OP CLASS #1 WEEK OF JAN. 20th, 2014 SPRING 2014 - OFFICER'S PREP COURSE PART I – FFP – ROWFRAMES: PART II – COMMUNICATIONS CH. #2 & 3: PART III – AUCs 331 & 332: PART IV – TB – ELEVATORS : PART V – CFR-D Ch #2: INSTRUCTOR: CAPT KEN RUGGIERO Flashcards Preview

Firetech > OP CLASS #1 WEEK OF JAN. 20th, 2014 SPRING 2014 - OFFICER'S PREP COURSE PART I – FFP – ROWFRAMES: PART II – COMMUNICATIONS CH. #2 & 3: PART III – AUCs 331 & 332: PART IV – TB – ELEVATORS : PART V – CFR-D Ch #2: INSTRUCTOR: CAPT KEN RUGGIERO > Flashcards

Flashcards in OP CLASS #1 WEEK OF JAN. 20th, 2014 SPRING 2014 - OFFICER'S PREP COURSE PART I – FFP – ROWFRAMES: PART II – COMMUNICATIONS CH. #2 & 3: PART III – AUCs 331 & 332: PART IV – TB – ELEVATORS : PART V – CFR-D Ch #2: INSTRUCTOR: CAPT KEN RUGGIERO Deck (72):
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PART I – FFP – ROWFRAMES:
1. Many areas of the city have rowframe buildings so it is important for officers and
firefighters to be familiar with their features. Which choice below is an incorrect description of
rowframe buildings? 5.1
A. Rowframes may vary in height from 2 to 5 stories, are 20 to 30 feet in width, and have
depths that range from 40 to 60 feet.
B. When constructed, each builder may have used varying designs, i.e., with a stoop similar to
Brownstones which are constructed of masonry; some with and some without cornices.
C. One type is similar to the Brownstone layout of rooms. They generally have 3 front
windows per floor with one apartment going from front to rear and no rear fire escape.
D. Another type of rowframe is the railroad flat with 2 apartments per floor. They generally
have 4 windows across the front, with a rear fire escape. The depth of the building will
determine the size and number of rooms.

1. B

When
constructed, each builder may have used varying designs, i.e., with stoop similar
to brownstones but all wood; with or without cornices.

2

2. Rowframes may be constructed of _____ or _____ types of construction? Rowframes
_____ have a dumbwaiter shaft present. 5.1.3, 5.1.2 B 1
A. Balloon frame / Braced frame -- May
B. Balloon frame / Platform -- Will not
C. Platform / Braced frame -- May
D. Braced frame / Heavy Timber -- Will not

2. A

3

3. After operating at a top floor fire in a rowframe building members of E-99 and L-100 were
critiquing the fire. Each unit had a new proby working. Of the following statements made which
is the only correct one? 5.2.2, 5.2.3, 5.2.7, 5.2.9
A. The salient feature common to all, regardless of variations in design, is the common
cornice running across the front of all the buildings in the row.
B. The division walls between buildings are quite frequently no more than the equivalent of a
partition wall with nogging present. This nogging will stop the spread of fire.
C. To gain entrance to the roof from the interior of the building, there is a scuttle on the roof
which is reached by an iron ladder from the top floor. This ladder is always found in a closet.
D. Lack of fire stopping at cellar ceilings may permit fire travel from one building to another.
Sometimes the cellar runs under more than one building with no separation. Fires in these
cellars may endanger two or more buildings.

3. D

5.2.2 The salient feature common to all, regardless of variations in design, is the
common cockloft spreading over all the buildings in the row. This cockloft may
vary in height from one foot to a height tall enough for a man to stand in.

5.2.3 The division walls between buildings are quite frequently no more than the
equivalent of a partition wall with nogging present (see Figure 10). Because of
age, this nogging presents limited hindrance to fire. The mortar has disintegrated
with age leaving many spaces through which the fire can penetrate.

5.2.7 To gain entrance to the roof from the interior of the building, there is a scuttle on
the roof which is reached by an iron ladder from the top floor. The scuttle is
usually near the skylight over the stairs.

4

4. The height of a cockloft in a rowframe type building is? 5.2.2
A. 2 to 3 feet
B. 4 feet
C. 1 foot to a height tall enough for a man to stand in
D. 4 inches to 6 feet

4. C

5

5. The life hazard in rowframe buildings is great due to the large number of occupants and the
rapidity with which the fire may spread. The two major defects or faults in the construction of
Rowframes are found in which choices below? (More than 1 correct) 5.3.2
A. Common cockloft
B. Lack of fire stopping
C. Vast quantity of combustible material used in construction
D. Buildings constructed using balloon frame construction

5. B, C

5.3.2 The major defects or faults in the construction are the lack of the fire stopping and
the vast quantity of combustible material used in the construction. Fire can spread
in the following manner:

6

6. The danger of collapse with fires in this type of structure is a factor deserving
consideration. Which point about collapse in rowframe buildings is not correct? 5.4
A. Side walls can pull away from the building and collapse in many sections into the yard.
Personnel will have to be alert to this possibility.
B. Indiscriminate removal of structural members during overhauling can cause partial or
complete collapse of the building.
C. The weight of a fire escape can cause a complete collapse of an exterior wall. Brick veneer
or stucco facing can collapse in sections or as a complete unit.
D. When a serious fire burns out the entire first floor, there is a danger of collapse, especially
in corner buildings and buildings standing alone.

6. A

B. Rear walls can pull away from the building and collapse in one section
into the yard. Personnel will have to be alert to the possibility.

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7. L-100 and L-101 are operating at a top floor fire in a rowframe building with 3 windows
across the front of the building. L-100 was 1st due and L-101 was 2nd due. There is fire coming
from all 3 windows on the top floor of the fire building, there is heavy smoke coming from all
the windows on the top floor of exposure 4, and very light smoke coming from all the windows
on the top floor of exposure 2. Which member/unit listed below will be responsible for
examining exposure 4 for extension? 5.6.4, 5.8 F 1
A. The inside team of L-100
B. The LCC’s of L-100 and L-101
C. The inside team of L-101
D. The O/V and Roof FF’s from L-101

7. C

8

8. Units are operating at a fire on the 2nd floor of a 3 story brownstone type rowframe. The
following companies have arrived and are operating according to their order of arrival listed
here: E75, E-81, E-43, L-33, L-46. Which member(s) operating at this fire are under the
immediate supervision of their respective officer? (More than 1 correct) 5.7 A 11
A. E-75’s control man is on the stairs leading to the second floor helping to feed line to E-75’s
nozzle team who are extinguishing the fire.
B. L-33’s O/V is in the bucket and can see his officer through the window on the second floor.
C. E-43’s ECC is down the block hooking up to a hydrant, even there are no lines stretched
off of E-43’s rig. He is communicating to his officer via H/T.
D. L-46’s LCC is on the pedestal of L-46 for overall safety and control at the front of the
building. He can’t see or hear his officer who is operating on the floor above the fire.
E. L-33’s irons man is searching the deadman's room in a heavy smoke condition. He can’t
see his officer but can hear him.
F. E-43’s control man is out in the street helping feed the 2nd hoseline up to the 3rd floor to
extinguish some extension. His officer is on the 3rd floor and can’t see or hear him.

