Flashcards in OP - CLASS #6 - Week of 102014FFP – MD's sec. 6 – FP Ops, Comm. Man Ch. #11, TB – Tools #27 – end, Haz Mat #14, 16 & 17, Instructor Instincts Instructor BC Pat Sheridan Deck (65):
PART I – FFP – MD'S Sec. 6:
1. Choose the incorrect tactic taken at a High Rise Fireproof Multiple Dwelling fire. (HRFPMD) (Sec. 6.1)
(A) Whenever enclosed stairwells are encountered, doors to any and all evacuation stairs must be maintained closed on the fire floor.
(B) Prior to advancing to the reported fire floor, members must gather information from the floor below, or two floors below if scissor stairs are present.
(C) Multiple stairways can be used by members to access the fire floor prior to the designation of the attack stairway. Once an attack stairway is designated, then members must access the fire floor from this stairway.
(D) When using scissor stairs, the attack stair door should be the only stair door that is left open on the fire floor.
2. The most prominent variables that affect smoke movement are pressure, stack effect, wind and the HVAC system. Which of the following is correct concerning these variables? (6.2.2,)
(A) Smoke and hot fire gases increase the air pressure inside the fire area. Lower air pressure areas include the public hallways, vertical shafts, stairwells and elevators. This lower air pressure will always travel to areas of higher air pressure.
(B) Wind pressures external to the building create pressures within the structure on both the windward side (high pressure) and leeward side (low pressure).
(C) Generally, wind moving across a roof level will cause a higher air pressure to be created, which will increase negative stack effect.
(D) HVAC systems are not commonly found in HRFPMDs. If found, they should be evaluated for their impact on fire conditions before deciding whether they should be shut down.
Wind: A major factor for smoke movement within a structure. Wind pressures
external to the building create pressures within the structure on both the
windward side (high pressure) and leeward side (low pressure) because of
leakage through windows, walls or other openings, however small.
HVAC: These systems and their components of duct work and shafts can
contribute to smoke infiltration in other areas of the building. An IC should
confirm that all HVAC systems are shut down prior to commencing any fire
operations. They are installed most commonly in hotels and the hallways of
up scale high-rise apartment buildings
3. Ventilation procedures used in HRFPMDs differ from those used in non-fireproof buildings. Choose the incorrect point about ventilation procedures used in HRFPMDs. (6.3.1, 6.3.2,6.3.4)
(A) Ventilation of the fire apartment should take place after the main body of fire has been controlled.
(B) Horizontal ventilation of the fire apartment is limited and controlled by the ladder officer operating inside the apartment.
(C) Horizontal ventilation of the apartment above the fire apartment is limited and controlled by the ladder officer operating inside that apartment, usually the second arriving ladder officer.
(D) Where only two stairways are present, the attack stairway will be the primary means for vertical ventilation when the main body of fire has been knocked down and when authorized by the IC.
4. The various types of ventilation at a HRFPMD requires coordination among all members. Which of the following would be in accordance with FDNY Procedures? (6.3.3, 6.3.4, 6.3.5, 6.4.3)
(A) Windows in public hallways and stairways shall not be ventilated without prior approval of the Ladder Officer operating in the fire apartment.
(B) Vertical ventilation shall only be performed at the direction of the IC or the 1st arriving Ladder Company Officer.
(C) The doors to elevator machinery rooms at the roof level may be used for ventilation purposes as soon as the fire is knocked down.
(D) The IC may authorize smoke cleared from a stairway before operations commence using positive pressure fans.
5. The proper use of elevators is essential in dealing with fires in HRFPMDs. Which one of the following is correct? (6.4.2, 6.4.5, 6.4.6)
(A) Stairs must be used when the fire is on the 8th floor or below.
(B) The first arriving ladder company shall recall the elevators, whether or not they will be used. The second to arrive Ladder Company shall ensure that all elevators are recalled and searched.
(C) In order to avoid overloading elevators, consider each member and their equipment to be greater than 325 pounds.
(D) When both the engine and ladder companies arrive together and only one elevator is available (non fireman service), the ladder officer with the forcible entry team, the OV and the engine officer with one firefighter (nozzle or control) shall go up first.
Choice C should be 275 lbs
6. In a more exclusive type of HRFPMD, often elevators open directly into apartments or into foyers with each floor landing door locked for security reasons. The service/freight elevator in these building will usually service all floors. Who may declare a service/freight elevator safe for use? (6.4.7)
(A) The company officer.
(B) Building personnel
(C) The IC, only if they are a Battalion Chief or higher.
(D) The IC, only if they are a Deputy Chief or higher.
7. At 2200 hours on a Friday evening in December, you respond to a report of a fire on the 12th floor of a 38 story Multiple Dwelling. Upon arrival, you do not see any visible fire from the exterior, but you notice smoke coming from an open window on the 12th floor. After transmitting a 10-75, you proceed to the 12th floor, and encounter wind impacted fire conditions in the hallway. You then call your Chauffeur via the HT and tell him to transmit a 10-77. Which choice correctly describes your actions? (6.6.2)
(A) A 10-75 cannot be transmitted for a fire in a HRFPMD.
(B) A 10-77 signal shall be given at all HRFPMD where smoke is visible from the exterior on arrival.
(C) The 10-75 signal may be the initial signal used at fires in HRFPMDs when internal conditions cannot be accurately determined upon arrival. The signal should be upgraded to 10-77 when wind impacted fire conditions exist.
8. Choose the only correct action taken by the 1st arriving Engine Company at a fire in a HRFPMD. (6.7.1, 6.7.3, 6.7.5)
(A) The Engine Officer communicated with the ladder company officer to select the attack stairway, which did not contain a standpipe outlet.
