OP WEEK #8 WEEK OF 11/4/13 PART I – FFP – MEMBER IN DISTRESS CH #1 – 5 PART II – TB APPARATUS P3 & L7 PART III EVOLUTIONS #8, 9, 18, 21 & 21A PART IV ERP ADD #3 {Explosives, Incendiary & Active Shooter} INSTRUCTOR: AC RON SPADAFORA Flashcards Preview

Firetech > OP WEEK #8 WEEK OF 11/4/13 PART I – FFP – MEMBER IN DISTRESS CH #1 – 5 PART II – TB APPARATUS P3 & L7 PART III EVOLUTIONS #8, 9, 18, 21 & 21A PART IV ERP ADD #3 {Explosives, Incendiary & Active Shooter} INSTRUCTOR: AC RON SPADAFORA > Flashcards

Flashcards in OP WEEK #8 WEEK OF 11/4/13 PART I – FFP – MEMBER IN DISTRESS CH #1 – 5 PART II – TB APPARATUS P3 & L7 PART III EVOLUTIONS #8, 9, 18, 21 & 21A PART IV ERP ADD #3 {Explosives, Incendiary & Active Shooter} INSTRUCTOR: AC RON SPADAFORA Deck (61):

1 When a fire progresses beyond what stage must the fire area be considered Immediately
Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH)? (Chapter 1, 1.2)
A Decay stage
B Fully Developed stage
C Free Burning stage
D Incipient stage

1. D


2 No member shall enter, leave or operate in an IDLH atmosphere unless the member teams up
with at least one other member and remains within visual or voice contact with that member.
How many members designated as the Safety Team must be available to assist the interior team
should the need arise? (1.3)
A One
B At least two
C At least four
D Firefighter Assist and Search Team (FAST)

2. B


3 In the fire scenario where one 5 Firefighter Engine is the only unit on the scene, what
members would make up the Safety Team? (2.1.1)
A Control FF and Door FF
B Backup FF and Door FF
C Door FF and ECC
D Control FF and ECC

3. A


4 A 5 FF ladder company is the first apparatus to arrive at a structural fire with flames
blowing out the top floor windows. What members of the unit should the Officer designate as
the Safety Team? (2.1.1)
A Forcible Entry FF and OV FF
B Can FF and LCC
D OV FF and Can FF

4. C


5 An “understaffed” Engine (unit staffed with less than 4 FFs) arriving alone at a fully
developed structural fire with no known life hazard should take what correct action? (2.1.1)
A Stretch a hose line into the building to attack the fire
B Perform a team search of the fire area
C Hook up to a serviceable hydrant
D None of the above

5. C


6 A 4 FF Ladder company is designated the FAST while responding to a building fire. What
action must the Officer take upon arrival at the Command Post? (Chapter 2, 2.2)
A Instruct the dispatcher to assign another unit as the FAST
B Instruct the dispatcher to assign an additional Ladder company for the Box
C Bring additional FAST Pak to the ICP
D Inform the IC that the unit is not fully staffed

6. D


7 At roll call a Ladder company Lieutenant assigns an-Electronic Fireground Accountability
System (EFAS) trained member to monitor EFAS and the FAST radio. Where should this
member be instructed to report upon arrival at a fire scene? (5.1)
A Incident Command Post (ICP)
B Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS
C Division vehicle being used to monitor EFAS
D area designated for the FAST truck near the ICP

7. B


8 The FAST Unit Officer must continually utilize the COAL WAS WEALTH 13-point
size-up to anticipate possible problems pertaining to deployment. Which of the following items
below is NOT a component of this size-up acronym? (6)
A Weather
B Street Conditions
C Time
D Energy

8. D


9 When the FAST Unit arrives at the location of the distressed member, the Officer should
use the acronym FAIR to assess the situation at hand. What does the letter “F” represent?
A Fire
C First aid
D FAST Radio Board

9. A


10 Select the answer NOT in accord with FAST Unit Officer's responsibilities during a
removal effort of a member in distress. (Chapter 3, 3)
A Monitor handie-talkie transmissions
B Keep members focused on the job at hand
C Get physically involved in the operation regardless of manpower available
D Secure the removal route

