OG EXAM: STUDY BANK Flashcards
(79 cards)
1
Q
WX products; wind in true or mag?
A
TRUE (in written)
if spoken ie in ATIS, it is in MAG
2
Q
WX products; CLD base AGL or AMSL?
A
- AMSL (abv mean sea level) for SIGMET/SIGWX/GRAPHORs
- AGL for TAFs/METARs/ATIS
3
Q
DEST Met Mins
A
MET forecast for arrival time +/- 1hr
CLD base 1000ft abve MDA/DA/DDA
VIS 2km abv mins or 5km (whichever is greater)
4
Q
ALT Met Mins (precision approach)
A
CLD 200ft abve DA or 600ft (whichever is greater)
VIS 1km abv mins or 3km (whichever is greater)
5
Q
ALT Met Mins (non-precision approach)
A
CLD 200ft abve MDA/DDA or 800ft (whichever is greater)
VIS 1.5km abv mins or 4km (whichever is greater)
6
Q
Wind limits for the Kingair 350?
uncoupled) (Max wind/Mean gust/XWC/TWC
A
Max wind (including gusts): >45kts
Mean gust: >20kts
Max XWC (including gusts): >20kts
Max TWC: 10kts
7
Q
Wind limits (coupled approach) (XWC/TWC)
A
XWC: 32kts
TWC: 14kts
8
Q
When IAW AVOs are you allowed to land outside of wind limits?
A
ONLY with specific authorisation of OC 42SQN, are you allowed to land/take off at an aerodrome that exceeds wind limitations. (Part 3, Leaflet K9, AVOs)
9
Q
Practical application of DDA
What approaches do we do it for?
Why do we do it?
A
To better achieve a stabilised final approach segment for non precision approaches (including RNAV), approaches should be flown at constant descent final approach (CDFA). If CDFA is used, descent below MDA could happen when executing the MAP. Therefore, the go around decision/initiation should be done before MDA (at DDA)
> in simple terms; DDA allows us to make a decision before MDA & execute the MAP if required without continuing below MDA.
10
Q
How to calculate DDA and what does it stand for?
A
Derived Decision Altitude
MDA +50ft = DDA
11
Q
When to not use DDA (3) & alternative approaches to this.
A
- If the Captain is unable to attain required visual reference on the first appch using CDFA and a DDA, OR
- If the appropriate vertical guidance is not avlble,
OR - If it considered more appropriate by the a/c captain.
> A step down (dive & drive) or CDFA approach to MDA may be used.
12
Q
Why are STARs used? (4)
A
- To reduce RTF
- Standardise arrival instructions
- Reduce possibility of error in aircraft routing
- Provide positive routing in event of a/c comms failure.
13
Q
Approaches; when can you track direct outbound over the aid/ when do you need to conduct a reversal procedure?
A
- Can track direct overhead the aid outbound if you are within 30 deg L or R of the outbound track.
- If outside this tolerance, a reversal must occur via a Procedure turn/base turn or a racetrack
14
Q
Reversal procedures; requirements (3)
A
- Strict adherence to directions & timings required
- Entry track to the procedures must be +/- 30deg
- Except for DME distance limited procedures, reversal speed limitations apply from procedure commencement
15
Q
CAT B VaT
A
91 -120kts IAS
16
Q
CAT B Initial appch speeds
A
120 - 180kts IAS
17
Q
CAT B Max speed for reversal procedures
A
140kts IAS
18
Q
CAT B Final appch speeds
A
85-130kts IAS
19
Q
CAT B max speed for visual maneuvering (circling)
A
135kts IAS
20
Q
CAT B max speed for MAP
Other parameters?
A
150kts IAS (unless otherwise specified on appch plate)
- 2.5% min clb gradient for 98ft obstacle clearance
- Min bank angle 15deg AoB
21
Q
Describe a 45/180 deg Procedure turn
(3 steps)
(Also the NOTE)
A
Consists of;
- specified outbound track & timing from the aid (NO MORE THAN 3 MINS), then;
- a 45deg turn away from the outbound for 1 MIN FROM THE START OF THE TURN (CAT A & B), then;
- a 180deg turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound TRK.
NOTE; an 80deg procedure turn may also be used when a 45deg procedure turn is depicted.
22
Q
Describe an 80/260 deg Procedure turn
3 steps
A
Consists of;
- specified outbound track and timing from the aid (NO MORE THAN 3 MINS), then;
- an 80deg turn away from the outbound TRK, then, once wings lvl;
- an immediate 260deg turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound TRK
23
Q
Describe a Base turn
2 steps
A
Consists of;
- Turn immediately overhead the aid onto a specified outbound TRK and timing from the aid or specified distance, then;
- a turn to intercept the inbound TRK
24
Q
Race Track - compare to holds
E/S/OO/P/M/A
A
Same procedures as holds apply (but leg times/distances should be specified and considerations should be applied);
- entry TRK must be within +/- 30deg unless entry is protected
- Speed not abve Max applicable to CAT B
- When a longer outbound time is published, Offset entry is limited to 1min 30secs, then outbound leg is paralleled for the remaining distance/time
- During Parallel entry, the inbound final appch track must be intercepted prior to the facility
- Maneuvering, as far as possible, will be done on the holding side of the inbound track.