8. A, B, E, F

9

9. Fire 1: After arriving at a fire on the top floor of a 3 story brownstone type rowframe the
inside team of L-99 has located the fire in the living room in the rear of the building. The inside
team is heavily engaged since there is a lot of clutter in the apartment and has not made it to the
front bedrooms for VEIS. The LCC has raised the aerial to the roof and the roof firefighter
completed his size and told the LCC that there is no need for a rear rescue. The LCC then placed
the aerial to the top floor and immediately vented the windows on the top floor to conduct a
search of the front bedrooms since the inside team had not “made the front rooms”. The LCC
notified his officer that the search was complete and negative.
Fire 2: Later on that day L-99 operated at a fire on the 2nd floor of a 4 story old law
tenement type rowframe. The LCC raised the aerial to the roof and the roof FF ascended to the
roof via the aerial. After the roof FF was on the roof the LCC repositioned the aerial to the fire
apartment for VEIS and teamed up with the 2nd LCC. After VEIS of the 2nd floor apartment was
complete the aerial was used for VEIS of the adjoining apartment on the 2nd floor and the floors
above. At which fire(s) did the LCC of L-99 operate correctly? 5.7 D
A. Both
B. Neither
C. Fire 1
D. Fire 2

9. B

Check to see why

10

10. Which action taken by the members listed below was incorrect when operating at a fire on
the 3rd floor of a 4 story brownstone type rowframe? 5.7 E, F
A. The 1st due O/V notified the IC when he determined that a laddering operation was
practical to rescue a victim in the rear. He also determined what size ladder was needed and
determined the most accessible route.
B. The 1st due roof FF got to the roof via exposure 2 since the aerial had to be used to rescue a
victim and the 2nd due aerial had not yet arrived.
C. The 1st due roof FF notified his officer that he was in position to perform ventilation tactics
but did not initiate them until directed by his officer.
D. The 1st due O/V carried a 6’ hook, halligan tool, flashlight, and a handie talkie. If this was
a top floor fire he would have taken a saw but left the 6’ hook.

10. B

D. The immediate adjoining building should not be used for access
to the roof due to the possibility of cockloft involvement.

11

11. Members of L-100 are operating at a fire on the 4th floor of a 4 story OLT type rowframe.
L-100 is the 2nd truck and each member took the following actions listed below. Which member
was incorrect in his actions? 5.8
A. After the LCC of L-100 was no longer needed at the aerial ladder or for other laddering
operations at the front of the building went into exposure 2 as directed by her officer to VEIS the
top floor and check the cockloft for extension.
B. The O/V of L-100 carried the 6’ hook, halligan tool, a flashlight, and a H/T and operated
from the rear fire escape as per Ladders 3 performing VEIS of the top floor. He also teamed up
with the 1st O/V.
C. The Inside team on L-100 operated on the top floor of the fire building in the adjacent
apartment for VEIS of that apartment. They also examined the cockloft for extension.
D. The roof FF of L-100 carried a 6’ halligan hook, halligan, and a lifesaving rope. He
assisted in ventilation of the roof of the fire building and the necessary exposures. He opened
returns remote from the fire in order to help vent the cockloft and prevent lateral fire extension in
the cockloft.

11. D

ROOF FIREFIGHTER (Second Arriving Ladder - Top Floor Fire)
TOOLS: Saw
6’ halligan hook
POSITION: Roof of fire building

12

12. The incorrect action taken by members of L-99 operating as the 2nd due truck for a top floor
fire of a brownstone type rowframe can be found in which choice? 5.8.1
A. The can FF took two 6’ hooks and left the can on the rig. The 2nd hook was used by the
irons FF to pull ceilings after his other duties were completed.
B. Inspection holes were made in each room to check for fire extension in the cockloft.
C. When fire was observed in the cockloft the IC was notified and the entire ceiling was
pulled while a hoseline was being stretched to the top floor.
D. When it was determined a stop could not be made in this building, they moved to additional
exposures to determine the boundaries of the fire spread.

12. C

13

13. E-16 is operating at a fire in a rowframe where there is extension to the exposures via the
cockloft. E-16 has been ordered to stretch a hoseline to the top floor of an exposure for the
purpose of extinguishing the fire in the cockloft. The officer of E-16 grabbed a 6’ hook and took
it to the top floor of the exposure where E-16 will operate. Do you agree or disagree with the
officer’s action? 6.1 C
A. Agree or D. Disagree

13. A

C. An engine company, ordered to stretch a hoseline to the top floor of an exposure
for purposes of extinguishing the fire in the cockloft, should take a six-foot hook
to pull ceilings.

14

14. All hands are operating at a basement fire at a brownstone type row frame building. The
fire has control of the first floor. The first engine company on the scene should stretch the first
hoseline to what location? 6.3
A. The 1st line should be stretched to the parlor floor via the exterior stoop to protect the
second floor and prevent the upward spread of the fire.
B. The 1st line should be stretched as per the incident commander after his assessment of
conditions.
C. The 1st line should be stretched through the front door on the first floor to extinguish the
fire.
D. The 2nd line will extinguish a fire of this type and location in all instances.

14. C

6.3 Fire on First Floor
A. First hoseline
The first hoseline should be stretched to the location of the fire.

15

15. When a rowframe building is fully involved with fire in the exposures it is referred to as a
holding operation. Please choose an incorrect action regarding operations at a recent rowframe
fire where the original fire building was fully involved and there was fire in both exposures 2 and
4. 6.5
A. The first hoseline was stretched through the front door of the fire building.
B. The 1st due engine dropped two 1 ¾” lines since the hydrant was about 100’ down the
block and it was obvious there was extension to the exposures.
C. The second line was not need to back up the 1st hoseline so it was stretched to the top floor
of the most severe exposure.
D. The third hoseline was stretched to the top floor of the opposite exposure. While
proceeding to the top floor the intermediate floors were checked for fire.

15. B

6.5 Building Fully Involved and Fire in Exposures-Holding Operation
When a building is fully involved with fire showing in exposure(s) the first arriving
engine company should stretch one 3 ½" supply line for a tower ladder, and a hoseline for
entering the building. Prior to the use of the TL stream, multiversal nozzle on the
pumper, or heavy caliber stream, consideration must be given to the life hazard and the
need for advancement of an interior hoseline.
A. First hoseline
The first hoseline is stretched into the fire building through the front door.
B. Second hoseline
The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, is stretched to the
top floor of the most severe exposure. This hoseline will be needed to protect the
cockloft, and interior shafts. While proceeding to top floor check intermediate
floors for fire.

C. Third hoseline
If the second hoseline is needed to back up the first hoseline, the third hoseline is
stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure. If the second hoseline is
stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure, the third hoseline is
stretched to the top floor of the opposite exposure. This hoseline will be needed
to protect the cockloft, and interior shafts. While proceeding to top floor check
intermediate floors for fire.
D. Fourth hoseline
Stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander.

16

16. Lt. Smith has arrived at a fire in a vacant rowframe. The vacant building is in the middle
of the block and all of the other buildings on that block are occupied row frames. Which hose
line listed below would Lt. Smith expect to not enter the original fire building (the vacant)?
6.7.A
A. The 1st hoseline
B. The 2nd hoseline
C. The 3rd hoseline
D. None of them

16. A

6.7 Vacant Buildings
These buildings are generally vacant due to previous fires. It can be anticipated that they
have sustained heavy structural damage.
A. Vacant Buildings in a Row of Occupied Frames
1 The first to arrive engine company should drop two hoselines: one a 3 ½"
line to supply a TL, and a hoseline to enter the most severe exposure.
2. First hoseline
First hoseline is stretched to most severe exposure.
3. Second hoseline
If not needed to back up the first hoseline, shall be stretched to the fire
building or to the opposite exposure.
4. Third hoseline
Stretched to the fire building or to the opposite exposure, depending on
where the second hoseline was stretched.
5. Fourth hoseline
As ordered by the Incident Commander.
6. Occupied exposures should be given the first consideration and all
operations should be in that direction.
7. A heavy fire requires the use of one or more tower ladders. Hoselines
should be laid by engine companies with this in mind.