10. C


11 Which of the following emergency air replenishment techniques should NOT be used if the
condition of the distressed member’s SCBA is in doubt? (7.4)
A High pressure air via Universal Air Coupling (UAC)
B Low pressure air via FAST Pak regulator with the member’s facepiece
C Low pressure air via Hansen Fitting of the low pressure hose
D Low pressure air via FAST Pak facepiece and regulator

11. A


12 Positioning an unconscious member on his/her right side will provide access to all but
which of the following? (10.1.2)
A Member’s name on back of bunker coat
B PRA identification number (unit/position) from a spare SCBA
C Helmet frontpiece
D Engraved identification number on the side of the handie-talkie

12. B


13 Choose a correct statement pertaining to the conversion of a SCBA into a harness using the
“Through the Leg Method” and the Personal Harness leg straps. (Chapter 3, Add 1, 1-2)
A Prior to converting a member’s SCBA into a harness, move the Firefighter to a supine
position providing a spinal injury is not suspected
B If possible, have member facing the direction of removal
C Packaging a member with the “Through the Leg Method” will allow for both a vertical or
horizontal removal
D None of the above are correct

13. C

2.1 Prior to converting the member’s SCBA into a harness, move the firefighter to a sitting
position providing we do not suspect any type of spinal injury. Once in a sitting position,
rotate the member, if possible, so that their back is facing toward the direction of


14 A correct statement regarding the Drag Rescue Device (DRD) can be found in what choice
below? (Chapter 3, Addendum 2, 1-2)
A Used only for unconscious member removal
B DRD handle is located over the collar on the inside of the bunker coat
C DRD is designed for horizontal drag only
D When DRD handle is pulled, device is designed to loosen around the member’s shoulders
and chest

14. C


15 A Rescue company Lieutenant giving a drill on nylon tubular webbing was accurate in
what point of information shown below? (Chapter 3, Addendum 3, 1-3.4)
A Breaking strength is 8000 lbs
B Knotted breaking strength is 4000 lbs
C To be used to assist in the removal of a conscious member or civilian from a hazardous
D Only used for dragging victims; no vertical lifts

15. D

 1" nylon tubular webbing in 20' lengths
 Breaking Strength 4000 lbs
 Knotted breaking strength 3000 lbs

3.1 To be used to assist in the removal of an unconscious member or civilian from a
hazardous environment.


16 A Lieutenant discussing with members the importance of providing valuable information to
the Incident Commander (IC) when in distress mentioned the acronym LUNA. What does the
letter "A" represents? (Chapter 4, 6.8)
A Amount of air in SCBA
B Access point for FAST Team
C Area of the building where located
D Assignment

16. D


17 The signal 10-66 need not be transmitted when the IC determines a situation involving a
lost, missing, trapped or seriously injured member who does not require additional resources and
can be mitigated by units already on the scene. Choose A if you agree with this statement or D if
you disagree. (Chapter 5, 1.2)
A Agree or D Disagree

17. A


18 A Captain assigned as a Street Coordinator Manager at an incident where the 10-66 signal
has been given is responsible for all but which of the following? (6.1)
A Coordinating EMS triage area
B Designating a Rehabilitation Sector
C Coordinating apparatus staging areas
D Establishing contact with NYPD to ensure traffic flow

18. B

6.1 The IC must assign a chief/company officer as a Street Coordinator Manager when signal
10-66 is transmitted. The early assignment of a Street Coordinator Manager will prevent
needless congestion and repositioning of apparatus as an incident escalates. This officer
and assigned members shall be responsible for:
 Establishing contact with PD and EMS Officers to ensure traffic flow, particularly
ambulance egress to hospitals.
 Ensuring access/egress of other essential vehicles.
 Positioning needed apparatus for the most efficient use.
 Coordinating apparatus staging areas.
 Coordinating EMS triage area with the Medical Branch Director


1 An Engine apparatus should have its pumps in the Pressure Position to facilitate water
supply during what type of operation listed below? (Apparatus P-3, 1.5)
A Standpipe operations
B Brush fire operations
C Cellar fires
D Subway operations

