Pan-Systemic Flashcards
1
Q
Alpha diversity
A
Quantifies richness of microbial species within an individual
2
Q
Beta diversity
A
Compares microbial communities between individuals
3
Q
Gamma diversity
A
Examines overall microbial diversity within a population
4
Q
Primary reservoir host for Leptospirosis
A
Rodents
5
Q
Two most prominent clinical manifestations of Leptospirosis
A
Tubulointerstitial nephritis (AKI)
Cholestatic hepatopathy
6
Q
Gold standard for diagnosis of Leptospirosis
A
Combo MAT (acute/ convalescent) & PCR
7
Q
Treatment for Leptospirosis
A
Doxycycline or beta-lactam (ampicillin/amoxicillin)
8
Q
Route of zoonotic transmission of Leptospirosis from dogs to people
A
Direct contact of urine or tissues with mucosal membranes
9
Q
Most sensitive screening test for B. canis
A
RSAT (rapid slide agglutination test)
10
Q
Cause of cat scratch fever
A
Bartonella henselae
11
Q
Transmission vector of Bartonella in cats
A
Ctenocephalides felis (cat flea)
12
Q
Common cause of blood culture-negative endocarditis in dogs
A
Bartontella spp
13
Q
Primary tick vector for Lyme disease
A
Ixodes spp (pacificus & scapularis)
14
Q
Most common outcome of Lyme infection in dogs
A
Subclinical infection (no clinical signs)
15
Q
Positive C6 serology assay for Borrelia burgdorferi in a dog. Next diagnostic step?
A
Urinalysis (screen for proteinuria)
16
Q
Cause of canine monocytic ehrlichiosis
A
Ehrlichia canis
17
Q
Cause of canine granulocytic ehrlichiosis
A
Ehrlichia ewingii
18
Q
Primary vector for transmission of Ehrlichia canis
A
Rhipicephalus sanguineus (brown dog tick)
19
Q
Manifestation of chronic canine monocytic ehrlichiosis
A
Bone marrow hypoplasia resulting in pancytopenia
20
Q
Forms of canine monocytic ehrlichiosis (3)
A
Acute
Subclinical
Chronic
21
Q
Treatment for Ehrlichiosis
A
Doxyccyline
22
Q
Primary vector for transmission of Ehrlichia ewingii
A
Amblyomma americanum (lone star tick)
23
Q
Morulae present within neutrophils in peripheral blood of a dog. List two differentials
A
- Ehrlichia ewingii
- Anaplasma phagocytophilum
24
Q
Primary vector for transmission of Anaplasma phagocytophilum
A
Ixodes spp
25
Primary vector for transmission of Anaplasma platys
Rhipicephalus sanguineus (brown dog tick)
26
CBC finding common to all Rickettsial organisms
Thrombocytopenia
27
Cause of canine cyclic thrombocytopenia
Anaplasma platys
28
Tick vectors responsible for transmission of Rickettsia rickettsii (3)
Dermacentor variabilis
Dermacentor andersoni
Rhipicephalus sanguineus
29
Important virulence factors on the membrane of Rickettsia rickettsii (2)
OmpA
OmpB
30
Pathogenesis of Rickettsia rickettsii
Disseminated vasculitis due to endothelial tropism
31
Salmon poisoning disease etiology
Neorickettsia helminthoeca
32
Vector for salmon poisoning disease
Nanophyetus salmincola (trematode)
33
Intermediate host for salmon poisoning disease
Aquatic snail
34
Treatments (2) for salmon poisoning in dogs
Doxycycline
Praziquantel
35
5 sites associated with disseminated coccidioidomycosis
Bone
Skin
CNS
Ocular
Heart (pericarditis)
36
Gold-standard diagnostic for Coccidiomycosis
Gel immunodiffusion assays (IgG/IgM); urine antigen has low sensitivity and is not recommended
37
Most sensitive diagnostic for Blastomycosis
Urine or serum antigen
38
Which of the following organisms does the Blasto urine antigen test NOT cross-react with:
A) Aspergillus
B) Histoplasmosis
C) Cryptococcus
D) Coccidioides
C- Crypto
39
Most common anatomic sites affected in dogs with Histoplasmosis (2)
GIT
Lung
40
T/F: pulmonary parenchymal involvement with Cryptococcus is very common in dogs and cats
False
41
Importance virulence factor for Cryptococcus
Polysaccharide capsule
42
Cutaneous lesions on the bridge of the nose are common with which fungal organism?