(B) The Engine Officer authorized hooking up the hoseline from a standpipe outlet on the same floor as the fire after receiving verbal approval from the Battalion Commander.
(C) The Control FF remained at the standpipe outlet throughout the entire operation, even when the 2nd arriving Engine Company Officer and Control FF attempted to relieve him.
(D) The Officer called for the fog tip to be brought up to the fire floor to complete extinguishment of the fire.
9. Which member must ensure that the Standpipe Siamese is supplied at a fire in a HRFPMD? (6.8.2)
(A) 1st Arriving Engine Officer
(B) 1st Arriving ECC
(C) 2nd Arriving Engine Officer
10. The 3rd engine company is responsible to start the stretch of a second hoseline when required. If a second hoseline is not required, the IC shall be notified. Which is not a correct action taken by the 3rd engine company? (6.9.2, 6.9.3)
(A) After determining that additional lengths of hose are needed due to stretching the hoseline from two floors below the fire, additional lengths were added between the last length of the 2nd hoseline and the standpipe outlet.
(B) The control FF of the 3rd engine completed the hoseline connection to the standpipe outlet, charged the line when ordered, and remained at the outlet until relieved by the 4th arriving Engine Officer and Control FF.
(C) After determining that the public hallway was heavily charged with smoke, the 3rd Engine Officer ordered the hoseline charged in the stairwell.
(D) When the 2nd hoseline was charged, the control FF at the standpipe outlet supplying the 1st line and the officer of the 1st line was notified.
The second hoseline is usually stretched from two floors below the fire. The
second line will be stretched via the attack stairway and this will be the factor in
determining which standpipe outlet to use. Additional lengths of hose will
probably be needed from the 2nd or 4th engine companies. The additional lengths
should be added between the last length of the second hoseline and the standpipe
outlet. The control firefighter will complete the connection to the standpipe
outlet, charge the line when ordered, provide proper water pressure, and remain at
the standpipe outlet throughout the operation to provide orderly and accurate
communications and continuity.
6.9.3 Charging the hoseline:
The third engine officer will determine when this hoseline shall be charged. This
line should be charged at the stairway door to the fire floor depending on hallway
conditions and size of the fire area. When the second line is charged the pressure
on the first line may drop; therefore, the control firefighter at the standpipe outlet
supplying the first line and the officer of the first line should be notified. This
control firefighter must be aware of the possible need to adjust pressure on the
first line. An uncharged line shall never be stretched into an IDLH.
11. Which action taken by the 4th arriving Engine Company, which is not equipped with a High Rise Nozzle (HRN), at a fire on the 23rd floor of a HRFPMD should be corrected? (6.10.2)
(A) The Officer contacted the dispatcher for the identity of the unit carrying the HRN that has been already assigned.
(B) Upon arrival, the 4th Engine Officer had his unit immediately bring the HRN, one length of hose per FF, and the standpipe kit to the 22nd floor.
(C) The hoseline used to supply the HRN was stretched via the attack stairway.
(D) The 4th engine stretched their own line to supply the HRN due to the fact that the 2nd hoseline already committed to the 24th floor.
12. Which is not mentioned as equipment that the CFR Engine Company will report to the Incident Commander with? (6.6.3,6.11)
(A) CFR Equipment
(B) Forcible Entry Tools
(C) A set of Elevator Keys
13. Upon arrival at the fire floor, if smoke and/or heat conditions exist, there are several actions that the 1st Ladder Company should perform. Which is not one of them? (6.13.2 D)
(A) Prior to entering the public hallway, the Officer shall get a report on exterior conditions from members outside the building and the Roof FF on the floor above.
(B) If unable to determine if it is a wind impacted fire, the Ladder Officer and one member of the forcible entry team will enter the public hallway to locate the fire apartment.
(C) One member of the interior team will remain at the attack stairwell door on the stairwell side of the door while the Officer and other member attempt to locate the fire apartment.
(D) Once the Ladder Company Officer gains control of the fire apartment door, the Engine Company and the Ladder company member who remained at the stairwell door shall advance to the fire apartment door.
(E) If wind is not impacting the fire and conditions allow, the Ladder Company Officer and forcible entry team can enter the fire apartment to search.
If unable to determine if this is a wind impacted fire, the Ladder
Company Officer and one member of the forcible entry team shall
enter the public hallway to locate the fire apartment and control the
fire apartment door. The other member of the interior team will
remain at the attack stairwell door on the hallway side of the door to
ensure the stairwell door remains closed limiting the flow path and to
act as a beacon in case members need to evacuate the hallway. The
Engine Company Officer shall be responsible for control and
coordination on the stairwell side of the door.
F. If wind is not impacting the fire and conditions allow, enter the fire
apartment to search. Search team must be prepared to exit quickly and
control the fire apartment door under all circumstances. Do not chock the
door open until a charged hoseline is moving into the fire apartment.
14. Where can a Ladder Company member be positioned to control the fire apartment door? (6.13.2 G)
(A) Inside the door only
(B) Outside the door only
(C) Either inside or outside the door
15. Choose the incorrect tool assignment for the 1st Ladder Company to arrive. (6.13.2, 6.13.3, 6.13.4, 6.13.5)
(A) Officer and Forcible Entry Team: Extinguisher, hook, axe, Halligan, Hydra Ram, search rope, SCBAs, CO meter and Thermal Imaging Camera
(B) OV FF: Halligan, hook or axe
(C) Roof FF: Hydra Ram, KO Curtain, Life Saving Rope
(D) Chauffeur: Selects the tools deemed necessary to complete the assignment
16. Which action taken by the OV FF for a fire on the 9th floor of a 22 Story Building is incorrect? (6.13.3)
(A) Conduct an outside survey with the chauffeur
(B) If VEIS can be made with ladders, the OV FF requests permission from the ladder officer in the fire apartment prior to performing VEIS of the fire apartment.