- Specified min altitudes apply until the a/c is established on the final inbound track
25
When are you established inbound for an appch?
- Within half scale deflection L/R for ILS/VOR
| - Within 5deg L/R of an NDB track
26
Sector 1 (Parallel) entry procedure
Timings start?
Established?
1. On reaching holding fix, a/c is turned to reciprocal of holding pattern inbound TRK for 1min (CAT B)/ reaching the limiting distance, then;
2. a/c is turned onto holding side to intercept the inbound track until reaching the fix.
- start timing once overhead the aid
- Once overhead aid for second time
27
Sector 2 (Offset) entry procedure
Timings start?
Established?
1. On reaching holding fix, a/c is turned onto HDG of 30deg from the reciprocal of the inbound track, then;
2. The a/c is flown outbound for 1min/ limiting distance (if specified)/limiting radial (if specified), then;
3. a/c turned to intercept the inbound TRK until reaching the aid.
- start timing once overhead the aid
- Established once over the aid for the second time
28
```
Sector 3 (Direct) entry procedure
Timings start?
```
On reaching the holding fix, the a/c must be turned to follow the holding pattern.
- Outbound timings; abeam the aid or wings level (the later of the two)
29
When do hold timings start on the non-aid side? (outbound)
once wings level or abeam the aid (whichever comes later)
30
Time outbound in the hold
CAT B
- 1min <14,000ft
- 1.5min >14,000ft
Can also be distance specified.
31
Hold turns
Bank angle of 3deg per second or 25deg (the lesser AoB)
32
Wind allowance for holds
- 1sec for every 2kts above 10kts
| - Allow 3x calculated drift on the outbound leg (to a max of 30deg)
33
Zone of flexibility for Hold entry
Zone of flex 5deg L/R of the sector boundaries.
34
Max IAS for holding patterns (CAT B)
Unless specified otherwise;
<14,000ft: 230kts (170kts in turbulent conditions)
>14,000ft: 240kts (less than 280 in turbulent conditions)
>20,000ft 265kts
35
What is a DME arc?
Lead in to turn onto appch?
MSA on the arc provides?
DME Arc entry into the hold
- Circular path that leads in to approach without having to conduct overhead procedure.
- 2nm lead into appch turn
- MSA on the arc provides terrain sep of 1000ft up to 2.5nm L/R
- When entering hold pattern from DME arc, on reaching the holding fix the a/c must enter the holding pattern IAW either sector 1 or 3 procedure (Parallel of Direct)
36
What is needed to continue below MDA/DDA/DA (CCVR)
- The a/c is continuously in a position from which a normal rate of descent & normal manouevring can occur to touchdown in the intended area on the RWY
- On circling approach, can maintain a/c within the circling area.
- Flight vis is not less than the vis prescribed for the instrument appch being used.'
- At least one of the visual references for the intended RWY is distinctive/identifiable.
37
What are the visual references required to land? (9)
1. The approach lighting system
2. THRS markings
3. THRS lights
4. RWY end identification lights
5. Visual approach slope indicator
6. The touch down zone/zone markings
7. Touchdown zone lights
8. RWY/RWY markings
9. The RWY lights
38
When should you execute the MAP? (3)
If, at the MAP;
1. The pilot has not established visual reference with any portion of the RWY or visual landing aids IAW met mins prescribed for the appch.
2. An identifiable part of the aerodrome is not distinctly visible to the pilot during a circling procedure at or abve MDA
3. At any time during final appch when directed to by ATC
39
What does the MDA for circling appch provide?
Protection from obstacles within the circling area applicable to the CAT of the a/c
40
How is the circling area determined/drawn?
By drawing an arc centered on the THRS of each usable RWY & joining those arcs with tangents.
41
What is the radius of a circling arc determined on? (4 + extra on??)
- The a/c TAS at maximum IAS for circling (CAT B: 135kts IAS)
(calculated at 1000ft above an aerodrome with 1000ft elevation)
- Wind of +/- 25kts throughout the turn
- 20deg average bank angle (or 3deg per sec), the lesser AoB.