Cryptococcus
43
Most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of Cryptococcus in cats
Cryptococcal antigen latex agglutination (CALAS)
44
Vector for Leishmania spp
Sand flies
45
Three forms of Leishmaniosis in dogs
Cutaneous
Mucosal
Visceral
46
Which form of Leishmania is inoculated into hosts from the vector?
Promastigote (transforms to amastigote once phagocytosed by macrophage)
47
Mode of transmission of Babesia gibsoni in North America
Direct transmission (fighting) or transplacental
48
Primary vector for transmission of Babesia canis in dogs
Rhipecephalus sanguineus
49
Primary clinical manifestation of Babesiosis
Hemolytic anemia (intra-erythrocytic protozoan parasite)
50
Treatment for Babesia canis
Imidocarb
51
Peripheral blood smear finding associated with Cytauxzoon felis infection
Signet ring intra-erythrocytic inclusions (piroplasms)
52
Primary tick vector for Cytauxzoonosis
Amblyomma americanum
53
Which phase of infection with Hepatozoon americanum results in severe myositis?
Release of merozoites from cysts formed in skeletal muscle
54
Primary tick vector for Hepatozoon americanum
Gulf coast tick (Amblyomma maculatum)
55
Protozoal cause of myocarditis in dogs living in Texas
Trypanosoma cruzi
56
How quickly does death typically occur following onset of clinical signs associated with rabies?
7-10 days
57
Gold standard for diagnosis of rabies
IFA on brainstem
58
Unvaccinated dog exposed to a rabid wild animal. Next step?
Euthanasia or quarantine for 6 months
59
Person is bit by a healthy dog. What's the next step?
Confine dog for 10 days
60
Which T cells are directly destroyed by Distemper virus?
CD4+
61
Which cytokine is induced by FIP in the effusive form?
VEGF
62
Which leukocyte does FIP multiply within?
Macrophages
63
What % of cats with FIP have hyperglobulinemia?
50% with effusion, 70% without effusion
64
Definitive diagnosis of FIP
IHC staining of coronavirus antigen within lesions characterized by pyogranulomatous vasculitis
65
Most common method by which drugs move through the body
Passive diffusion
66
Bioavailability
% of an administered drug that reaches systemic circulation
67
Which of the following is not a P-gp substrate:
A) Phenobarbital
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Digoxin
D) Doxorubicin
A) Phenobarbital
68
Which plasma protein do acidic drugs predominantly bind to?
Albumin
69
Name three examples of highly protein-bound drugs
NSAIDs
Cefovecin (Convenia)
Doxycycline
Diazepam
Lidocaine
Propranolol
70
Volume of distribution
Amount of tissue to which a drug is distributed or the ease of which drug leaves the plasma
71
Drug which undergoes redistribution
Propofol
72
Most common phase II metabolism reaction
Glucuronidation
73
Which of the following is not a CYP inhibitor:
A) Ketoconazole
B) Fluoroquinolones
C) Omeprazole
D) Phenobarbital
D) Phenobarbital (CYP inducer)
74
How many half-lives are required for elimination of >97% of a drug?
5
75
Drug clearance
Amount of plasma cleared of a drug per unit of time
76
First order elimination
Rate of elimination is proportional to concentration of a drug (constant fraction eliminated per unit time)
77
Zero-order elimination
Constant rate of elimination regardless of drug concentration
78
How many half-lives are required to reach steady state with constant dosing?
3-5 half-lives
79
T/F: administration of a loading dose achieves steady state faster than maintenance dosing
False- only therapeutic levels are reached faster
80
How is absolute bioavailability determined?