(C) If no outside operations are indicated, then the OV FF will take control of an elevator car if it has fireman service.
(D) If no outside operations are indicated, and the fire building does not have fireman service elevators, the OV FF shall proceed to the floor above the fire to assist the Roof FF.
(E) If the building has apartment letters stenciled on the outside of the building, include the letter markings as a guide when giving a report from the exterior.
17. Choose the only action taken by the Roof FF of the 1st Arriving Ladder Company that is correct. (6.13.4)
(A) The Roof FF proceeded to the apartment directly above the fire apartment via the evacuation stairway.
(B) When notifying the Ladder Officer of the wind conditions, the apartment door of the apartment above the fire is opened, and a window is opened in the room over the fire area.
(C) After noticing a person trapped at a window, the Roof FF returned to the fire floor to attempt an interior rescue.
(D) Deployed the KO Curtain when ordered by the Ladder Officer in the fire apartment.
18. The Chauffeur of the 1st Arriving Ladder Company would be incorrect to take which action? (6.13.5)
(A) If no outside operations, Wind Control Device or LSR operations are indicated, team up with the 2nd LCC and proceed to the roof.
(B) Stairway bulkheads are not vented until the main body of fire has been knocked down, and only upon orders from the Ladder Officer operating in the fire apartment or the IC.
(C) Gain access to the roof via an elevator that has a blind shaft on the fire floor, or via the evacuation stairway.
(D) Remain at the roof level to control vertical ventilation.
19. Which action taken by the 2nd Arriving Ladder Company Officer and Forcible Entry Team for a fire on the 20th floor of a 27 story building is incorrect? (6.14.2)
(A) Recall all elevators, regardless of the fire floor location and whether or not FD members will use them.
(B) Maintain the evacuation stairway door(s) closed and initiate search of the public hallway on the fire floor.
(C) Communicate with the ladder company officer in the fire apartment to see if any help is required.
(D) After searching the hallway on the fire floor, initiate search of the attack stairway up to the 24th floor.
(E) If a WCD deployment is initiated, the 2nd Ladder Company Officer must coordinate this evolution.
6.14 2ND LADDER COMPANY TO ARRIVE
6.14.1 This unit is responsible for:
Ensure that all elevators are recalled and searched.
Control ventilation in areas other than the fire apartment as directed by the IC.
Search of the public hallway, and ensure all evacuation stair doors are closed
on the fire floor.
Search of the attack stairwell for five floors above the fire floor.
Coordinate WCD deployment, if ordered deployed by the IC.
20. The 3rd Ladder Company to arrive has several duties. Which of the following is not one of these duties? (6.15.2, 6.15.3, 6.15.4)
(A) The Officer confirms that the evacuation stairway door(s) have been closed on the fire floor and are maintained closed.
(B) The evacuation stairway doors are maintained closed on the fire floor by positioning members on the hallway side of the evacuation door(s) until the Officer deems the situation no longer presents a hazard in that stairway.
(C) The Roof FF proceeds to the apartment directly above the fire with a KO Curtain in addition to their normal tools.
(D) Complete roof operations if assigned by the IC.
21. The use of standpipes and sprinklers is extremely important in fighting fires in HRFPMDs. Which choice is incorrect concerning standpipes and sprinklers? (6.6.1, 6.26.4)
(A) The ECC of the 1st to arrive Engine Company shall connect a 3 ½” line to the standpipe Siamese and charge the system if any evidence of fire is present.
(B) A second 3 ½” supply line may be stretched to supply the Siamese or a lower floor standpipe outlet under certain conditions.
(C) Anytime the Siamese is being supplied and an Engine Officer or the IC communicates that there is not enough water pressure, the ECC supplying the Siamese shall communicate to the IC the flow meter reading.
(D) 2 ½” diameter hose with controlling nozzle and 1 1/8” Main Stream Tips shall always be used from standpipe outlets at fires in HRFPMDs.
6.26.4 Hoseline operations from standpipes shall be guided as follows:
Lightweight standpipe hose with 2” lead length and 1” MST shall be used.
If lightweight hose is unavailable, 2½” diameter hose with controlling nozzle
and 1 1/8” Main Stream Tip (MST) shall be used.
22. Duplex, Triplex, and “Sandwich” type apartment arrangements are found in all areas of NYC in HRFPMDs. Which choice does not correctly describe these types of apartments? (6.27.1)
(A) Although duplex apartments have living spaces on 2 distinct floor levels of a private apartment, and triplex apartments have living spaces on 3 distinct floor levels, these apartments do not have to be 2 or 3 stories in height.
(B) The simplest type of duplex apartment has a private stair inside the apartment leading up to bedroom areas.
(C) A second type of duplex apartment has doors leading from the public hall into the main level and the second level is down.
(D) A “Sandwich” type apartment arrangement means the apartment has 3 different levels inside the apartment.
23. Balconies and terraces are found in many privately owned HRFPMDs and newer city housing buildings. Which choice is wrong concerning these terraces and balconies? (6.27.2)
(A) Members shall request permission from the Ladder Officer operating within the fire apartment prior to ventilation or entry.
(B) If the fire window faces onto a balcony or terrace, the High Rise Nozzle stream may be deployed from the adjoining window on the floor below.
(C) If the fire window faces onto a balcony, the High Rise Nozzle cannot be operated from the apartment directly below.