17

17. Lt. Smith has arrived at a fire in row of vacant Rowframes. All the buildings on the block
are vacant and unoccupied. The fire started in the middle building of the row of Vacants. Which
hoseline listed below will eventually enter the original fire building? 6.7 B
A. The 1st hoseline
B. The 2nd hoseline
C. None of them

17. C

B. Vacant Building(s) in a Row
1. The first to arrive engine company stretches a 3 ½" hoseline to supply a
tower ladder, and stretches a hoseline for use on the exterior of the
building. If necessary, the first engine company can position the apparatus
to use the multiversal nozzle. In line pumping should be given
consideration in this type of situation.
2. First hoseline
Initially operate from the exterior until the tower ladder, multiversal, or a
heavy caliber stream can be placed into operation. The hoseline is then
stretched into the most severe exposure.
3. Second hoseline
If not needed to back up the first hoseline, stretched to the opposite
exposure or through an exposure to the rear yard.
4. Additional hoselines
As directed by the Incident Commander.

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PART II – COMMUNICATIONS CH. #2 & 3:
1. Which point about the voice alarm is the only correct one? 3.1, 3.1.1 A 2, 3.1.2,
3.1.3 B 2 note
A. The voice alarm can be used to communicate between line units.
B. A member can transmit a calling signal by depressing and holding the push to talk button
on the hand set.
C. Verbal acknowledgements to dispatchers’ messages from the voice alarm can be made
using the acknowledge button on the console.
D. If a unit fails to acknowledge a teleprinter dispatch message within 20 seconds the
dispatcher will request an acknowledgement via the voice alarm.

1. D

The Voice Alarm cannot be used to
communicate between line units

3.1.2 Unit's Transmission Procedures
A member transmits a calling signal by depressing and releasing the "push to talk"
button on the handset. (See Figure 3-2) When the dispatcher acknowledges, the
member depresses the "push to talk" button on the handset and proceeds with the
message, releasing the button when finished.

2. Verbal acknowledgements to dispatcher messages are made by using
the "push to talk" button on the handset of the Voice Alarm unit.
Note: The “acknowledge” button on the console shall not be used
for this purpose.

19

2. Members shall promptly report any problems with voice alarm equipment to the company
officer. Company Officers shall notify who of any problems with the voice alarm or if the test of
the voice alarm is not received in quarters? 3.1.4
A. Starfire
B. Supervising Dispatcher
C. HELP Desk
D. Computer Desk

2. B

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3. While teaching the new proby how to perform the “watch”, members of E-99 made the
following points and were incorrect in which one? Comm Ch. 2 2.2.2, 2.2.4 C, 2.2.6 B
A. All units in the same quarters can make themselves AQ simultaneously unless units
responded to different boxes, unit(s) did not go 10-8, or one unit is a relocated unit.
B. The verbal button should be used only if the alarm is within three blocks of a unit’s
quarters in any direction.
C. If a unit is relocated, all acknowledgements from the relocated unit must be done
independently from other units in quarters that are not relocated.
D. The ACT’G button can only be used by the first relocator into the original unit.

3. B

C. The VERBAL button should be used only if the alarm is within
two blocks of a unit's quarters in any direction. If the alarm is more
than two blocks away, the unit should respond and give information
and location via radio.

B. Acknowledgments and status updates involving relocated units must be
done independently. For example, Box 2185 is received in quarters of
E60, L17 and BC14. The following would indicate that a relocated
Engine, Ladder and Battalion Chief are responding.
EXAMPLE: ACT'G E060 10-4 SEND
(immediately followed by)
ACT'G L017 10-4 SEND
(immediately followed by)
ACT'G BC14 10-4 SEND
Note: The ACT'G button can only be used by the first relocator into the
original unit. If subsequent relocations are made into that unit, the ACT'G
button can no longer be used. Thereafter acknowledgments and status
reports must be done via Voice Alarm, radio or telephone.

21

4. Units scheduled for non-emergency activities away from quarters must wait for a response
message before leaving quarters. After receiving a non-emergency response to report to
Randall’s Island for training FF Smith acknowledged the message by pressing the 10-4 button.
He then pressed the 10-8 button when the unit was getting ready to leave quarters. Do you agree
or disagree with FF Smiths actions? 2.2.10 A / B
A. Agree or D. Disagree

4. D

22

5. While working a night tour in downtown Manhattan Lt. Carter hears a message over the
voice alarm at 2130 hours stating that “Fallback Step 3” has been implemented in the borough of
Manhattan since there is a 3rd alarm in Midtown and another 3rd alarm up in Washington Heights.
Lt. Carter should know which point below is correct concerning fallback procedures?
A. Fallback step 3 includes fallback steps 1 and 2. If there is no contact there will be no
response to an ERS box during fallback step 3.
B. Fallback step 3 does not include steps 1 and 2. If there is no contact from an ERS box one
Engine Company will be dispatched.
C. Fallback step 3 includes fallback steps 1 and 2. If there is a report of a structural fire the
response will be 3 Engines, 2 Trucks, and a Battalion Chief.
D. Fallback step 3 does not include steps 1 and 2. If there is a report of a structural fire the
response will be 1 Engine, 1 Truck, and a Battalion Chief.

5. A

FALLBACK STEP 1......................Policy "no contact, no response" for ERS boxes.
Normally occurs between 0800 and 2300 hours.
FALLBACK STEP 2......................Includes Step 1. One engine company is dispatched
to all electromechanical boxes.
FALLBACK STEP 3......................Includes Steps 1 & 2. All reported structural fires
receive one engine, one ladder and a battalion chief.

23

6. The alarm teleprinter/selector panel requires minimal maintenance to ensure that it is in
proper working order. Which point below regarding the maintenance procedures is not correct?
2.6
A. The PC/ATS shall be clear of all obstructions. Do not place coffee cups or magazines on
or near the PC/ATS.
B. On the first of every month the teleprinter emergency power system shall be examined and
tested in accordance with instructions contained on the decal affixed to the front panel.
C. Each unit shall maintain at least 3 spare rolls of teleprinter paper in the company office.
Spare paper rolls can be obtained by calling the administrative division.
D. The user should visibly determine that each light works as specific buttons are depressed.
Failure of any light is an indication of trouble and requires servicing.

6. C

Each unit shall maintain at least two spare rolls of teleprinter paper in the
company office. Spare paper rolls may be secured at Battalion headquarters.
Units in need of teleprinter paper should contact their respective battalion.
Battalions shall obtain teleprinter paper from their respective Division.
Scheduled deliveries are made to all Divisions. In the event a Division's supply
should run low before the scheduled delivery is made, Starfire Operations should
be notified and an emergency supply of teleprinter paper will be provided.

24

7. While responding to a class 3 alarm, the proby looks at the screen in the cab and sees the
following numbers: (3-342-42). The proby asks the senior firefighter what does the #342 mean.
The senior firefighter should tell him? 2.4.1 E
A. It is the box #. C. It is the terminal #.
B. It indicates a private fire alarm box. D. It is the height of the building in feet.

7. A

Line 3. Initial signal 3 indicates a private fire alarm box; 342 is the box
number and 42 is the terminal number which designates a specific area
within the building.