1. A


2 Select the incorrect statement regarding flowmeters. (1.12)
A Designed to measure the rate of flow of water in a confined space as it passes a given point
at a given time
B Registers readings whether water is flowing or not flowing
C Displays are represented in gallons per minute (GPM)
D Used by ECCs to determine problems with an operating handline

2. B


3 What type of hose must be used when drafting operations are indicated? (4)
A 35 foot soft hydrant connection
B 10 foot small hydrant connection
C 10 foot hard suction connection
D Length of 3 ½-inch hose

3. C


4 What statement below accurately describes the Pro-Pressure Governor (PPG) device on
Department Engine apparatus? (9.1)
A Controls the discharge pressure of the pump
B Enables the pump to operate in either the Pressure Position or the Volume Position
C Positive displacement pump
D Indicates negative or vacuum pressure

4. A


5 FDNY standard operating procedures require the PPG to be operated in what mode?
A Idle
B Pressure
C Volume

5. B

Note: FDNY standard operating procedures requires the PPG be operated in the pressure
mode. This is the default mode. This should not be confused with the Pumps Pressure


6 The Ross Relief Valve is used whenever a hose line is stretched and in operation. Select
the exception to this statement. (11.1)
A Supplying an 1 ¾-inch hoseline with a 15/16-inch nozzle
B Supplying a 2 ½-inch hoseline with a 1 1/8-inch nozzle
C Supplying a 2 ½-inch hoseline with a 1 ¼-inch nozzle
D Supplying a booster hoseline

6. D

11.1 The Ross Relief Valve is used whenever a line is stretched and in operation, except for
booster line operations. The function of the Ross Relief Valve is to give a measure of
protection to operating handlines against pressure surges, which can cause injury to
members or burst hose lengths.


7 An Engine company Lieutenant should instruct his/her ECC to notify the Incident
Commander (IC) at a fire operation when hydrant pressure at the apparatus intake inlet drops
below how many pounds per square inch (psi)? (12.3.4 Notes)
A 5psi
B 10 psi
C 15 psi
D 25 psi

7. C


8 The 100 foot Aerial Ladder operates by utilizing two double acting hydraulic lift cylinders.
What is the load capacity range of this ladder? (Apparatus L-7, 1.4)
A 200 - 1050 lbs
B 250 - 750 lbs
C 300 - 1250 lbs
D 350 - 1300 lbs

8. B


9 What is the distance needed on each side of the apparatus for clearance when utilizing the
100 foot Aerial Ladder “H” frame stabilizers? (1.6)
A 5 feet, 2-inches
B 6 feet, 10-inches
C 7 feet, 4-inches
D 8 feet, 6-inches

9. A


10 Where on the 100 foot Aerial Ladder apparatus are the stabilizer controls located?
A Inside the cab
B Behind the rear wheels
C At the back
D On the pedestal

10. C


11 What is meant by the term “Short-Jacked” when discussing “H” frame stabilizers? (3.3)
A Ground stabilizer pad is not level
B Green stabilizer Down Indicator Light is illuminated
C Locking pin is inserted into the highest peg hole on the jack
D Stabilizer is not fully extended horizontally

11. D


12 Choose a wrong statement concerning Aerial Ladder Extension Footage numbers. (4.4)
A Located on the inside of the Aerial Base section
B Located on the Base section vertical struts
C Located on the bright colored corresponding vertical strut of the Second section
D When colored strut is lined up with a footage number, the ladder is extended to that
respective length

12. A

4.4 Extension Footage numbers are located on the base section vertical struts and the
corresponding bright colored vertical strut of the second section. When the colored strut is
lined up with a footage number, the ladder is extended to that respective length. (Photo 2)


13 Why is it important to match up the Extension Footage and Inclinometer numbers on the
100 foot Aerial Ladder when it is in use? (4.5)
A Determine rung alignment
B Determine if the Aerial Ladder sections a locked
C Determine proper load capacity
D Determine if the Aerial Ladder is fully extended

13. C


PART III – EVOLUTIONS #8, 9, 18, 21 & 21A:
1 Water relays can complicate pumping operations for all but which one of the following
reasons? (Evolution 8, 2)
A Require coordination between two or more pumpers
B Potential for generating high pressures
C More communication is required
D Decreased possibility of introducing air into the operating pumper