(D) Deployment of a Wind Control Device will not be possible from a floor above if that apartment itself has a balcony, and the fire window is below this balcony.
The balcony floor outside the fire apartment may block the HRN
stream deployed from the window directly below. Directing the HRN
stream from the adjoining window from the floor below may prove
effective. If the apartment below the fire has a balcony, the HRN
could be operating from the balcony railing, deflecting the stream off
of the underside of the balcony directly above the fire apartment. This
may provide limited success.
PART II – COMMUNICATION MANUAL CH. 11:
1. The Handie Talkie (HT) is one of the most important tools a Firefighter has. Which statement is incorrect concerning Handie Talkies? (2.3, 2.7.1)
(A) The HT must be turned on prior to donning the bunker coat.
(B) Operating at maximum volume increases feedback, which may interfere with communications.
(C) The HT may be worn either under or over the bunker coat.
(D) When the Emergency Alert Button is activated, the wattage of the transmission will be increased from 2 watts to 5 watts. The set of tones on the transmitting radio are called a beacon, and the tones on the receiving radio(s) are called the Emergency Alert Tones.
2. Choose the incorrect point about Emergency Alert Tones and Beacon Tones. (2.7.3, 2.7.5)
(A) Both the Emergency Alert Tones and Beacon Tones are heard at maximum volume regardless of the radio’s volume setting.
(B) A second Emergency Alert Tone will be transmitted automatically 15 seconds after the initial tone. If the channel is busy, the Emergency Alert Tone will interrupt any audio.
(C) The Beacon Tone takes priority over received audio. The radio will interrupt any incoming audio to sound the beacon at regular intervals on the radio transmitting the emergency.
(D) To reset the Emergency Alert Button, the member can turn the radio off and then on, or depress the Emergency Alert Button for approximately 2 seconds.
(E) If a member switches channels while in the Emergency Alert Mode, its Beacon will continue to sound until reset.
3. While looking at the LED light on the HT, Lt. Stevens tried to remember what each color means. In which thought should she be corrected? (2.11)
(A) Steady Red : Radio is transmitting
(B) Flashing Red (While Transmitting): Low battery or when the radio voltage drops below the preset alert level.
(C) Flashing Green (While transmitting): Battery too low to transmit or receive.
4. The current XTS3500R Handie Talkies used by the FDNY have several special features. Which is not one of them? (3.1, 3.4, 3.5)
(A) Radios and the remote speaker/microphones are water proof, and may be submerged in water to perform decontamination.
(B) The 30 second time out timer cuts off the transmitter after 30 seconds of continuous transmission. The radio emits a short audible tone at approximately 26 seconds and a continuous tone at 30 seconds.
(C) The radio is intrinsically safe and non-incendive when used with specific batteries.
3.1 Water Resistance
Radios and the remote speaker/microphones are designed to be water resistant to the
effects of temporary submersion. Water resistance is highly dependent on proper
use/connection and condition of the radio seal elements. Therefore, the radio should not
be subject to unwarranted or casual submersion outside the function of firefighting
3.4 30 Second Time-Out-Timer
This feature cuts off the transmitter after 30 seconds of continuous transmission and is
especially useful to correct the "stuck-button" problem. At the remote microphone
speaker, the radio emits a short audible warning tone at approximately 26 seconds and a
continuous tone at approximately 30 seconds. This indicates that the transmitter has been
shut off. The operator can re-key the transmitter again if a longer transmission is
required. This resets the Time-Out-Timer.
5. The maintenance of Handie Talkies is extremely important. Which one of the following shows an incorrect action? (6.1, 6.2, 6.3, 6.7)
(A) If the HT becomes wet or has been submerged in water, remove the battery, dry and clean the HT and battery contacts before re-attaching the battery.
(B) If the remote microphone becomes wet, or submerged, water trapped inside the speaker grille and microphone can be removed by shaking the unit well.
(C) External battery charging contacts may be cleaned with an eraser if a coating is observed on the contacts.
(D) When HTs are sent for repair, they should be sent complete (radio, battery, and external remote microphone). Leather goods (cases and straps) should always be sent with the radio.
6. Which choice is correct concerning the Motorola Batteries used with the XTS3500R HTs? (Add. 1 Sec. 1)
(A) The capacity is rated for approximately 15 hours. The battery will last approximately 6-7 hours at 2 watts, and 4-5 hours at 5 watts.
(B) Radios that chirp have approximately 5-10% of its full charge battery capacity remaining. These batteries will power the radio enough to still receive transmissions and transmit at 2 watts, but can’t transmit a 5 watt emergency alert.
(C) When radios chirp, the batteries shall be replaced immediately, or as soon as possible.
(D) If batteries are not used and recharged for more than 3 days, the batteries charging capacity will become greatly diminished.
1. BATTERY (Both Models)
The capacity of the Motorola battery used with the XTS3500R is rated for approximately 8
hours. It is expected that the battery will last approximately 4-5 hours at 2 watts; if using a
5-watt channel expect 2-3 hours of service. The batteries shall be exchanged with fully
recharged batteries from the charger at the beginning of every tour and after extensive use.
Radios that chirp have approximately 5-10% of its full charge battery capacity
remaining (factoring 10% TX-10% RX-80% Standby usage). While these
batteries will power the radios enough to still receive transmissions and transmit
at 2 watts, testing has shown that the battery power is just above the power
threshold for transmitting a 5 watt emergency alert. Such batteries shall be
replaced immediately, or as soon as possible.
To extend battery life, HTs should be turned OFF upon return to quarters.
Units are issued ONLY 2 batteries per assigned HT.
