III > Neuro Part 2 > Flashcards

Neuro Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

hypogastric n innervates _____ on _____ & _____ on ____

A

beta receptors
detrusor m

alpha receptors
internal urethral sphincter

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2
Q

pudendal n innervates ____ on _____

A

ACh receptors
external urethral sphincter

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3
Q

pelvic n innervates ____ on _____

A

ACh receptors
detrusor m

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4
Q

LMN bladder

A

flaccid bladder, hypotonic

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5
Q

UMN bladder

A

hypertonic, firm, hard to express

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6
Q

UMN dysfunction treatment

A
  1. alpha-anatagonists - Phenoxybenzamine or Prazosin
  2. striated m relaxants - Diazepam (valium)
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7
Q

LMN dysfunction treatment

A
  1. parasympathomimetics - Bethanechol
  2. PPA/estrogen
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8
Q

sequelae to bladder dysfunction

A
  1. UTI, cystitis
  2. urine scald
  3. bladder atony (prolonged distension > 24-48 hr)
  4. bladder rupture
  5. urine overflow
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9
Q

what does autonomic dysfunction of the bladder lead to

A

loss of nerve function but intact central integration = stranguria, dysuria, large residual volume

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10
Q

most common causes of multifocal CNS disease

A

infectious, inflam, neoplastic

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11
Q

meningoenceohalitis of unknown origin (MUO)
breed predispositon?
thought to be etiology?
treatment?

A

middle aged pugs, toys and terriers
immune mediated
prenisolone + anticonvulsants

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12
Q

younger dogs with severe neck pain acutely, no neurological deficits

A

steroid responsive meningitis arteritis (SRMA)

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13
Q

SRMA treatment

A

4-6 months slowly tapering steroids

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14
Q

most common differential for older dogs with multifocal CNS disease

A

neoplasia - lymphoma

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15
Q

FIP
etiology?
neuro signs seen with ____ form
most common cause of ____ in cats
age?
treatment?

A

feline coronavirus
dry form
hydrocephalus
> 2 yr
Remdesivir

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16
Q

what is the most likely infectious cause of multifocal CNS disease in the dog

A

Neospora meningoencephalomyelitis

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17
Q

Neospora meningoencephalomyelitis
diagnostic?
treatment?

A

MRI (cerebellum hyperintensity), CSF, Ab titers, CK/AST elevations
clindamycin/TMPS + pyrimethamine

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18
Q

rabies clinical signs

A

acute CN deficits
ascending LMN paresis
non-suppurate polioencephalomyeliti and craniospinal neuritis

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19
Q

canine distemper bimodal onset
dog < 1 yr =
dog > 1 yr =

A

< 1 yr = gray matter, forebrain signs

> 1 yr = white matter, brainstem, cerebellum and spinal cord

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20
Q

canine distemper
diagnostic?
treatment?

A

titers - IgM, IgG
CSF IgG distinguishes recent vx from true infection
steroids

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21
Q

diffuse and bilateral symmetrical is indicative of what?

A

intoxication

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22
Q

primary brain injury occurs _____ and causes _____

A

time of incident
direct mechanical injury

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23
Q

secondary brain injury occurs ____ and causes ____

A

minutes-days after
biochemical changes

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24
Q

cerebral swelling can continue to worsen for up to ____ hours post trauma then will stabilize and begin to resolve overtime