25

In order to answer questions 8 thru 14 you will do so based on the paragraph below.
Units are designated by the following letter suffix when assigned a specific task at an incident.
Next to each company listed below is a suffix, please fill in the blank as to what specific task
each unit has been designated. (Page 37)
8. E295D ____________

8. Decon

26

In order to answer questions 8 thru 14 you will do so based on the paragraph below.
Units are designated by the following letter suffix when assigned a specific task at an incident.
Next to each company listed below is a suffix, please fill in the blank as to what specific task
each unit has been designated. (Page 37)

9. E016N ____________

9. HRN

27

In order to answer questions 8 thru 14 you will do so based on the paragraph below.
Units are designated by the following letter suffix when assigned a specific task at an incident.
Next to each company listed below is a suffix, please fill in the blank as to what specific task
each unit has been designated. (Page 37)

10. E075P ____________

10. High Pressure

28

In order to answer questions 8 thru 14 you will do so based on the paragraph below.
Units are designated by the following letter suffix when assigned a specific task at an incident.
Next to each company listed below is a suffix, please fill in the blank as to what specific task
each unit has been designated. (Page 37)

11. E282F ____________

11. Fast

29

In order to answer questions 8 thru 14 you will do so based on the paragraph below.
Units are designated by the following letter suffix when assigned a specific task at an incident.
Next to each company listed below is a suffix, please fill in the blank as to what specific task
each unit has been designated. (Page 37)

12. L144S ____________

12. SSL

30

In order to answer questions 8 thru 14 you will do so based on the paragraph below.
Units are designated by the following letter suffix when assigned a specific task at an incident.
Next to each company listed below is a suffix, please fill in the blank as to what specific task
each unit has been designated. (Page 37)

13. L007H ____________

13. HRRT

31

In order to answer questions 8 thru 14 you will do so based on the paragraph below.
Units are designated by the following letter suffix when assigned a specific task at an incident.
Next to each company listed below is a suffix, please fill in the blank as to what specific task
each unit has been designated. (Page 37)

14. L033C ____________

14. CPC

32

PART III – AUCs 331 & 332:
1. Cellular phone sites consist of four major components. Which description of these
components listed below is incorrect? AUC 331 2.1
A. The base station is a computer that processes the radio signals being received by the
receptor antenna. It translates the radio signals into data and forwards the information to the
person being called via the transmitter antennas.
B. The primary electrical power for a cellular communications station is generally between 50
and 200 volts. This will be part of the buildings main electrical service.
C. Coaxial cable is used to supply the RF signal from the base station to the radio antenna.
Coaxial radio frequency cable is waterproof and carries only a small amount (3 to 4 watts) of
electrical current.
D. Backup power will consist of batteries, diesel generator, or natural gas generator or a
combination of battery and generator. There are multiple transmitting and receiving antennas on
the upper portion of the building.

1. B

2. The primary electrical power for a cellular communications station is
generally between 50 and 200 amps AC. This will be separate from the
building service. The secondary backup power will consist of batteries, diesel
generator, or natural gas generator or a combination of battery and generator.

33

2. Members of a study group were discussing firefighting operational tactics regarding cell
phone sites. Which point made below is not entirely correct? AUC 331 6
A. Special call an additional engine and truck for a fire reported in these buildings. If the cell
site is involved insure a tower ladder response on the initial alarm.
B. Consider stretching a hand line to the roof at upper floor fires. This hand line can be used
to maintain egress routes and cool supporting I beams.
C. Ladder companies should consider utilizing portable dry chemical extinguishers at
incipient fires. Restrict the use of water and metal tools at these operations.
D. Establish a collapse zone beneath parapets where antennas and installation equipment are
located. At night time operations insure sufficient lighting at the roof level.

2. A

6.3 Special call an additional engine and ladder company, if the cell site installation is
involved. These additional units could be used for power removal, roof operations and
handline placement.

6.4 Insure tower ladder response on the initial alarm for a reported fire in these buildings.

34

3. Lt. Darling told his members during a drill on cell sites that members should not operate
directly in front of cell site antennas; they avoid contact with antennas, refrain from prolonged
activity in close proximity to the cell site antennas, and should stay at least 2’ away from a
transmitting antenna. You would be most correct to agree or disagree with Lt. Darling?
(AUC 331 6.15, 5.6 and Comm 12 2.9)
A. Agree or D. Disagree

3. D

35

4. A group of Lieutenants studying for the upcoming captain’s exam were discussing
administrative procedures regarding cell sites. Which point below is not correct?
(AUC 331 4, BISP CH5 ref 7.1 section 3.6)
A. The administrative company must notify their battalion, division, and all first alarm units
via telephone followed by a written memo. The administrative company must perform an on-site
inspection and evaluate the cell site.
B. Transmitting antennas shall be identified by affixing to the antenna, the antenna mounting,
or a conspicuous location near the antenna, continuous, durable, and weather proof reflective or
luminescent markings and 3 inch lettering the reads TRANSMITTER.
C. A durable sign shall be conspicuously posted on or near any equipment closet, roof base
station or similar telecommunications antenna installation, identifying the owner of the
installation, providing a 24 hour 7 day per week telephone number by which the owner can be
contacted.
D. A CIDS card should be completed and contain the following information: the location of
the cell site room, location of the shut offs, the main power supply location, and the emergency
number of the utility company.

4. D

4.3 Administrative company should complete and submit a CIDS card and forward it to their
battalion fire prevention coordinator. CIDS card should specify the location of the cell
site room, backup power supply location, shut offs, and emergency telephone number of
the cellular phone company.

36

5. The antennas from a cell site may not extend higher than _ feet above the height of the roof
or parapet on the roof or above any penthouse or bulkhead, if placed on such penthouse or
bulkhead. AUC 331 3.2
A. 10’
B. 4’
C. 6’
D. 8’

5. C

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6. All of the following safety precautions listed below are correct except? AUC 331 5
A. Do not cut or dislodge coaxial cable or antenna grounds unless absolutely necessary and
approval is granted by the IC.
B. Operate from the exterior of a cell site room if at all possible. Use caution near batteries
since terminal covers are easily dislodged.
C. Identify all utility and power supply shut offs. Identify the locations of all backup power
supplies.
D. The roof mounted generator support system adds a dead load to the parapets. Evaluate
parapet walls for structural deficiencies.

6. A

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7. Captain Hernandez and Lt. Carter are operating at a car accident on a residential street.
While FDNY members are in the process of taking up a member of the press approaches Capt.
Hernandez and inquires about the accident. Capt. Hernandez should know that he can?
(AUC 332 3.1, 3.14)
A. Not answer any questions and must refer the press to the Office of Public Information.
B. Answer questions since he is the incident commander without any limitations as to what
information he gives out.
C. Answer questions since he is the incident commander but must only give non confidential
information such as what happened, how many patients, and what hospital patients were
transported to.

7. C

3.4.3 If no supervisor is present on-scene and if a press inquiry does not interfere with
Department operations, members may respond to press inquiries only for the
following non-confidential information:
A. Type of incident or event;
B. Number of patients or victims, if known; and
C. The hospital(s) to which the patient(s) or victim(s) are being transported.
Members shall not discuss the condition of patient(s) or victim(s), the care
provided or other confidential information indicated in Section 3.3.

39

8. In regards to the question above, after Captain Hernandez speaks to the press he must
notify who as soon as practicable? AUC 332 3.4.4
A. The Battalion Chief on Duty in his Battalion.
B. The Deputy Chief on duty in his Division.
C. The Command Chief via the chain of command.
D. The Chief of Operations via the chain of command.

8. A

3.4.4 Any member who responds to a press inquiry described in Section 3.4.3 must
notify his or her immediate supervisor as soon as practicable. The supervisor
shall notify the Office of Public Information of the press inquiry.