Batteries need to be used and charged on a regular basis. If this cycle is
disrupted for more than 2 weeks, the batteries’ charging capacity will become
greatly diminished. Therefore, storing batteries for extended times without
usage is considered an UNSAFE ACT.
The FDNY Radio Repair Shop will make exchanges of batteries on a rotating basis.
7. Handie Talkie batteries shall be exchanged with fully recharged batteries from the charger at the beginning of every tour and after extensive use. Which choice is incorrect concerning this replacement? (Add. 1 Sec.1.2 Note, 3.6, 4.1)
(A) Members shall not use screwdrivers or other tools to detach the battery. If battery removal is too difficult, the entire HT with battery shall be placed OOS.
(B) If a battery gets too hot to hold after charging, it is defective and should be exchanged at the depot.
(C) Batteries have a color-coded sticker with a date it is due back to the Radio Shops for reconditioning. This due date shall be inspected each time batteries are placed on the HT.
(D) On the first day of each week, Company Officers working the 9x6 tour shall have a member inspect all HT batteries to make sure no battery has passed the required reconditioning date. The Officer shall take a mark in the Office Record Journal.
8. When an assigned HT is placed OOS, the Officer notifies the Division Depot for a replacement radio, and records the defect in the Company and Office Record Journals. Which choice is incorrect concerning the Officer’s duties upon receipt of the spare radio? (Add. 2, Sec. 1.2)
(A) Notify the administrative Division
(B) Record the ID # on the side of the radio in the Company Journal
(C) Record the ID# on the side of the radio in the Office Record Journal
(D) Update the BF-4 with the spare radio’s engraved ID number.
9. Match the 7 digit ID# with the correct company and position. (Add. 2, Sec. 2)
5079006 _____ (A) Squad 288 ECC
7081004 _____ (B) Engine 79 Control
8288002 _____ (C) Engine 79 Door
1001004 _____ (D) Rescue 1 Roof
(E) Rescue 1 Hook
(F) Squad 288 Officer
(G) Ladder 81 OV
(H) Ladder 81 Roof
9. C, G, A, E
10. When is it allowable to use the extra HT (door position) assigned to 4 firefighter engines as a spare? (2 correct) (Add. 6, Sec. 2.2)
(A) While awaiting delivery of a spare HT from a depot.
(B) When a HT of a Ladder Company sharing quarters with a 4 FF Engine goes out of service. This radio can be used until the assigned radio is returned.
(C) When the supply at a HT depot is depleted.
(D) It is never allowed.
10. A, C
PART III – TB – Tools #27 - End:
1. Thermal Imaging Cameras (TIC) read temperature differentials and are unaffected by smoke. Which choice is correct concerning the interpretation of these temperature differentials? (2.3, 2.4, 2.5, 2.6)
(A) Black indicates the presence of the most amount of heat or the hottest object in the scene.
(B) White indicates the presence of the least heat in the scene.
(C) White and black are the only colors viewed on the TIC.
(D) The more heat present, the clearer and sharper the image will appear. This is true until the area being viewed reaches the point of thermal saturation, and will appear white and featureless.
2. Which choice is wrong concerning the TIC? (2.7, 2.8, 2.9,2.10)
(A) Changing thermal contrast is when the conditions change from hotter to cooler, the image viewed by the TIC will change. Changing thermal contrast may be an indication that the fire is in close proximity.
(B) To compensate for changing thermal contrast, some TICs change modes, indicated on the display by EI or L. This shift allows the camera to compensate for higher temperatures.
(C) Convected heat movement may appear as White waves or smoke. These waves will only appear at ceiling level.
(D) It is possible for furniture or layers of blankets, sheets and clothes to conceal a person from the TIC.
3. The TIC shall be carried and used at all structural responses by all units equipped with the tool. Which choice is correct concerning the use of this tool? (3, 3.3, 3.9, 3.10, 4.3)
(A) Operators of the TIC shall utilize the carrying strap to allow both hands available to perform search, rescue and firefighting functions.
(B) Operators of TICs should begin scanning at the floor using a side to side motion, slowly working their way to the ceiling.
(C) The TIC can be used to locate a person under water.
(D) The TIC cannot be used to determine liquid levels in containers, or the presence of vapor clouds.
4. Which point about the TIC is incorrect? (4.1, 4.2, 4.4, 4.5, 4.8, 5.4.3)
(A) The TIC does not see through clear glass or plastic. These act as a mirror.
(B) Waxed floors, tiled walls, and some painted or polished surfaces or water on the floor will reflect infrared energy. This may result in the actual source of the image being opposite the reflected surface.
(C) Average field of view is approximately 50 degrees, and the focal point is approximately 3 feet from the camera lens.
(D) TICs are rated as intrinsically safe.
(E) The TIC is water-resistant, not waterproof. Never submerge the camera.
5. The Cordless Rebar Cutter issued to all Ladder, Rescue and Squad companies can cut many different materials. Which of the following is incorrect? (2, 3.3, 5.2)
(A) The cutter cannot be used to cut wrought iron fences.
(B) The cutter cannot be used to cut case hardened steel rods or locks.
(C) When using the cutter, the tool head shall be positioned at a right angle to the bar to be cut.
(D) The tool shall not be used in an explosive atmosphere, due to the creation of sparks which may ignite the dust or fumes.
6. While at drill, two members were discussing the capabilities and limitations of the Cordless Rebar Cutter. In which statement were they correct? (DS 1, Sec. 3.3, 3.4, 3.8)
(A) The tool will not work well in temperatures below 50 degrees F. It will be necessary to warm the tool up prior to use.
(B) To warm the tool up, either store the tool in a heated area or use the trigger lock to run the tool continuously for 5 minutes with no load.