- ISA +15
42
CAT B circling radii
| CAT C circling radii
B: 2.66nm
C: 4.2nm
43
Class A asx general
| radio/entry clearance/ATC sep/ATC info/speed limits
- Radio rqd
- Entry clearance rqd
- ATC sep provided b/t IFR & IFR only
- Nil VFR traffic allowed
- Nil traffic info/speed limits
44
Class C asx IFR
| radio/entry clearance/ATC sep/ATC info/speed limits
- Radio rqd
- Entry clearance rqd
- ATC Sep provided between
> IFR - IFR
> IFR -VFR
> IFR - SVFR
- Nil traffic info/speed limits
45
Class D asx IFR
| radio/entry clearance/ATC sep/ATC info/speed limits
- Radio rqd
- Entry clearance rqd
- ATC sep provided between;
> IFR - IFR
> IFR - SVFR
- Traffic info provided between IFR & VFR
- Speed restriction; below 10,000ft 250kts max
46
Class G asx IFR (uncontrolled asx)
| radio/entry clearance/ATC sep/ATC info/speed limits
- Radio rqd
- Nil clearance to enter required
- Nil ATC sep provided
- Traffic info provided between
> IFR & IFR
> IFR & VFR
- Speed restriction; below 10,000ft 250kts max
47
Class C asx VFR
| radio/entry clearance/ATC sep/ATC info/met minima/speed limits
- Radio rqd
- Entry clearance rqd
- ATC sep provided between;
> IFR & VFR
> SVFR & SVFR (below 5km vis)
- Traffic info provided between VFR & VFR
- VFR vis minima applies
- Speed restriction; below 10,000ft 250kts max
48
What is VFR visibility minima (for classes C/D/G)
VIS
- At or above 10,000ft AMSL: vis 8km
- Below 10,000ft AMSL: vis 5km
CLD
-At or above 3000ft AMSL/1000ft AGL: 2km sep from CLD (horizontally)/1000ft vertical sep from CLD (500ft in control zone)
-Below 3000ft AMSL/1000ft AGL: clear of cloud and in sight of SFC
49
Class D asx VFR
| radio/entry clearance/ATC sep/ATC info/met minima/speed limits
- Radio rqd
- Entry clearance rqd
- ATC sep provided between;
> IFR & SVFR
> SVFR & SVFR (below 5km vis)
- Traffic info provided between
> VFR & VFR
> VFR & IFR
- VFR vis minima applies
- Speed restriction; below 10,000ft 250kts max
50
Class G asx (VFR)
| radio/entry clearance/ATC sep/ATC info/met minima/speed limits
- Radio/ Entry clearance NOT rqd
- ATC sep NOT provided
- Traffic info provided between;
> VFR & IFR
> VFR & VFR
- Applicable met mins:
> Vis: 8km abv 10,000ft AMSL/5km below 10,000ft AMSL or within 1000ft AGL
> 2km horizontal sep from CLD (abve 3000ft or 1000ft AGL - the higher)
> 1000ft vertical sep from CLD
> Clear of CLD at or below 3000ft AMSL/ 1000ft AGL (the higher)
- Speed restriction; below 10,000ft 250kts max
51
VFR mins in CTA
1500ft/5km (day and night)
52
VFR mins uncontrolled CTA
- Day
- Night
600ft/1500m (day)
| 1500ft/8km (night)
53
When can you enter SUAS?
- Restricted & Mil op areas
- Danger areas
- Volcanic hazard zones
- Restricted & Mil op areas: Only after authorisation from administering authority
- Danger areas: only after consideration of danger present (entry at own risk)
- Volcanic hazard zones: Only in VMC day day (NOTAMs can also increase area if rqd)
54
Who's responsible for maintaining Asx containment?
The pilot, unless under Radar vectors
55
Transition, when does it change/what does it mean?
- To provide terrain clearance in NZ under all conditions of temperature and pressure
13,000 - F150
<13,000 = QNH
>F150 = QNE (1013.2 hpa)
If between the levels, use QNH as provided by ATC
56
When does transition change in NZ?
- When zone area QNH is below 980hpa, the min usable FL for that zone increases to F160
- 20nm radius around Mt Cook a/c must maintain F160 to ensure terrain clearance.
57
MAYDAY/PAN radio call contents
- MAYDAY/PAN x3
- Name of station addressed
- ID of a/c
- nature of distress condition
- Intentions of pilot
- Present position/ FL/ heading
58
What else needs to occur inside the aircraft during an emergency?
- Transponder code updated (7700/7600/7500)
- activate ELT
NOTE;
- if emergency is sorted, turn off ELT and advise ATC immediately (otherwise they will assume that the a/c has crashed)
59
IFR comms failure - general (9)
1. Maintain terrain clearance
2. Transponder to 7600
3. Try alternate & secondary published ATC frequencies
4. check a/c comms equipment
5. Listen to ATIS if possible
6. Transmit position report/intentions, prefix with "TRANSMITTING BLIND"
7. Turn on landing lights/beacons/strobe
8. If mobile phone available, call AA/OH/CC ctrl.
9. If dest is within MBZ, proceed to alternate aerodrome if possible
60
TIBA - what is it?
| Where to find info on it?