40

9. All members are prohibited from making statements that are disruptive to the operations of
the department, or that would disclose confidential information. Which of the following are
considered confidential information: AUC 332 3.3.1
1. Non final department policies
2. Investigations
3. Legal proceedings
4. Security proceedings
5. Medical information
6. Other information protected from disclosure by law
A. All
B. 1, 3, 4, 6
C. None
D. 2, 3, 4, 5
E. 3, 4, 5, 6

9. A

41

PART IV – TB – ELEVATORS :
1. All of the following situations would be considered elevator emergencies except which
one? 2.4.1, 2.4.2
A. A stuck elevator with trapped passengers.
B. An elevator car with passengers that is stuck with a small fire in the fluorescent light
fixture of the elevator car.
C. An elevator that is stalled between floors with a person who suffered a broken finger when
the elevator suddenly stopped.
D. A stuck elevator car with 5 people inside and are starting to panic since they can’t escape.

1. A

2.4.1 INCIDENT:
A stuck elevator with trapped passengers not in immediate danger and no
evidence of injury.
Note: Conditions must be constantly monitored, an INCIDENT may escalate to
an EMERGENCY.

2.4.2 EMERGENCY:
A situation where one or more of the following exist:
A. Fire endangering passengers in a stuck elevator.
B. Passenger of stuck elevator injured.
C. Passenger of stuck elevator in panic.

42

2. Elevators are complex machines which due to lack of maintenance and improper use may
develop problems over time. Problems arise from defective or non-functioning electrical or
mechanical devices and equipment. Which problem listed below is the most frequent cause of
elevator malfunction? 3.1
A. Lack of maintenance
B. Mechanical problems
C. Electrical problems
D. Overloading of the elevator car

2. C

3.1.1 Electrical problems are the most frequent cause of elevator malfunction.
A. Common causes of electrical problems:
1. Car or hoistway door contacts open.
2. Blown fuses.
3. Shorting of electrical cables.
B. When an electrical problem occurs the following can be expected:
1. Elevator cars will be suspended on the hoistway cables.
2. Elevator brake will be applied in the hold position.

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3. Members of L-101 arrive at a stuck elevator in a 10 story multiple dwelling. There is only
one elevator in the building and it serves all 10 floors including the basement. There is an
elevator machinery room on the roof of the building. L-101 has no information other than the
fact that there is a stuck elevator inside the building. Which action taken by the members of L-
101 was incorrect while trying to locate the elevator? 3.2.1, 3.2.2
A. If available use the intercom or telephone system of the stuck car. Passengers may be able
to give their approximate location. Check the floor indicator on the lobby control panel.
B. If the hoist way door has a glass panel, check the shaft before opening the door. Look for
the governor ropes and counterweight. The governor rope is generally located on either side near
one of the far corners of the shaft.
C. Use the floor selector in the machinery room. It indicates the exact location of the elevator
car.
D. If the counterweight is located at the 4th floor the elevator car will be found on the 5th floor.

3. D

D. The location of the counterweight can be used to approximate the position
of the car. For example, in a 6 story building where the elevator serves
the basement, if the counterweight is on the 1st floor, the stalled car would
be at the 5th. The counterweight can be located by viewing through the
wire glass door panel or by opening a hoistway door.

44

4. Primary removal procedures are simple approaches performed without turning off the
electrical power. There are two types of primary removal procedures, checking the electrical
contacts and the fireman service feature. Which statement below is correct regarding primary
removal procedures? 3.3
A. The order of preference during primary removal procedures is to first check the electrical
contacts and if that does not work then try the fireman service feature.
B. During primary removal procedures, when activating the fireman service feature, the
fireman service will not override the emergency stop button.
C. Fireman service should be deactivated when the car responds by returning to the lobby or if
it is clear that the car is not responding.
D. Summon an elevator mechanic if primary removal procedures fail. Secondary removal
procedures may not be initiated prior to the arrival of the mechanic.

4. C

3.3 Primary Removal Procedures
Primary removal procedures are simple approaches performed without turning off the
elevator power.
There are two types of primary removal procedures. The order in which they are tried is
not important. Try all if necessary.

3.3.1 Checking Electrical Contacts.
The first type of primary removal procedures checks whether simple electrical
contacts might have been broken. However, if the passengers have activated the
Emergency Stop Button, these methods will not work. The passengers must be
instructed to deactivate the Emergency Stop Button.
A. Have a passenger press Door Open Button. If the car is level with the
landing this may open both the car and hoistway door.
B. Press lobby call button.
C. Instruct passengers to insure the car door is fully closed. Have a person
push the door towards the closed position.
D. Have members physically close all hoistway doors on the shaft. Air
movement in shaft may have opened an interlock cutting power to the car.
Check the hoistway doors in the vicinity of the stuck car first.
3.3.2 Firemen Service.
The second type of primary removal procedure is activating Firemen Service if
available. Firemen Service will over ride the Emergency Stop Button.
A. Activate Firemen Service - Phase I. The stuck elevator may return to the
main lobby or sky lobby and open its doors.
B. Firemen Service should be deactivated when the car responds by returning
to the lobby or if it's clear that the car isn't responding.

45

5. The telephone number of an elevator mechanic is required to be posted in the vicinity of
the elevator lobby. The elevator mechanics phone number is often posted in the elevator
machinery room near the elevator power switch. You should agree or disagree with the above
statements? 3.4.1, 6.4.5
A. Agree or D. Disagree

5. D

3.4.1 Telephone number of the mechanic is required to be posted in the machinery
room near the elevator power switch.

Many high-rise buildings have these men on twenty-four hour call, and
phone numbers must be posted in the elevator machinery room, and are often
posted in the vicinity of the elevator lobby.

46

6. While discussing power removal procedures during drill members of L-100 made the
following statements. Which is the only correct statement? 3.5.1
A. The elevator machinery room may be located at the top of the shaft, the bottom of the shaft,
or one level above the highest floor serviced by the elevator.
B. Members should be equipped with a handie talkie and forcible entry tools. Immediately
upon arrival in the elevator machinery room shut the power to the stalled elevator car.
C. After members shut power to the elevator they may leave the elevator machinery room to
complete other required duties.
D. Each elevator is controlled by its own power switch. If any doubt exists as to which power
switch controls which elevator open as many elevator power switches as required to insure a safe
operation.

6. D

3.5.1 Power Removal
Whenever Secondary or Emergency Removal Procedures are used, power
removal is essential. Dispatch two members to the elevator machinery room to
shut off the power to the stalled car. The machinery room may be located at the
top of the shaft, at the bottom of the shaft or two levels above the highest floor
serviced by the elevator.

2. Shut off power to the stalled car when directed. Each elevator is controlled
by its own power switch. Elevator power switch boxes and motors are
required to be labeled in a manner which relates motor to switch. (Ex.
Switch #1, Motor #1)
a. If any doubt exists, open as many elevator power switches as
required to insure a safe operation. Allow passengers to exit a
serviceable car before removing power.
3. Remain at the power switch throughout the operation to insure the power
is not restored.

47

7. Lt. Verbanstra is a newly promoted Lieutenant working his first day tour in L-26. Lt.
Verbanstra was promoted out of an Engine Co. in an area with mostly private dwellings and does
not have much experience with elevators. Lucky for him the members of L-26 are very
experienced in dealing with all types of elevator emergencies. While operating at a stuck
elevator Lt. Verbanstra made the following statements during secondary removal procedures at a
stuck elevator. Which is the only correct one? 3.6, 3.7.2 B 9
A. If the elevator has a two speed system, commonly found in buildings over 15 stories have
members in the elevator shut off the power and then turn it back on. If the car is to restart it will
do so within 30 seconds.
B. The only time members will ever restore power to an elevator car at any operation is when
the elevator has a two speed system. If the procedure fails to restart the elevator car the power
must be shut off.
C. When using the poling method the member in the adjacent car inserts a pole or a hook
between the striking post and the hoist way door and trips the lock.
D. When using the poling method if a hinge type door is found members should push up on
the locking arm. If sliding type elevator doors are found members should depress the roller.