1. D


2 What would be the pump status during a two pumper water relay at a standpipe operation
where both apparatus are equipped with Pro-Pressure Governors? (3.4)
A Supply pumper in Volume and the Operating pumper in Volume
B Supply pumper in Volume and the Operating pumper in Pressure
C Supply pumper in Pressure and the Operating pumper in Pressure
D Supply pumper in Pressure and the Operating pumper in Volume

2. B


3 A Lieutenant of the first arriving Engine transmits the signal 10-70 via Department radio.
What pumper on the initial alarm is designated as the Water Resource Unit? (3.1-3.2)
A Engine giving the 10-70 signal
B Next arriving Engine upon hearing the signal
C Second due Engine as per the alarm assignment card
D Third arriving Engine

3. B

3.2 The next arriving pumper, designated as the Water Resource Unit, upon hearing signal
10-70 must find a viable water source.


4 During a large warehouse fire on the waterfront a water relay operation is ordered by the
Incident Commander. According to Evolution 8, if the Supply pumper’s intake pressure drops
below 15 psi who should the ECC of this pumper notify that the hydrant’s supply limit has been
reached? (3.13)
A Operating pumper ECC and Water Resource Unit Officer
B Supply pumper Officer and Incident Commander
C Operating pumper ECC and Incident Commander
D Operating pumper Officer and the Incident Commander

4. C


5 When readying a hose line from a standpipe floor outlet located inside a stairwell, how
should the Engine Company position its folded lengths? (Evolution 9, 3.5)
A In hallway one floor below standpipe outlet
B On landing above standpipe outlet
C On landing below standpipe outlet
D In hallway on the floor where the fire is located

5. C

3.5 Remaining firefighters connect folded lengths as follows:
Place folded lengths on 4th floor landing below standpipe outlet, or in hallway adjacent to stairway door containing standpipe, with straps facing up and male and female hose butts adjacent to each other. Length with nozzle is placed most distant from standpipe with nozzle facing in direction of stretch. If available and needed, place additional length(s) in the sequence before nozzle


6 An Engine company Lieutenant instructing members on standpipe hose operations was
mistaken in which statement listed below? (3.9)
A All hose lines stretched from a standpipe shall be 2 ½-inch in diameter
B Controlling nozzle with 1 1/8-inch tip shall be used
C Generally, all hose lines stretched from standpipes are connected to outlets on a floor below
the fire
D Variations from stretching initial hose lines from standpipe outlets on a floor below the fire
due to building configuration shall be approved by the Borough Commander

6. D


7 If a pressure reducing valve (PRV) is found on a standpipe outlet, it should be removed.
Select A if you agree with this statement or D if you disagree. (3.9)
A Agree or D Disagree

7. D

Device not valve


8 What does the siamese color marking of aluminum indicate? (3.9)
A Non-automatic sprinkler system
B Automatic sprinkler system
C Combination standpipe/sprinkler system
D Standpipe system

8. A


9 At a high-rise hotel fire, the first arriving Engine will be utilizing the standpipe system for
its initial attack line. The Lieutenant of this company should instruct the ECC to take what
action? (3.9)
A Connect 1st supply line to standpipe siamese and 2nd supply line to sprinkler siamese
B Connect 1st supply line to sprinkler siamese and 2nd supply line to standpipe siamese
C Connect first two supply lines to the standpipe system
D Connect first two supply lines to the sprinkler system

9. A


10 In FDNY Evolutions, what type knot is used to hoist a portable ladder to the roof?
(Evolution 18, 3.5)
A Rolling hitch and binder
B Large loop bowline
C Clove hitch and binder
D Figure 8

10. B


11 Portable extension ladders are to be marked to facilitate hoisting operations. Where on
these ladders should the marks be made? (3.10)
A First and second rung above center of bed ladder
B First and second rung below tip of extension ladder
C First and second rung of extension ladder
D First and second rung of bed ladder

11. A


12 The proper angle for an aerial ladder from the ground when being utilized as a water tower
is: (Evolution 21, 3.5)
A 40 degrees
B 60 degrees
C 70 degrees
D 80 degrees