(C) The tool is equipped with a swivel head that has a 90 degree turning angle.
(D) A fully charged battery will last for approximately 80 cuts.
180 turning angle
Battery is good for 40 cuts
7. With the recent increase in calls for odors of gas, a proper understanding of the TIF 8800 Combustible Gas Detector is necessary for Officers. Which choice contains incorrect information about this tool? (2, 4, 5)
(A) The detector may be used in almost any situation where combustible gas, vapor or residues need to be found.
(B) The detector can be used to detect almost all gases, including Carbon Monoxide.
(C) In most cases, it will not be necessary to adjust the sensitivity of a detector. However, for extremely small leaks, turn the sensitivity knob to the High position (rapid ticking).
(D) For large concentrations, desensitize the detector by turning the sensitivity knob counter clockwise to the Low position.
(E) Distribution, service and repairs to the detector will be done by the Mask Service Unit.
8. Each unit shall carry at least 10 glow sticks on their apparatus. Which choice is correct concerning glow sticks? (2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 2.5, 4.1)
(A) Glow sticks should not be used near water, because the high pressures break down the tubes.
(B) In a subway tunnel, glow sticks can provide an illuminated path by placing them along the evacuation route for passengers and members to follow.
(C) Glow sticks have in unlimited life span. Heat and humidity will not affect the glow sticks.
(D) Glow sticks cannot be used in explosive environments.
(E) When required, units shall requisition glow sticks in packs of 10 from the Mask Service Unit.
9. Sound powered telephones are capable of transmitting clear voice communications over distances up to 5 miles. Which component of the sound powered phone equipment is incorrectly described? (2.2, 2.4, 2.6, 2.6.1)
(A) A headset has a 1620 key attached to it, and allows for a helmet to be worn when operating with sound powered telephones.
(B) A wire reel consists of a 400 foot-long wire wound around the reel inside a plastic case. Both ends of the wire reel have female connectors.
(C) Although amplifiers increase the volume of transmissions, they are not required to be used. The talk level knob shall be placed at the highest setting when in use.
(D) The Push to Amplify (PTA) button on the amplifier must be pressed and held whenever the user wants to transmit a message. The PTA button must also be pressed to hear the replies from the user at the other end.
10. Members of Engine 7, a Communications Unit, were assisting in communications at a 10-76 in a High Rise Officer Building using sound powered telephones. Which action taken should be corrected? (3.3, 3.4, 3.5, 3.6)
(A) Each member dedicated to the Sound Powered Phone communications link was paired with another member who monitored HT transmissions.
(B) The member monitoring the Sound Powered Phones listened for a buzzing sound that indicated a transmission was being made.
(C) When transmitting a message using the Sound Powered Phone, the member ended their transmission with “K”.
(D) Because the member was using a headset in a standby position, they covered the mouthpiece with their hand to reduce background noise being transmitted.
11. While supervising a subway emergency exit inspection on a Saturday in September, Capt. Smith instructed members on the proper use of the station’s Sound Powered Phone system. Which choice is incorrect concerning this system? (4.1.1, 4.1.2, 4.1.3, 4.1.4)
(A) Street to Station system coverage includes a particular station and the street above.
(B) Street to Tunnel systems coverage includes a particular under river tunnel or tubes (both directions) and a location on both sides of the tunnel, typically the nearest emergency exit.
(C) Usually members can communicate from one Sound Powered Phone System to another (e.g. from an under river tunnel system to a nearby station).
(D) Headsets are preferred for use throughout the NYC Transit system.
(E) All Sound Powered Phone connectors in the NYC Transit system are located in locked metal boxes that require a 1620 key to open.
Subway emergency exit March September
12. While operating at a fire on the Northbound 6 line at the Union Square Subway Station, units find the communications difficult, so they decide to use the Street to Station Sound Powered phone system. After obtaining the equipment from the Battalion, which thought should they reconsider? (4.2.1, 4.2.2)
(A) At street level, the Sound Powered Phone connectors are found near a standpipe Siamese, with a sign that reads Street to Station Communications.
(B) Due to the large size of the station, there is more than one standpipe Siamese. The Officer of Engine 400 told the members that the Standpipe Siamese with the Sound Powered Phone Connector will always be found closest to the subway entrance.
(C) Sound Powered Phone jacks on the platform or mezzanine level are located in a metal box inside the standpipe cabinets, or in a cabinet in the surrounding area.
(D) Standpipe cabinets on the platform or mezzanine level are identified by a sign above the standpipe outlet, showing a white hose on a red background.
13. Street to Tunnel sound powered phone systems provide a way to communicate in under river tubes. Which choice is incorrect concerning these systems? (4.3.1, 4.3.2, 4.3.3)
(A) Street to Tunnel systems usually include a specific pair of tubes. Members in the Brooklyn-bound Clark Street tubes could speak to others in the Manhattan-bound Clark Street tube.
(B) Members can usually speak to members operating in a completely different tunnel or tube due to the interconnection of all sound powered equipment.
(C) Sound Powered Phone connectors are usually located at the street level Siamese connections closest to the emergency exits on both sides of the under river tubes.
(D) In the under river tubes, Sound Powered Phone connectors are found at the standpipe outlets, approximately 200 feet apart.
(E) The Joralemon Street Tunnel does not have Sound Powered phones installed.
14. Positive Pressure Fans (PPF) are used to pressurize the attack and evacuation stairs, or to ventilate buildings of smoke and CO. Choose the incorrect point concerning these fans. (3.1, 3.3, 3.5, 4.1, 4.2)
(A) Stairwell pressurization shall not be initiated until authorized by the Incident Commander.