7. C

3.6.3 If the elevator has a two speed system, commonly found in buildings over 10
stories, the following procedure may work:
A. If Emergency Stop Button has been activated have passengers deactivate
it.
B. Have members in elevator machinery room shut power to the stuck car
and turn it on again.

Note: This is the only circumstance in which the elevator power may be restored
by members of this department. If this procedure fails, power must be
shut off and members are not to restore power after completion of
operations.
C. If the car is to restart it will do so within 10 seconds.

D. Member in the adjacent car inserts pole or hook between the striking post
and the hoistway door and trips the lock by either depressing the roller or
pushing on the locking arm.
1. Hinge type door - Depress the roller.
2. Sliding type door - push up on locking arm.

48

8. Emergency removal procedures may only be used during an emergency or when directly
advised by an elevator mechanic. Which procedure regarding top hatch removal is incorrect?
(3.7.2 A)
A. Open a hoist way door or access panel on the floor above the stuck car. Provide adequate
lighting and only allow a maximum of 2 firefighters on the roof of an elevator car.
B. When lowering a portable ladder to the elevator roof use straight ladder if possible. If an
extension ladder is used tie the halyard around the rungs of both sections of the ladder.
C. All members working in the shaft are to be secured with a lifesaving rope. A small
portable ladder will be lowered into the elevator when the top hatch is opened.
D. Both members, equipped with handie talkies, will enter the elevator car and these members
will determine the order of removal of the stuck passengers. Each person must be secured with a
lifesaving rope.

8. D

8. One member equipped with a handie talkie enters car. Member in the car
must determine the order of removal. Secure each person with a life
saving rope.

49

9. Units are operating at a stuck occupied elevator where the side exit door is going to be used
to remove the passengers. Members should know that the stuck elevator must be within _____
feet of the adjoining cars side door and that planks of _____ feet or longer should be used as a
bridge between cars. 3.7.2 B 6, 7.3.3 E
A. 3 / 6
B. 2 / 4
C. 4 / 8
D. 4 / 6

9. C

50

10. Upon completion of forcible entry operations at a stuck elevator which of the following
personnel would be responsible for warning people of the danger of an unsecured hoist way
door? (More than one correct) 3.7.3
1. Police
2. Maintenance personnel
3. Security
4. Floor wardens
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. All
D. None
E. 2 and 3

10. A

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11. If unit encounters a hinged type door where forcible entry procedures are going to be
employed they should knock out the glass panel if present or breach the hoist way shaft above
the hoist way door and then push down the roller. The roller will be located? 3.7.3 A 1
A. On the same side of the hinges on the shaft wall.
B. On the opposite side of the hinges on the shaft wall.

11. B

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12. Which method used on sliding type elevator doors during forcible entry procedures is the
preferred forcible entry method? 3.7.3 B 1
A. Rabbit Tool
B. Forcible Entry Tools
C. Air Bags
D. Hydra Ram

12. C

B. Slide type door.
1. Maxi Force Air Bag System.
This is the preferred forcible entry method. It is less likely than the others
to push the door off its hangers or out of its track.

53

13. After concluding operations at an incident where a person fell into a walk in pit, members
made the following statements about operations at walk in pits. Which statement below is
incorrect? 4.2.2
A. Power should be shut off using the elevator power switch and entrance to the pit is made
via the pit door.
B. The door to the walk in pit is not required to have an interlock switch.
C. The door to the walk in pit is opened by a regular key. Emergency elevator keys are not
usable.
D. Under no circumstances shall entry into a walk in pit be made before the power to the
elevator car is shut off.

13. D

D. In an EXTREME EMERGENCY (immediate action necessary to save
life) entry to a Walk in Pit before the elevator power switch is off may be
made using the following precautions:

54

14. After arriving at an EMS run in a 15 story building, Capt. Leftus and his members from E-
16 see an FDNY ambulance parked in front of the building. Capt. Leftus tells his members that
the EMS command has been issued FDNY 1620 keys for use of the fire service feature in
elevators. Upon entering the building Capt. Leftus notices the only elevator in the building has
been placed in fireman service prior to E-16’s arrival. Capt. Leftus should tell his _____
firefighter to contact EMS on the EMS/Fire interoperability frequency channel _____ to
coordinate elevator operations. (5, Communications Ch 11 add 5)
A. Back up / 10
B. Nozzle / 16
C. Control / 10
D. ECC / 16

14. A

55

15. A jump pit is usually ____ to ____ feet from the lowest landing to the base of the pit. A
walk in pit is usually ____ to ____ feet from the lowest landing to the base of the pit. Access to
a walk in pit is via a door located at the bottom of the shaft. This door is ___________ to have
an interlock switch. 4.1.1
A. 4 to 6 / 6 to 10 / Required
B. 2 to 3 / 6 to 8/ Not required
C. 4 to 6 / 6 to 10 / Not required
D. 2 to 3 / 6 to 8 / Required

15. C

56

16. Lower limit switches prevent the car from entering the pit. These switches will be found in
both jump and walk in pits. Buffers are devices used to stop the car from descending beyond the
normal limits of elevator travel and may be filled with combustible or inflammable liquid.
According to this bulletin these “buffers” will be found in? 4.2.1, 4.2.2
A. Walk in pits
B. Jump pits

16. A

C. If there is a fire in the pit, be cautious of the buffers (a device designed to
stop a descending elevator beyond the normal limits of travel), they may
be filled with combustible or inflammable liquid.

57

17. When looking at a fireman service lobby switch one may see the words normal, fireman
service, and door open. Sometimes the words listed above are abbreviated using the words off,
on, and DO. The word off is used as an abbreviation for the _________ position on the switch
plate? (Page 15 picture)
A. Door Open
B. Fireman Service
C. Normal
D. Hold

17. C

58

PART V – CFR-D Ch #2:
1. During a study group, a group of lieutenants were discussing CFR-D staffing among other
things. Which statement made during this study group was incorrect? 1.5, 1.6, 1.7, 1.8
A. In order to be in service as a CFR-D unit, there shall be a minimum of 2 firefighters and at
least 1 officer with current CFR-D certification.
B. Fire companies will provide CFR-D level care for all patients until the arrival of an EMS
Unit or other certified ambulance agency, with a higher level provider, and when assistance is no
longer needed, will go back in service.
C. Company Commanders shall assign CFR-D certified members to groups to ensure the
greatest likelihood that at least two (2) CFR-D qualified firefighters will report for duty on any
given tour.
D. Company Officers of CFR-D Units shall ensure that two (2) CFR-D Firefighters will be
working each tour. Officers shall notify their respective battalion for needed details prior to the
start of the tour.

1. A

1.5 Fire Companies will provide CFR-D level care for all patients until the arrival of an EMS
Unit or other certified ambulance agency, with a higher level provider, and when
assistance is no longer needed, will go back in service.
1.6 Company Commanders shall assign CFR-D certified members to groups that ensure the
greatest likelihood that at least two (2) CFR-D qualified Firefighters will report for duty
on any given tour.
1.7 Company Officers of CFR-D Units shall ensure that two (2) CFR-D Firefighters will be
working each tour. Officers shall notify their respective Battalion for needed details prior
to the start of the tour.
1.8 In order to be in service as a CFR-D Unit, there shall be a minimum of two (2) trained
members (Firefighters or Officer) with current CFR-D Certification.
NOTE: While CFR-D Units must begin each tour with two (2) certified Firefighters, in the
event that during a tour the minimum CFR-D staffing reduces to 1 Firefighter and 1
Officer, the Company shall remain available for CFR-D response.