12. C


13 A Ladder company Lieutenant ordered by the IC to use the aerial ladder as a water tower
for a fire on the top floor of a vacant tenement, directed members to perform the following tasks:
(3.6 pictorial and NOTES)
1. Clamp portable water pipe with 3” hose connected to it to the center of the top two rungs of
the top sliding section of the aerial ladder
2. Secure hose strap just below the swivel of the ladder pipe
3. Ordered a Firefighter to operate the halyards to control the horizontal movement of the
water pipe
4. Ensured supply lines into aerial apparatus siamese were from two separate sources of water
The Officer was correct in actions:
A 1, 3 and 4 only
B 3 and 4 only
C 1, 2, 4 only
D 1, 2, 3, 4

13. C


14 The maximum extension of the fly ladder (tip to ground) for an aerial ladder with an
operating 1 ½” tip and under extreme conditions is: (3.6 NOTES)
A 80 feet
B 75 feet
C 70 feet
D 60 feet

14. A


15 What is the maximum pressure recommended on an aerial ladder portable, solid stream
nozzle (Evolution 21A, 4)
A 100 psi
B 90 psi
C 80 psi
D 70 psi

15. B


PART IV – ERP ADD #3 {Explosives, Incendiary & Active Shooter}:
1 Initiated by flame or impact, it detonates at speeds less than 3000 feet/second. This
definition pertains to what choice listed below? (3.2)
A High explosive
B Moderate explosive
C Low explosive
D Minimal explosives

1. C

3.1 Pyrotechnics - Creates smoke, heat, light and sound (e.g., fireworks).
3.2 Low Explosives - Controlled release of gas that creates a propellant, causing a pushing
effect, designed to burn, easier to ignite; initiated by flame or impact, detonate at speeds
less than 3000 ft/sec. (e.g., black powder, smokeless powder, rocket fuel).
3.3 High Explosives - Initiated by shock from a detonator or blasting cap (not spark or
flame), creates shattering effect in an instantaneous release of energy for maximum
dispersion and damage, detonates at speeds greater than 3000 ft/sec (average bullet from
a rifle travels at approximately 2700 ft/sec), the weapon of choice for suicide terrorists.


2 Five forms of stimuli initiate explosions. Which of the following is not mentioned as one
of the five? (3.5)
A Friction
B Brisance
C Electrostatic discharge (ESD)
D Shock

2. B


3 A Molotov cocktail is considered what type of arson device? (4.1)
A Improvised Explosive Device (IED)
B Chemical Reaction Bomb
C Improvised Incendiary Device (IID)
D All of the above

3. C


4 Letter/package IEDs are usually victim-activated during the opening process. Suspicious
characteristics of a letter/package IED include all but which of the following? (4.3.2)
A Mailed from foreign country
B Excessive postage
C Stained and unusual odor
D Return address provided

4. D


5 A Lieutenant at a special event notices a teenager holding a backpack in a crowd of people.
The teen appears out of place and looks nervous and fidgety. In this situation, the Officer should
take what appropriate action? (4.3.4, 5.3)
A Confront the teenager and insist he/she open the backpack
B Grab the teenager from behind and bring him/her to the ground
C Notify the Bureau of Fire Investigation of his/her suspicions
D Do nothing since the Officer is most likely just jumping to conclusions

5. C


6 Upon entry into a private dwelling during an odor of gas incident, a Ladder company
Lieutenant observes clandestine lab equipment inside the kitchen. Under these circumstances,
the Officer should take what initial action? (5.7)
A Retrace steps and back out of the area
B Determine the type of lab prior to leaving
C Contact the IC via handie talkie as to his/her findings
D Confiscate a piece of lab equipment for evidence purposes

6. A


7 Select the correct action a Company Officer should perform regarding the discovery of a
firearm at the scene of an incident. (6)
A Have a member check to see if the firearm is loaded
B Keep members out of line of the muzzle of the firearm
C Have a member use a long-handled shovel to remove the firearm, if necessary
D All of the above