(B) Fans shall never be refueled inside of a structure.
(C) Exhaust hoses are only required when performing sequential ventilation of the building by pressurizing the evacuation stairwell.
(D) Fans shall be inspected daily at the start of the 9x6 tour, and should be run at full RPM for 5 minutes at MUD.
PART IV – HAZ MAT #14, 16 & 17:
1. Ladder 300 receives a ticket to respond to the USPS Morgan Mail Bulk Facility. While responding and upon arrival, Ladder 300 took several actions. Which one was correct? (HM 14 Sec. 3.1, 4, 6.1, 6.2)
(A) While responding, the Officer verified the type of incident that the unit was responding to. The Dispatcher confirmed it was a Bio Detection System (BDS) alarm, so the Officer consulted the CIDS.
(B) The Officer proceeded to the Incident Command Post to make contact with the USPS Liaison.
(C) Ladder 300 entered the Mail Facility to perform a primary search.
(D) After confirming that it was a BDS activation, the Officer transmitted a 10-80 Code 3 via the Department Radio.
2. When FDNY members make contact with the USPS Liaison, which of the following would they not ascertain from the Liaison? (HM 14 Sec. 6.1)
(A) Verify activation of BDS alarm.
(B) Are all employees out of the building or in a Safe Refuge Area within the facility.
(C) Are all employees accounted for.
(D) Verify number of patients in each group
(E) Are there any injuries to any employees, regardless of severity.
Any immediate life safety concerns
3. Where would additional units above the initial alarm assignment respond to for a BDS activation? (HM 14, Sec. 6.4)
(A) Initial Emergency Response Meeting Point
(B) Incident Command Post
(C) Unified Operations Post
(D) Fire Department Staging Area
4. In which of the following situations would members attired in Bunker Gear not enter a USPS Bulk Facility for a BDS alarm activation? (HM 14 Sec. 6.6, 8.1, 9.1)
1. Life threatening medical emergency
2. Life threatening fire
3. To treat a Postal Worker’s broken ankle, which was incurred while trying to proceed to the Safe Refuge Area.
4. To perform decontamination of Group 2 and 3 patients
(A) 1, 2, 3 only (B) 1, 2, 3, 4 (C) 1, 2 only (D) 3, 4 only
5. When the BDS system alerts, it will be treated as a presumptive positive for anthrax. Which statement is correct concerning FDNY operations at a BDS alarm activation? (HM 14 Sec. 5, 6.1, 8.1, 9.1)
(A) FDNY HazMat Technicians will retrieve the PCR sample canister. FDNY members will provide decon for the members who retrieved the canister.
(B) Members in bunker gear and using SCBA may enter for life safety if prior to entry an Emergency Decon area and a Backup Team is designated.
(C) Other than immediate life safety concerns, no FDNY members shall enter a facility for a confirmed BDS activation.
(D) During decontamination operations, the only FDNY members permitted in the building will be Haz Mat Technicians or bunker gear equipped Operations Level trained members providing a water supply.
6. Engine 444 responded to an EMS run for a patient exposed to white powder in an Office Building. Upon arrival, it is determined that NYPD is not on scene. Which action taken by the members of Engine 444 was incorrect? (HM 16 Sec. 2.1.2)
(A) NYPD was immediately requested
(B) Signal 10-80 was transmitted, specifying suspected anthrax.
(C) Members refrained from performing reconnaissance of the occupancy to avoid cross contamination.
(D) The patient was instructed to walk into another room that had been cleared of other workers.
(E) The Officer requested guidance from the Haz Mat Battalion concerning the level of PPE needed.
2.1.2 When NYPD is not already on scene:
Immediately request the response of the NYPD.
Transmit the appropriate 10-80 signal, specifying suspected anthrax.
A preliminary reconnaissance should be performed by FDNY resources to
gather as much information as possible regarding the incident.
If ambulatory, have patients walk away from the area of exposure to another
room or location that is isolated from other persons.
If patient contact is necessary, ensure proper PPE is worn by CFRs, EMTs and
Paramedics as required and consistent with their level of haz-mat training
(consult with the Haz Mat Battalion for PPE guidance).
Shut down HVAC zones within the incident location if necessary.
Limit the number of responders in the area to decrease the risk of exposure.
7. When members respond to an EMS run where patients have visible powder on their skin and clothing, several actions should be taken. Which is a correct action to take? (HM 16 Sec. 2.2.2)
(A) Members should remove the patient’s outer clothing.
(B) Provide the patient with a disposable sheet.
(C) Bag the patient’s clothing in a clear plastic bag and transport the clothing with the patient.
(D) After determining that the patient’s CUPS status is Unstable, members requested a thorough Technical Decon be performed prior to transport.
8. A Ladder Company arrived first to a report of fumes in a bookstore on the 1st floor of a 9 story building. Upon arrival, several customers were complaining of tingling to their throats and tearing eyes. Which action taken by members was incorrect? (HM 17 Sec. 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 2.5)
(A) Members spoke to store employees and customers who had self-evacuated from the building prior to making entry. The Ladder Officer instructed the LCC to transmit a 10-80 signal via the Department Radio.
(B) Members wore full firefighting gear and used their SCBA when they entered the store.
(C) After determining that pepper spray had been dispersed near the cash registers, members evacuated the remaining people in the bookstore through a side door that was distant from the cash registers.
(D) Members set up fans near the cash registers, and positioned the fans to blow the fumes out the front door, which was the closest ventilation point available but near the EMS triage area.