By measuring AUC after non-IV administration and comparing to IV adminsitration
81
Formula for volume of distribution
Dose/PDC
82
Difference between drug affinity and activity
Affinity= capacity to bind to a receptor
Activity= capacity to activate or inactivate a receptor
83
Therapeutic index
Ratio of adverse event EC50 to therapeutic effect EC50
84
Difference between efficacy and potency
Efficacy is the maximum effect a drug can have
Potency is the concentration required to induce the same magnitude of response
85
Tachyphylaxis
Rapid decreasing response to a drug after only a few doses
86
Mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics
Inhibition of PBP on Gram + bacterial cell membrane, interfering with peptidoglycan synthesis
87
Mechanism of action of aminoglycoside antibiotics
Binds to 30S ribosomal subunit to disrupt bacterial protein synthesis
88
Mechanism of action of phenicol antibiotics
Binds to 50S ribosomal subunit to disrupt bacterial protein synthesis
89
Mechanism of action of potentiated sulfonamides
Inhibition of bacterial folate synthesis
Sulfas competitively inhibit PABA (folate precursor) and diaminopyrimidines inhibit dihydrofolate reductase
90
Mechanism of action of tetracycline antibiotics
Binds to 30S ribosomal subunit to disrupt bacterial protein synthesis
91
Mechanism of action of macrolide antibiotics
Binds to 50S ribosomal subunit to disrupt bacterial protein synthesis
92
Mechanism of action of fluoroquinolone antibiotics
Inhibits topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV to inhibit DNA supercoiling
93
Mechanism of action of azole antifungals
Blocks synthesis of ergosterol component of fungal membranes via inhibition of sterol14a-demethylase
94
Mechanism of action of amphotericin B
Binds to ergosterol on fungal membranes and increases permeability
95
Predominant side effect of amphotericin B
Nephrotoxicity
96
Mechanism of action of buprenorphine
Partial u-agonist, weak k, delta antagonist
97
Mechanism of action of butorphanol
K-agonist, u-antagonist
98
Reversal for benzodiazepines
Flumazenil
99
Primary mechanism of action of acepromazine
Anti-dopaminergic
Also has alpha-adrenergic blocking, anticholinergic, antihistaminic, antispasmodic properties
100
Nitrogen mustards and nitrosoureas belong to which class of chemotherapeutics?
Alkylating agents
101
Nitrosurea chemotherapuetics (2)
CCNU
Streptozocin
102
Nitrogen mustard chemotherapeutics (3)
Melphalan
Cyclophosphamide
Chlorambucil
103
Major adverse affect associated with cisplatin administration
Nephrotoxicity
104
Antidote for doxorubicin
Dexrazoxane
105
Antitumor antibiotics (3)
Doxorubicin
Mitoxantrone
Actinomycin D
106
Major unique side effects of doxorubicin (2)
Cardiotoxicity
Severe necrosis associated with extravasation of drug
107
Which phase of the cell cycle does doxorubicin work in?
S phase
108
Antimetabolite chemotherapeutics (5)
Cytarabine
Gemcitabine
5-FU
Methotrexate
Hydroxyurea
109
In which phase of the cell cycle does cytarabine work?
S phase
110
2 chemotherapeutics which cause significant necrosis with extravasation
Doxorubicin
Vincristine
111
Rationale for metronomic chemotherapy
Anti-angiogenesis
112
In which phase of the cell cycle do vinca alkaloids work?
M phase (microtubule disrupter)
113
Which chemotherapeutics are MDR1 mutants more susceptible to? (4)
Vinca alkaloids
Doxorubicin & mitoxantrone
Taxanes
114
Most common cause of hypercalcemia of malignancy
Lymphoma
115
Most common cause of hypercalcemia in dogs
Neoplasia
116
Name 3 tumors which can cause hypoglycemia
Insulinoma
Leiomyoma/leiomyosarcoma
Hepatocellular carcinoma
117
One of the most common paraneoplastic syndromes
Anemia
118
What % of dogs with lymphoproliferative disorders are thrombocytopenic?
58%
119
Most common neoplastic cause of DIC in dogs
Hemangiosarcoma
120
Paraneoplastic alopecia in cats is caused by which tumor
Pancreatic carcinomas
121
Tumor associated with superficial necrolytic dermatitis
Glucagonoma
122
Most common cause of acquired myasthenia gravis in the dog
Thymoma
123
Causes of lipid keratopathy (3)
Hypothyroidism
Diabetes mellitus
Pancreatitis
124
Name 3 breeds predisposed to uveodermatologic syndrome
Akita
Samoyed
Golden
Irish Setter
Old English Sheepdog
125
Tick borne causes of uveitis (2)
Ehrlichia canis
Rickettsia rickettsii
126
Darrier's sign
Localized erythema associated with degranulation of MCT
127
4 endocrine-related disorders that cause alopecia
Hypothyroidism
Hyperadrenocorticism
Hyperestrogenism
Pituitary dwarfism
128
What % of SLE cases have skin lesions?
40-50%
129
Rate of nosocomial infections in intensive care patients in one study
16%
130
Most common cause of hospital-acquired infectious diarrhea in small animals
Salmonella
131
Veterinary professionals have high rates of colonization of what pathogen on their skin?
MRSA
132
#1 opportunistic pathogen of dogs
Staphylococcus pseudintermedius
