Our Clues 4 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

MEN 3 or 2b

A

Medullary carcinoma of thyroid (= incr calcitonin)

Pheochromocytoma

Marfanoid features, neuroma/ganglioneuroma

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2
Q

What are the 3 syndromes with Marfanoid features?

A

1) Marfan’s
2) MEN 3 or 2b
3) Homocystinuria

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3
Q

Drug cause of osteonecrosis (especially mandible)

A

Bisphosphonates (end in “-nate”)

MOA: inhibit osteoclastic activity
Bind Ca and Mg, causing Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia

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4
Q

Foregut:
- Blood supply
- Innervation
- What organs?
- Rotation?

A

Blood supply: celiac trunk

Innervation: sympathetic = T5-9, parasympathetic = vagus

Organs: Lungs & GI tract = mouth to 2nd part of duodenum

Rotation: 90 degrees

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5
Q

Midgut:
- Blood supply
- Innervation
- What organs
- Rotation?

A

Blood supply: superior mesenteric artery

Innervation: sympathetic = T9-12, parasympathetic = vagus

Organs: 2nd part of duodenum to splenic flexure

Rotation? 270 degrees counterclockwise from yolk sac via dynein/kinesin

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6
Q

Hindgut:
- Blood supply
- Innervation
- What organs?
- Rotation?

A

Blood supply: inferior mesenteric artery

Innervation: sympathetic = L1-2, parasympathetic = splanchnic nerve

Organs: Splenic flexure to anus

No rotation, just septation

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7
Q

Causes of incr amniotic fluid (polyhydramnios)
- autonomic dysfunction
- neuromuscular disease
- unable to digest

A

Riley-Day Syndrome
- cannot swallow
- familial dysautonomia
- baby cries w/o tears

Werdnig-Hoffman Syndrome
- cannot swallow
- floppy baby with fasciculations

UGI atresia
- esophagus
- duodenal

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8
Q

Causes of decr amniotic fluid (= Oligohydramnios)

A

Fetus cannot pee

Renal agenesis
- associated with ACE inhibitor use in mom

Bladder obstruction

Metanephros did not develop -> Potter syndrome

Ureteric bud fails to make contact with metanephros -> Potter syndrome

Posterior urethral valves

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9
Q

What is the hunger center of hypothalamus?
What is the satiety center of hypothalamus?

A

Hunger center -> lateral nucleus
(Stimulated by decr glucose or NT (NE, serotonin) 20%)

Satiety center -> Ventromedial
(Stimulated by incr glucose, gastric stretch, or NT (NE, serotonin) 80%)

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10
Q

Dx with aggressive appetite, where they typically die from overeating?
(What is the genetic component?)

A

Prader-Willi
- Lesion of satiety center (= ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus)
- uniparental disomy
- genomic imprinting
- trinucleotide repeats
- chromosome 15

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11
Q

DOC for ADHD
- MOA
- side effects

A

Methylphenidate

Amphetamine -> taken up presynaptically => causes release of catecholamines (incr DA, NE, 5-HT)

SE: vertical nystagmus (all amphetamines) and hypogognic hallucinations

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12
Q

How to differentiate amphetamines

A

All cause vertical/rotary nystagmus

Methylphenidate -> hypogognic hallucinations (go to sleep)

LSD -> colorful hallucinations

PCP -> violent, aggression, hallucinations from serotonin

Ecstasy -> excessive thirst, hallucinations from serotonin

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13
Q

Differentiate type (serous/mucus) and nerve:
Salivary Glands

  • parotid
  • lingual
  • sublingual
  • submandibular
A

Parotid: serous (CN IX)

Lingual: mixed, mostly serous (CN VII)

Sublingual: mixed, mostly mucus (CN VII)

Submandibular: mucus (CN VII)

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14
Q

MOA of Cimetidine

A

H2 blocker, w/ famotidine, nizatidine, ranitidine

MOA: block H2 to decr HCl secretion

Use: mild GERD, gastritis

SE: gas, nausea, vomiting

Cimetidine inhibits cyp450

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15
Q

MOA of lansoprazole

A

PPI = proton pump inhibitor
Ends in “-prazole”

MOA: block 90% production of acid in parietal cells

Use: PUD, severe GERD, H pylori

SE: bleeding, bloating, gas

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16
Q

What is the only pancreatic enzyme that cuts to the left?

A

Carboxypeptidases
(Cuts to the left of carboxy terminal)

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17
Q

Cutting locations for Pancreatic Enzymes:
- trypsin
- elastase
- chymotrypsin
- amylase

A

Trypsin (trip to LA): to the right of Lys, Arg

Elastase (is GAS): to the right of Gly, Ala, Ser

Chymotrypsin (o for aromatic ring): to the right of Phe, Tyr, Trp

Amylase: breaks down alpha-1,4 bonds

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18
Q

Which bilirubin causes jaundice?