A

72 hours

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25
what is the Cushing's reflex/response
bradycardia < 60bpm in the face of hypertension >250mmHg due to increased ICP
26
how can you stabilize a patient/provide supportive care with head trauma
elevate head/neck/shoulders 30-45 degrees avoid jugular compression
27
how would you treat a head trauma patient with hypovolemic shock
fluid resuscitation
28
O2 therapy to conscious patient? unconscious patient?
nasal cannula or O2 catheter intubation + ventilation
29
contraindications of mannitol
hypovolemia electrolyte abnormalities *don't use if not hemodynamically stable*
30
what drugs can you give for head trauma and increased ICP
mannitol or hypertonic saline furosemide analgesia NEVER STEROIDS
31
best indicator for prognosis of head trauma patient
MGCS -- trend in the first 48 hours is more valuable than an isolated neurologic evaluation >8 associated with 50% survival
32
peripheral vestibular system
CN VIII
33
central vestibular system
vestibular nuclei spinal cord extraocular nuclei cerebellum
34
most common causes of peripheral vestibular disease
1. otitis media/interna 2. old dog/geriatric/idiopathic vestibular disease
35
what is paradoxical vestibular disease
vestibular disease + cerebellar involvement
36
what is the one sign that can differentiate central vestibular disease from paradoxical vestibular disease
postural reaction deficits will always be on the same side of lesion
37
feline cerebellar hypoplasia onset? progression? cause?
from birth static inutero infection with feline panleukopenia virus
38
common signs of cerebellar ataxia
truncal sway wide base stance dysmetria intention tremor
39
cerebellar abiotrophy breed predispositon? onset? progression?
kerry blue terrier, gordon setters, rough-coated collies, arabian horses normal at birth, onset 2-36 months progressive/gradual
40
infarction onset? progression? causes?
peracute < 24hf static/improved kidney, CV dz, infection, coagulopathy
41
corticosteroid-responsive tremor syndrome (CRTS) cause? onset? treatment?
"white shaker dog syndrome" thought to be autoimmune, worsens with exercise, stress, excitement, disappears during sleep seen at rest acute onset-intention tremor of head/limbs/body prednisolone or diazepam
42
acute generalized ddx for neuromuscular diseases
polyradiculoneuritis myasthenia gravis botulism tick paralysis polymyositis immune mediated/infectious
43
chronic progressive ddx for neuromuscular diseases
myasthenia gravis polymyositis inflam/infectious
44
localized neuromuscular diseases ddx
traumatic facial paresis/paralysis spinal n hypertrophic neuritis brachial plexus trigeminal n
45
gold standard diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis
AChR Ab test
46
flaccid paralysis ddx
acute polyradiculoneuritis botulism tick paralysis
47
west highland white terrier or jack russel with ascending flaccid tetraparesis and dysphonia but retains tail wag
acute polyradiculoneuritis
48
acute polyradiculoneuritis 4 causes
1. idiopathic, post vx or contact with racoon 2. immune-mediated 3. campylobacter and raw feed 4. bengal cats
49
acute polyradiculoneuritis diagnostic
F waves or CSF analysis (albuminocytological dissociation)
50
Botulism cause? clinical signs
contaminated feed with C. botulinum junctionopathy, dysautonomia and **concurrent GI signs**
51
Neospora caninum clinical signs and treatment
radiculoneuritis and myositis - arthrogryposis clindamycin / TMPS + Pyrimethamine and physical therapy
52
masticatory muscle myositis cause? clinical signs? treatment?
auto-Ab to 2M myosin isoform bilateral masticatory muscle atrophy, trismus prednisolone, PT
53
immune-mediated polymyositis cause? breeds? treatment?
immune-mediated large breeds prednisolone + analgesia
54
tetanus pathogenesis/MOA clinical signs
contaminated wound, tetanospasmin, binds irreversibly preventing GABA and glycine, and causes prolonged contraction sawhorse stance, hypersensitivity, risus sardonicus, trismus/lockjaw
55
idiopathic facial n paralysis unilateral or bilateral? ddx? treatment? prognosis?
unilateral hypothyroidism, otitis media/interna, trauma, neoplasia, polyneuropathy artificial tears should resolve 6-8 weeks
56
idiopathic trigeminal neuropathy unilateral or bilateral? clinical signs? treatment? prognosis?
bilateral inflammation dropped jaw PT or tape muzzle resolves ~3wks
57
what is the most common cause of inability to close the mouth
idiopathic trigeminal neuropathy
58
DDX for unilateral trigeminal lesions?
trigeminal nerve sheath tumor
59
neuromyopathy ddx
ischemic neuropathy hypokalemic neuropathy
60
chronic neuropathy ddx
diabetes hypothyroidism
61
common causes of ischemic neuropathy in the cat? dog?
feline aortic thromboembolism due to cardiomyopathy dogs - renal disease
62
hypokalemic neuropathy 3 causes
reduced intake renal failure, hyperthyroid burmese cat
63
if a cat has cervical ventroflexion and muscle weakness, what would you consider on the ddx
hypokalemic neuropathy

VM749 Clin Sci III (15 decks)

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