PART V – INSTRUCTOR INSTINCTS:
1. Engine 333 is responding to a fire on the 95th floor of a residential building under construction. While responding, the Officer tries to remember everything he knows about High Pressure Pumping Operations. Which thought is correct? (Eng. Ops. Ch.9 Add. 1, Sec. 1.4, 3.1, 3.3, 4.1, 4.2)
(A) All engines are capable of providing pressures over 250 psi. However, conventional engines should not operate in pressures exceeding 250 psi unless emergency conditions exist, and they are ordered by the IC, who must be a BC or higher.
(B) No more than 3 connected lengths of high-pressure supply hose should be stretched to the Fire Department connection.
(C) The standpipe system should be supplied by two engines. Do not connect two high-pressure supply lines to a single building Siamese connection.
(D) Pressures exceeding 500 psi will require a 3rd stage engine.
A Doesn't have to be a chief
D should be 600 psi to require 3rd stage
2. A short stretch can be overcome with proper training. Choose the incorrect choice concerning the actions necessary to fix a short stretch. (Eng. Ops. Ch. 12, Sec. 4.1, 4.2, 4.3, 4.4, 4.5)
(A) Water shut down is required when adding hose to the back of the stretch with a 1 ¾” or a 2 ½” hand line.
(B) Adding hose to the back of the stretch may be impractical where more than four lengths of hose was originally deployed.
(C) When adding hose to the back of the line, if the 6 lead lengths of 1 ¾” hose have already been stretched, only a length(s) of 2 ½” hose can be added.
(D) When adding hose to the front of the stretch, water does not have to be shut down. To add a length of 1 ¾” hose to a 1 ¾” hoseline, the tip is removed from the original nozzle and a 1 ½” increaser is attached.
(E) For a fire in a non-fireproof multiple dwelling without a well hole, sufficient hose may be found by raising the already charged hose line over the newel post onto the railing.
add 2 1/2"
3. At Loft buildings, passenger and freight elevators are normally located within the area of the front wall. When is it advisable to place aerial or portable ladders to elevator shaft windows, or to operate streams into them? (FFP Lofts Sec. 5.1.2)
(B) When visible fire is extending up the shaft.
(C) At the initial stages of operation.
(D) When the shaft is missing the required “Shaftway” signs.
4. The dangers of bowstring truss roofs have been communicated to all members. Which choice is incorrect concerning bowstring truss roof operations at Taxpayer fires? (FFP Taxpayers Sec. 5.5.25)
(A) Under no circumstances shall any member operate inside any building involved in a content or structural fire with a wooden, metal or combination bowstring truss roof.
(B) Under no circumstances shall any member operate on the roof of any building involved in a content or structural fire with a wooden, metal or combination bowstring truss roof.
(C) At large and/or advanced fires, or where the timber trusses or the underside of the roof are involved in fire, exterior operations should be the primary tactical consideration.
(D) Members may operate on a bowstring truss roof of a building not involved in fire.
5. When positioning a tower ladder on a hill, position the apparatus ______ to the direction of the slope, so that boom operations will be in the ______ direction. If possible, apparatus should be facing ______. (FFP Tower Ladders Sec. 3.4.1)
(A) Parallel, up-hill, downhill.
(B) Perpendicular, up-hill, downhill.
(C) Parallel, downhill, up-hill.
(D) Perpendicular, downhill, uphill.
6. Units arrive on the scene of a heavy fire in the basement of a Brownstone building, with reports of people trapped on the 4th floor. Which hand line was positioned incorrectly? (FFP Brownstones Sec. 3.2)
(A) The 1st hoseline was stretched through the front door on the 1st floor to extinguish the fire.
(B) The 1st hoseline was stretched through the front door on the second (parlor) floor to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs.
(C) The 2nd hoseline was stretched through the front door on the first floor to back up the 1st hoseline due to the heavy fire.
(D) The 3rd hoseline was stretched through the front door on the second (parlor) floor to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs, as ordered by the IC.
7. In which of the following instances would the 1st Arriving Engine Company not initially drop a 3 ½” supply line for a tower ladder at a Rowframe Building fire? (FFP Rowframes Sec. 6.4, 6.5, 6.7)
(A) Heavy fire on an upper floor
(B) A building fully involved and fire is in exposures
(C) A vacant building fire in a row of occupied frames
(D) A vacant building fire in a row of vacant buildings
8. Which choice does not show a proper understanding of interior hoseline placement at a fire in a Private Dwelling? (FFP PDs Sec.1.6, 1.7, 2.7.1, 2.7.2)
(A) The primary consideration in the placement of the 1st hoseline for access to a fire on the 1st floor or floors above is the main entrance door to the building.
(B) The primary consideration in the placement of the 1st hoseline for access to a fire in the cellar is via the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the fire area.
(C) At a cellar fire, the 1st hoseline may be stretched through the main entrance of the building to access the cellar.
(D) Stretching the 1st hoseline through a Bilco style exterior door is not permitted at cellar fires.
9. When a report is received that individuals are stranded in still water due to flooding, a Water Rescue Team consisting of a Water Rescue Company and an Engine Company will be dispatched. Which action taken by this team is incorrect? (AUC 159 Add. 7 Sec. 4.4, 4.5, 4.6)
(A) Members of Water Rescue Companies trained in the use of Cold Water Suits shall don the suits prior to commencing operations.
(B) Members not trained in Cold Water Suits shall be equipped with waders and a Personal Flotation Device (PFD).
(C) The Water Rescue Company will assist the stranded victims into the Flat Bottom Boat, provide them with a PFD, and transport them from the flooded area, preferably to the Water Rescue Company’s point of entry.
(D) The assisting Engine Company will enter the water with their CFR-D equipment and provide medical care as needed.