59

2. At the start of each tour, the officer shall make out a riding list that includes each members
CFR-D assignment along with his or her firefighting assignment and riding position. Which
CFR-D assignment listed below is not entirely correct? 2.1
A. The firefighter designated as the “A” Airway firefighter is responsible for manually
stabilizing the patient’s spine (if trauma is suspected) while opening the airway, maintaining the
airway, and administering oxygen if needed. This firefighter should carry the oxygen bag.
B. The officer in charge is designated as the “B” Boss. The officer should carry a hand light
and a portable radio. The Boss is also responsible for completing the PCR.
C. The “C” Checker firefighter is responsible for conducting patient assessment and
performing any hands-on care. In response to a cardiac arrest, this firefighter checks the pulse
and begins compressions and shall carry the trauma bag.
D. The “E” Equipment firefighter should initially remain with the apparatus and help carry
any additional equipment needed. This would be the 5th firefighter if a CFR-D company is riding
with 5 firefighters.

2. B

2.1.1 “A” Airway – Firefighter responsible for manually stabilizing the patient’s spine
(if trauma is suspected) while opening the airway, maintaining the airway, and
administering oxygen if needed. In a response to a cardiac arrest, begins
ventilation. This firefighter should carry the oxygen bag.
2.1.2 “B” Boss – The Officer in Charge. The officer should carry a portable radio and a
handlight.
2.1.3 “C” Checker – Firefighter responsible for conducting the patient assessment and
performing any hands-on care. In response to a cardiac arrest, this Firefighter
checks pulse and begins compressions and shall carry the Trauma Bag.
2.1.4 “D” Defib/Documenter – Firefighter responsible for completing the Pre-Hospital
Care Report (PCR). In a response to a cardiac arrest, hooks up and operates the
defibrillator.
2.1.5 “E” Equipment – If a CFR-D Unit is riding with five firefighters, the fifth
firefighter should initially remain with the apparatus and help carry any additional
equipment needed.
2.1.6 The chauffeur or a non-CFR-D trained member remains with the apparatus.

60

3. Individuals may identify themselves as patients or may be identified to the company as
such by family, friends, or bystanders. Once an individual has been identified as a patient, the
company has the duty to evaluate, render the appropriate treatment, and generate a PCR. An
individual is considered a patient if: 3.9.1
1. The individual is sick
2. The individual is injured
3. The individual was exposed to a situation or condition that could have the potential to
cause injury
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. None
E. All

3. E

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4. E-99 arrives on the scene of an EMS run and finds a patient who is having difficulty
breathing. The members of E-99 should be guided by which choice below? 3.11, 3.12,
3.13, 3.14
A. When requesting an ambulance provide the CUPS status, sex, chief complaint, if CPR has
been initiated, and the pulse and respiratory rate. Since this patient is “potentially unstable”
perform the appropriate focused physical exam for the patient.
B. When requesting an ambulance provide the CUPS status, age, chief complaint, if CPR has
been initiated, and the pulse and respiratory rate. Since this patient is “unstable” perform the
appropriate focused physical exam for the patient.

4. B

3.11 When requesting an ambulance, Companies must provide the following information to
the dispatcher for relay to EMD:
3.11.1 CUPS Status
3.11.2 Age
3.11.4 Chief complaint
3.11.5 If CPR initiated
3.11.6 Pulse and respiratory rate
3.12 If the patient is CRITICAL or UNSTABLE, packaging efforts must begin immediately
while treating life threats. Immobilize to a spineboard if indicated.
3.13 If the patient is POTENTIALLY UNSTABLE or STABLE, perform the appropriate
focused physical exam for the patient.

62

5. E-99 has just operated at a CFR-D run where a patient had a broken ankle after getting hit
by a car. The patient was put on a back board, a cervical collar was placed on the patient, and
dressings were used to cover lacerations on the patient’s leg. None of the firefighters, their PPE,
or their equipment was contaminated at this incident. The firefighters will have to restock the
equipment that was left with the patient and the supplies that were expended. In this situation the
Officer of E-99 would be correct to: 3.16.1, 3.16.2
A. Place E-99 out of service for both fire duty and CFR-D runs.
B. Stay in service for both fire and CFR-D runs but immediately return to quarters to replace
equipment and supplies.
C. Notify the administrative Battalion Chief and be guided by his instructions.
D. Go back in service for fire duty but advise the dispatcher and the Battalion that E-99 is not
available for CFR-D responses.

5. D

3.16.2 If equipment has been left with the patient or supplies have been expended and
the Company does not have the minimum amount specified in Chapter 4 section
2.1, the Company is to go back in service for fire duty but advise the borough fire
dispatcher and the Battalion that it is not available for CFR-D responses. If this
occurs, the Company is to immediately return to quarters to replace equipment
and supplies, and notify the borough dispatcher when it is available for CFR-D
response.

63

6. E-100 is responding to an EMS run for a report of a child who is chocking. As they are
responding they are flagged down by a group of people who are standing around an elderly male
who appears to be unconscious and is lying on the ground. One of the civilians states that they
think that the elderly man had a heart attack. In this situation the officer of E-100 would be
correct to? 3.18
A. Continue to the original run since it is for a choking victim but immediately notify the
dispatcher of the second incident so that appropriate resources can be dispatched.
B. Make every attempt to make patient contact with the unconscious elderly male and notify
the dispatcher. If contact is made with the 2nd patient the company shall not leave the scene until
relieved by EMS.

6. B

3.18 If during a CFR-D response, a verbal alarm for an additional sick or injured person is
received, the Company shall make every attempt to make patient contact and notify the
dispatcher. If contact is made with the 2nd patient, the Company shall not leave the scene
until relieved by EMS or the patient leaves the scene as described in Section 4.
3.18.1 If the responding Company initiates patient care for another patient at the verbal
alarm, the Officer will notify the dispatcher and the fire dispatcher will send
appropriate resources to the original location. Similarly, when a Company is
unable to continue in to a CFR-D alarm due to reasons such as breakdown or
vehicular accident, an appropriate resource shall be dispatched if available.

64

7. If a patient’s whereabouts are not known, the responding company will make every effort
to ascertain the location of said individual. If after a complete search of the area in question, no
patient is found, there is a procedure that should be followed. Listed below are the three steps of
this procedure: 4.7
1. If after rechecking the information provided no patient is found the Officer in Charge
shall verify the information with the dispatcher.
2. After re-verification of the dispatch information, the responding company shall
attempt to contact neighbors, building superintendent, and/or security personnel.
3. The Officer in Charge shall review the response print out for additional information
as to incident location, cross street, dwelling or unit number, and any other pertinent
information provided by EMD or 911 comment section of the printout.
Please choose the correct order that these steps should be carried out.
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 1, 3
C. 3, 2, 1
D. 3, 1, 2

7. D

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8. Lt. Smith made the following four points during company drill on the topic of CFR-D.
Which is the only correct point? 4.10, 4.4, 4.9.1,
A. If a patient exhibiting altered mental status or appearing to be an emotionally disturbed
person (EDP) declines to accept treatment, the Officer in Charge should request police assistance
and remain on the scene until the police arrive.
B. When a patient refuses medical aid, a PCR must be completed. If the patient insists on
leaving the scene, the officer in charge shall notify the dispatcher and the unit shall go back in
service after the patient has left.
C. If after arrival at the scene of an EMS run where a patient has rigor mortis, obvious death,
dependent lividity, decomposition, or a valid DNR order a PCR will not be required.
D. Once on the scene, a CFR-D unit must transmit a signal 10-99 when the company officer
determines that the company will likely remain on the scene for 20 minutes or more.

8. B

NOTE: The CFR-D Unit must complete a Pre-Hospital Care Report even if the patient is
DOA, to document that the Company properly examined the patient to confirm that
the patient exhibited the criteria for obvious death.