7. B


8 Regarding explosive devices, handie talkies and cell phones should not be used within how
many feet of a suspected device? (7.3.1)
A 200 feet
B 150 feet
C 100 feet
D 50 feet

8. B


9 An Engine company is the first unit to arrive at the scene for a suspicious package
response. Upon arrival, the Officer observes indicators of an explosion resulting in civilian
injuries. All but which of the following are responsible actions for the Officer to take? (7.4)
A Transmit a “mixer off” message to the dispatcher providing information concerning the
B Conduct a 360 degree survey when dismounting the apparatus
C Ensure immediate metering and monitoring of the atmosphere
D Commit limited personnel to area until considered safe

9. A

7.4.2 Scene Safety
 Conduct a 360 degree survey when dismounting apparatus.
 Consider the risk to responder versus reward before undertaking rescue and
offensive operations.
 Ensure immediate metering and monitoring of the atmosphere.
 Ensure scene is safe of secondary threats.
 Commit limited personnel to area until considered safe.
 Ensure members don appropriate PPE.
 Establish perimeter based on recommended distances (appendix).
 Evaluate for other hazards, (i.e., chemical, radiological).


10 At an explosion incident, an Engine company is the first unit assigned to a Staging Area in
a protected spot that has already been searched for potential threats by the NYPD. The Officer
should have his/her members take what initial action upon arrival? (7.5.4)
A Don SCBA and proper PPE and proceed to the Incident Command Post (ICP)
B Ensure radiation detection devices are brought to the site of the explosion
C Share their tools with the NYPD personnel at the Staging Area
D Conduct a search of the Staging Area to ensure all threats are identified

10. D

7.5.4 Safety of Members
 Approach all explosions as if it was a deliberate act.
 Don appropriate PPE. Do not don SCBA facepiece unless there are
indications of respiratory danger. The reduced vision while wearing a
facepiece could become a safety issue.
 Do not approach a suspect’s remains or explosives still on scene; there may be
undetonated or partially detonated explosives or secondary device present.
The devices may be susceptible to external stimuli or have a functioning
backup system, secondary initiator or delayed timer.
 Be aware that one of the victims may be the suspect.
 Refrain from opening doors, lockers, pails, etc.
 Stage incoming units in a protected area that has been searched for any threats
by NYPD personnel. The FDNY members assigned to a staging area must
also conduct a thorough search of the area to ensure all threats and
suspicious objects are identified and mitigated.


11 An Engine company is the first unit on scene for a fire in a multiple dwelling where
occupants can be seen calling for help out windows on the fire floor. Additionally, gun shots are
heard coming from the roof of the fire building. In this situation what correct action should the
Officer take upon arrival? (7.6)
A Order a hose line stretched since there is an extreme threat to life safety
B Ensure members keep their eye shields down for protection during the hose stretch
C Await the arrival of the NYPD prior to starting an interior attack on the fire
D Immediately withdraw and request police response

11. D


12 Regarding the Effects of Overpressure from an explosion, what is considered the lethal
threshold for our members? (Appendix 1)
A 100 psi
B 75 psi
C 30 psi
D 15 psi

12. A

Appendix 1: Effects of Overpressure
1 psi Personnel knocked down
5 psi Possible ear drum rupture
15 psi 50% chance of ear drum rupture
30 psi Possible lung injury
75 psi 50% chance of lung injury
100 psi Lethal threshold
200-250 psi Nearly 100% lethal


13 According to the ATF, a full size sedan with 1,000 pounds of explosives in the trunk would
have a lethal air blast range of how many feet? (Appendix 2)
A 6,500 feet
B 3,750 feet
C 125 feet
D 100 feet

13. C


14 A pipe bomb with a 5 pound explosive mass (TNT equivalent) located inside an
unreinforced structure has a Building Evacuation Distance of how many feet? (Appendix 3)
A 40 feet
B 70 feet
C 90 feet
D 110 feet

14. B


15 What is the shelter-in-place zone recommended by the FBI-DHS for a briefcase/suitcase
bomb with a 50 explosive capacity? (Appendix 4)
A 71 - 1199 feet
B 111 - 1699 feet
C 151 - 1849 feet
D 321 - 1899 feet

15. C

Decks in Firetech Class (61):