A

Unconjugated (= Indirect)
-> It’s fat soluble, leading to distribution to tissues

(Conjugated (= Direct) is water soluble, therefore no jaundice)

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19
Q

Dx with increased unconjugated bilirubin:

Crigler-Najjar Type 1

A
  • autosomal recessive
  • complete deficiency of UDP-glucuronyl transferase
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20
Q

Dx with increased unconjugated bilirubin:

Crigler-Najjar type 2

A
  • partial deficiency of UDP-glucuronyl transferase
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21
Q

Dx with increased unconjugated bilirubin:

Gilbert’s syndrome

A

In stress, glucuronyl transferase becomes saturated

22
Q

Dx with increased conjugated bilirubin:
Rotor’s syndrome

A
  • mild compared to Dubin-Johnson
  • defective bilirubin transport
  • Rotor = Regular liver, d/t absence of black pigment
23
Q

Dx with increased conjugated bilirubin:
Dubin-Johnson syndrome

A
  • defective bilirubin transport
  • Dublin = Dark liver b/c black pigment
24
Q

Dx with increased conjugated bilirubin:
Cholestatic Jaundice

A

D/t Post-hepatic obstruction

25
Name the gallstone: - white/yellow, radiolucent - black/green, radiopaque - brown
- cholesterol = white/yellow, radiolucent (80%) - calcium bilirubinate = black/green, radiopaque - infectious = brown -> salmonella, E. coli
26
Which fatty acid does not require lacteals for absorption?
Medium-chain FA - cross intestinal wall by binding to albumin - then transported to the liver (Short and long chain FA are absorbed through lacteals with chylomicrons)
27
MOA of cholestyramine
Bile-acid resin = cholestyramine, colestipol MOA: bind up bile salts and pulls out cholesterol for excretion. (With no cholesterol, the liver pulls more from the plasma) Use: hypercholesterolemia SE: steatorrhea, gallstones
28
MOA of Niacin
MOA: - inhibits lipolysis - major incr of HDL - decr TG - inhibits hepatic VLDL production SE: - flushed face (incr PGs) -> give with ASA - elev histamine - elev insulin resistance (incr gout)
29
MOA of Bortezomib Downregulates?
26S Proteasome inhibitor Downregulates MHC I Decr interaction with CD 8+ T lymphocytes Use: multiple myeloma
30
What cells are involved in lymphoid tissue hyperplasia? What is the immune response? What infections?
T cells (this is where they differentiate) Cell-mediated (patrols tissues) Protects against viruses, fungi (everything except bacteria)
31
What B cell stage of development is it if you see Mu chains in cytoplasm?
Pre-B
32
What cells are involved in germinal cell hyperplasia? What immune response? What infections?
B cells (this is where they differentiate) Humoral immune (patrols blood) Protects against bacteria
33
What is the most potent interleukin? Function? Drug?
IL-2 -> recruits everybody Daclizumab -> antibody against IL-2 (Used in transplants to prevent rejection)
34
Interleukin responsible for class switching? Exception? (And it’s IL)
IL-4 (2nd messenger is tyrosine kinase b/c it is a growth factor) IL-5 (Class switching of IgA only)
35
What B cell stage of development is it if you see IgM on the surface as a monomer?
Immature B cells
36
What B cell stage of development is it if you see IgM and IgD on their surface?
Mature B cell (You need your MD to go to work.) Now a plasma cell can produce antibodies.
37
What is needed to stimulate B cells?
Endotoxin Pokeweed mitogen AD-labeled thymidine
38
What is the first antibody made? - arrives when? - peaks in? - lasts for?
IgM - arrives in 3 days - peaks in 2 weeks - lasts for 2 months ONLY antibody produced in a newborn until 6 months
39
What antibody can start being made at: - 6 months? - arrives in? - peaks in? - lasts for?
Primary IgG - class switching starts at 6 months - arrives in 2 weeks - peaks in 2 months - lasts for 1 year
40
Timeline of antibodies: - first antibody made? - class switching time? - 2nd antibody made? - memory response start? - fully developed?
IgM 6 months IgG 12 months 15 months
41
What antibodies have memory?
IgA in secretions/mucosal surfaces IgE in allergies IgG in blood (memory) - highest affinity - arrives in 3 days - peaks at 5 years - lasts for 10 years
42
What are the amino acids that make an active site?
Glutamate Histidine Serine
43
Why are alcoholics considered immunocompromised?
Alcohol breaks down disulfide bonds. There are a lot of disulfide bonds in antibodies, meaning no antibodies remain formed in alcoholics.
44
What antibody targets the Fc portion of IgG? Disease? New marker?
Rheumatoid factor Rheumatoid arthritis Anti-citrullinated antibody
45
What are the immunoprivileged sites? (No lymphatics running through them)
Brain Thymus Cornea Testicle
46
How do CD4 cells communicate with B cells? With macrophages?
CD40 ligand B7/CD28 molecule
47
What cells are CD16 and CD56 pos?
NK cells - do not go through clonal deletion - responsible for immunosurveillance - can detect cancer at the one cell stage
48
What drug can destroy CD3?
Muronamab Used in T cell lymphomas
49
What hypersensitivity has no complement involved?
Type 1 IgE does not fix complement
50
Examples of T1 HSR
Anaphylaxis Urticaria Steven-Johnson syndrome Erythema multiforme