4.9.1 When a patient refuses medical aid, a Pre-Hospital Care Report (PCR) must be
completed. If the patient insists on leaving the scene, the Officer in Charge
should notify the dispatcher and the Unit shall go back in service after the patient
has left.

4.10 If a patient exhibiting altered mental status or appearing to be an emotionally disturbed
person (EDP) declines to accept treatment, the Officer in Charge should request police
assistance and remain on the scene until the arrival of EMS.

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9. E-99 is operating at an EMS run for a person who having chest pains. After operating for
approximately 5 minutes an NYPD ESU unit arrives on the scene. The ESU cops are both
EMT’s and state that they wish to take over patient care. The officer of E-99 would be correct
take which action below? 4.13, 4.13.1
A. Do not release the patient to the ESU cops under any circumstances.
B. Only release the patient to the ESU cops if an FDNY EMS supervisor gives approval.
C. Release the patient to the ESU cops if the ESU cops have a SAED (semi-automatic external
defribulator).
D. Release the patient to ESU in all cases as they are trained to a higher level of care.

9. C

4.13 If a CFR-D Unit arrives on the scene of a medical emergency and NYPD Emergency
Service Unit (ESU) has already initiated patient care, the ESU EMTs retain responsibility
for patient care. The Office in Charge of the CFR-D Unit shall ascertain from ESU if any
further assistance is required from the CFR-D Unit. If no assistance is required, the
Officer in Charge shall transmit signal 10-91 and go 10-8. If assistance is required, the
ESU EMTs shall have medical authority at the scene until the arrival of an ambulance.
4.13.1 If ESU arrives on the scene of a medical emergency after the CFR-D Unit has
initiated patient care; the CFR-Ds should retain responsibility for patient care
until a transporting agency assumes responsibility of the patient. If the ESU
EMTs assumes the role of higher level pre-hospital care provider and assumes
responsibility for patient care, the Company shall release the patient to ESU.
However, if ESU is not equipped with a SAED, the CFR-D Unit shall retain
patient care responsibilities as per the Regional Coordination of Pre-hospital
Resources Protocol.
Note: A PCR is not required when a CFR-D Company is on-scene (10-84) at any
CFR-D assignment unless patient care is provided.

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10. According to the CFR-D manual the only vehicle used to transport patients shall be NYScertified
ambulances. You should agree or disagree with this statement? (4.17 C/R
Regs Ch11 11.3.34)
A. Agree or D. Disagree

10. A

4.17 As advised by the New York State Department of Health, under no circumstances shall
fire apparatus or vehicles other than NYS-certified ambulances be used to transport
patients.

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11. When operating at incidents where minors are involved there have been situations where
the parents of minors have refused to give permission to firefighters to treat the minor. All of the
following choices are correct except which one regarding the treatment of minors at CFR-D
incidents? 6.1.1
A. Where a minor is found to be suffering from a life threatening illness or injury, immediate
medical intervention must be provided, regardless of whether the parent/guardian is available or
refuses to give consent.
B. If a parent/guardian refuses to give permission for medical treatment for their minors,
treatment should nonetheless be provided whenever the minor is suffering from a life-threatening
injury of illness and it is apparent that a delay in treatment, even if minimal, would jeopardize
the minors life.
C. When a CFR-D unit suspects child abuse, the circumstances of the suspected abuse shall be
reported to the police department. The officer in charge shall make an entry in the company
journal upon return to quarters including the names of the police officers notified.
D. If an illness/injury is non urgent in nature, treatment should still be provided to a minor
unless the parent/guardian refuses to allow treatment. If permission to treat the minor is not
given by the parent/guardian members should carefully explain the reasons for treatment, notify
the dispatcher and have them notify EMS, and call FDNY EMS telemetry.

11. C

D. When the CFR-D Unit suspects child abuse, the circumstances of the
suspected abuse shall be reported to EMS personnel at the scene. The
Officer in Charge shall make an entry in the Company journal upon return
to quarters including the names of those notified and their Unit
designation.

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12. Do not resuscitate orders are described by the NYS DOH in the pre hospital setting as an
individual’s right to decline any or all life saving measures to be implemented to sustain life
when all respiratory or cardiac activity ceases. Which choice below is the only incorrect point
regarding DNR’s? 6.2.1
A. A DNR order is only an order not to perform cardio-pulmonary resuscitation (e.g., chest
compressions and artificial ventilation for a patient in cardiac arrest).
B. A DNR order is not a reason to withhold other treatments, such as supplemental oxygen.
C. If a signed order is presented, the CFR-D unit should follow it unless it has been revoked in
writing only.
D. The order must be a copy of the NYS Out of Hospital DNR form. The attending physician
must sign and date the form.

12. C

C. If a signed order is presented, the CFR-D Unit should follow it unless it has
been revoked verbally or in writing. Obtain the original DNR order and give
it to EMS upon their arrival.

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13. DNR’s issued by nursing homes do not have to be on a specific form and each facility may
have their own variation. A nursing home does not have to utilize the NYS Out of Hospital
DNR form. If presented with a DNR from a nursing home facility members should know that
the minimum requirement is? 6.2.3
A. Current date of issuance
B. Patients signature
C. Nursing home facilities official seal
D. Physicians signature

13. D

6.2.3 NYS law classifies nursing homes as a hospital with no distinctions to advanced
directives (e.g. DNRs). ). Do Not Resuscitate Orders issued by nursing homes do
not have to be on a specific form and each facility may have their own variation.
A nursing home does not have to utilize the New York State Out of Hospital
DNR form. The minimum requirement for a valid DNR is that the facility form
contains a physician’s signature. The DNR order remains in effect until it is
specifically revoked. If presented with a nursing home DNR order follow the
guidelines in Section 6.2.1.

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14. E-99 and L-100 are operating at an auto accident where 3 cars are involved on a quiet
residential street in Staten Island. Lt. Hernandez is working in E-99 and Captain Carter is
working in L-100. There is no BC assigned to the box since this was not a highway incident.
EMS Deputy Chief Orasco who is an EMT is also on the scene along with one FDNY BLS
Ambulance (EMT’s) and one ALS Ambulance (paramedics) from a volunteer ambulance corp.
in the neighborhood. At this incident ____ is/are in charge of all patient care matters and ___ is
the Incident Commander. 8.2 note, 8.4
A. DC Orasco/DC Orasco
B. The Paramedics/Lt Hernandez
C. The FDNY EMT’s/Capt. Carter
D. The Paramedics/Capt. Carter

14. D

NOTE: Whenever Units of the Bureau of Operations and the Emergency Medical Service
are operating at an incident, the ranking Fire Officer on the scene is the Incident
Commander.
8.3 The Incident Commander shall be responsible for all decisions at the scene with the
exception of patient care matters. CFR-D certified members, EMTs, and Paramedics
(including EMS Lieutenants, Captains and Chiefs) shall maintain responsibility for
patient care. It is the responsibility of the Incident Commander to evaluate the scene and
to provide for the safety of all patients and operating personnel.

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15. Members shall comply with all orders and directions of the IC concerning the safety of
operating personnel. However, a pre-hospital care provider receiving an order believed to be
detrimental to the patient’s condition, contrary to good patient care, or in violation of medical
protocols or agency policy shall inform the IC of such and continue providing appropriate patient
care. If the IC persists in giving such order(s), the pre hospital care provider is required to
prepare a report and forward, through the appropriate channels, a written statement to? 8.7
A. Office of Medical Affairs
B. The Chief of EMS
C. The Division Commander
D. The Chief Of Operations

15. A

Decks in Firetech Class (61):