Traffic Information Broadcasts by Aircraft
- Reports and info transmitted by pilots for other pilots in the vicinity in the event of significant disruption to ATC/comms services (e.g. CHCH earthquake)
- ENR 1.15 - 13
61
Safe heights;
ERC
VNC
ONC
- ERC: Safe alt (already calced)
| - VNC/ONC: terrain height (safe alt will need to be calced)
62
25 sect safe
- when
- what
- boundary?
- To be used 25nm out from the aerodrome reference point OR the VOR (which is what it it based on - can be found on the approach plate)
- Is the lowest altitude that may be used by the pilot in IMC conditions
- When tracking along the boundary line between adjacent sectors, the lowest altitude is to be used.
63
What do VORSEC charts show/purpose
- Show the higher of the minimum safe altitude or the minimum reception altitude of the nominated NAVAIDs within sectors that are defined by VOR radials and DME distance arcs.
- Purpose is to provide obstacle clearance and good reception
64
When are you allowed to disregard rules IAW AVOs
- OIP (orders/instructions and procedures)
- CARs
- Disregard OIP if necessary by safety or operational imperative
- Disregard CARs where specific military procedures prescribed in AVOs or subordinate OIP are contrary to these rules.
65
Why do we circle to land?
To fly the approach for one runway, to land on another (ie NZLX)
- Where terrain or other constraints cause the final appch track alignment or descent gradient to fall outside the criteria for a straight in approach.
66
Kingair crew duty periods
On task; 14hrs on task, 12hrs rest
Training; 12hrs on, 12hrs rest
<9hr duty periods: 7days max consecutive
>9hr duty periods: 6days max consecutive
67
IAs; Passenger oxy masks deployed
BOLDFACE
- Passenger oxy masks: pull lanyard pin & DON mask
- Tighten with elastic strap
- Descend: as required
Non - bold face:
- When Cabin altitude is below 10,000ft or oxy flow has ceased: remove PAX OXY mask
- Lanyard pin: insert
68
IAs; suspected hypoxia
BOLDFACE
- Affected member(s): EPOS/OXY mask: DON
Non bold-face:
- Other crew members also don oxy masks at captains discretion
- Descend and/or land at nearest suitable airfield as rqd.
69
IAs; Smoke or fumes present
BOLDFACE
- EPOS: DON
- Confirm absence of red end of service light (if red light on - remove & replace)
- Gloves: ON
70
IAs; Smoke of fire in the equipment rack
BOLDFACE
- EPOS: DON
- Confirm absence of red end of service light (if red light on - remove & replace)
- Gloves: ON
- AWO mission power switch & cockpit mission power switch: OFF
- Fire extinguisher: OBTAIN
- Post fire watch
Non bold face:
- If smoke or fire persists & at captains discretion: Discharge fire extinguisher into equipment rack access holes.
- Report number of extinguishers used & effect
71
IAs; Life raft deployment
BOLDFACE
- Buckle: release
- Emergency exit: Open & discard
- Life raft: pass through emergency exit
- Line: Pull all out & jerk to inflate life raft, pull to aircraft & board
- Mooring line: cut if rqd
- ELT: Confirm activated by presence of flashing LED.
72
What is radar horizon
The radar horizon is a critical area of performance for aircraft detection systems that is defined by the distance at which the radar beam rises enough above the Earth's surface to make detection of a target at low level impossible
73
What cloud does the ATIS ident?
CLD within 5000ft or the highest 25nm sect
| But will always ident Cb & TCU within the vicinity
74
Met mins rqd for VFR in class G asx
VIS:
- At or abve 10,000ft AMSL: 8km
- Below 10,000ft AMSL (or within 1000ft AGL): 5km
CLD:
- Abve 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL (the higher): horizontal clearance is 2km. Vertical clearance is 1000ft.
- At or below 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL (the higher): Clear of CLD and in sight of SFC
75
Separation rqd from SUAS established for a/c activity (Danger/restructed/MOAs)
- IMC OR SVFR
- VMC
Sep for Volcanic hazard zones or the above SUAS NOT established for a/c activity?
IMC/SVFR
>F290: 2000ft
F290: 1000FT
76
Visual apph met minima
Vis 16km, ceiling is +1000ft abve minimum radar vectoring altitude or Applicable approach minima
77
Take off mins
| Reduced take off mins
T/O mins: Ceiling 300ft, +1500m vis
| Reduced: Ceiling 0ft, 800m vis
78
Max operating speed Mach (Vmo)
0.58
79
What is 550lbs calced from?
100min fuel
150 appch
30mins hold at 600pph
