Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NBCOT > Pediatrics > Flashcards

Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

the most common condition found in premature newborns; it can lead to heart failure and inadequate oxygenation of the brain

A

patent ductus ateriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

opening in the septum between the right and left atrium; results in ‘wet lungs’ (blood) and may lead to respiratory infection; right ventricle works hard and may lead to heart failure; poor exercise tolerance and small for chronological age

A

atrial septal deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

one or more openings in the muscular or membranous portions of the ventricular septum; 50% self-correct by age 5; may result in Eisenmenger’s complex, pulmonary vascular obstruction, increased blood flow. and high pressure; feeding difficulty, SOB, increased perspiration, increased respiratory infections, fatigue with activity, delayed growth

A

ventricular septal deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

pressure in the pulmonary arteries becomes so high that it causes oxygen-poor (blue) blood to flow from the right to left ventricle and then to the body, causing cyanosis. The high pressure also causes the wall of your heart’s right ventricle to thicken (hypertrophy)

A

Eisenmengers syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

decreased pulmonary blood flow characterized by pulmonary valve or artery stenosis, ventricular septal deficits, right ventricle hypertrophy, and override of ventricular septum; central cyanosis, coagulation defects, finger/toe clubbing, feeding difficulty, failure to thrive, dyspnea

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

mixed pulmonary blood flow characterized by no communication between systemic and pulmonary circulations; result of coexisting congenital transposition of ventricles; cyanosis, CHF, respiratory distress

A

transposition of great arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

abnormally slow heart rate (<60 bpm); typically atrioventricular block; may require a pace maker

A

bradydysrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

abnormally fast heart rate for a child (>200-300 bpm); can lead to CHF; irritability, poor eating habits, palor

A

tachydysrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

compromised oxygen absorption and carbon monoxide elimination caused by a deficiency of surfactant (produced 34-36 weeks gestation); many recover after a few days and some develop chronic lung conditions

A

respiratory distress syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

airway thickening, formation of excess mucus, and restricted alveolar growth as a result of prolonged use of mechanical ventilation and other traumatic interventions to treat acute respiratory problems; at greater risk for respiratory infections

A

bronchopulmonary dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

bronchial smooth muscle hyperreactivity that causes airway constriction in the lower respiratory tract, difficulty breathing, and wheezing

A

asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

degenerative condition (chromosome 7); muscle-producing glands malfunctioning and producing secretions that are thick, viscous, and lacking in water and block the pancreatic duct, bronchial tree, and digestive tract; abdominal distension, salty-tasting skin, excess sodium levels, greasy/foul stools; can lead to chronic pulmonary disease and enlarged R heart (heart failure)

A

cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

hematological disorder characterized by too many red blood cells and elevated white blood cells; experienced by 1 in every 150 children with down syndrome

A

eryhtocytosis or transient leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

blood disorder commonly affecting males; characterized by the absence or reduction of one of the clotting blood proteins; longer bleeding time, bleeding episodes, excessive bruising, nosebleeds

A

hemophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

severe hemophilia is differentiated because of it’s effect on

A

joints and muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

an iron deficiency in the blood treated through diet; may be symptom of lead poisoning, vitamin deficiency, leukemia, and sickle-cell disease

A

anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

abnormally shaped red blood cells; common in African-Americans; decreased energy for daily tasks, at risk for organ damage, painful

A

sickle cell anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

brittle bones with minor trauma able to cause a fracture; decreased bone deposition from inability to form type I collagen; transmitted by autosomal dominant; range from mild to severe (indicated by age of onset); handling and monitored weight bearing important

A

osteogenesis imperfecta (OI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

excessive growth at epiphyseal plates; long slender fingers, skull asymmetry, tall stature (joint/eye/heart differences); lax/hypermobile joints and poorly developed striated muscles; walking delayed but otherwise meets developmental milestones

A

Marfans syndrome (arachondactyly)

‘that MF is tall’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

stunting of epiphyseal plate growth and cartilage formation; 4 feet tall or less; short limbs, prominent forehead, small nose and jaw, trunk normal; lumbar lordosis, coxa vara cubitus varas, back/leg pain

A

achondroplasia (chondrodystrophia/dwarfism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

hip deformity

A

coxa vara

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

part of limb deviates to midline of body

A

cubitus varas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

reduced anterior horn cells in the SC; incomplete contracture (fibrous ankylosis) of many joints; thick/spindly extremities, thickened knee/elbow joints; muscles underdeveloped/paralysis; increase ROM and adaptive equipment

A

arthrogryposis multiplex congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

fibrous connective tissue process which results in decreased range of motion.

A

Fibrous ankylosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

unilateral or bilateral forefoot adduction and supination, heel varus (midline), equinus of the ankle (tightness), and medial deviation of the foot; underdeveloped LE musculature; passive treatment

A

congenital club foot (talipes equinovarus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

bilateral hip laxity causing increased uterine pressure and poor presenting positions (hereditary or in utero); sudden passive extension with legs extended/adducted when caused in utero; breech presentation; if not treated early with splinting, trendelenburg sign can result and may need surgery

A

developmental dysplasia of the hip (congenital hip dislocation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

assess for dysplasia by examining whether clicking is present when the leg is abducted and pressure placed on the medial thick

A

barlow test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

hip drop to the opposite side of dislocation and trunk shift toward the dislocated hip when standing on one foot

A

Trendelenburg’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

physical anomaly in which a person has an excess of finger or toes (relatively common); amputation or reconstruction in childhood

A

polydactyly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

condition in which webbing occurs between the fingers or toes; frequent in the UE’s of boys; splinting and scar reduction

A

syndactyly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

overly small digits (plastic surgery may be performed)

A

microdactyly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

absence of a limb or distal segment of a limb

A

amelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

fully or partially formed distal extremity and absence of one of more proximal segments

A

phocomelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

proximal segments of the limb are correctly develoed but either the medial or lateral side of the rest of the limb is missing

A

paraxial deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

amputation of a limb segment across the central area; common for bilateral or hemilateral presentations

A

transverse hemimelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

muscle injury caused by too strong an effort or excessive use of a particular body part; trauma to the muscle or muscle-tendon insertion

A

strain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ligament injury caused by trauma to a joint characterized by rapid swelling, heat, and impaired function

A

sprain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

childhood arthritis occurring between 2 and 4; characterized by persistent arthritis in one or more joints for >6 weeks; joint inflammation, joint stiffness, joint contractures; splint, AROM/PROM, prevent deformity, energy conservation, adaptive equipment, joint protection

A

juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

JRA involving fewer than 5 joints

A

pauciarticular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

JRA involving more than 5 joints

A

polyarticular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

polyarticular JRA with organ involvement; high fever, rash, anorexia, elevated WBC, enlarged liver and spleen

A

systemic JRA (Still’s disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

fracture where the bone is broken into many splintered pieces

A

comminuted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

fracture where broken bone leads to external wound at side and bone often protrudes through the skin

A

compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

fracture occurs between the shaft of the bone and epiphysis; only occurs in pediatric clients

A

epiphyseal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

fracture where bone is partially broken and partially bent; only occurs in children and frequently with Rickets

A

greenstick fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

anteroposterior curvature directed posteriorly (hollow back) as a result of anterior pelvic tilt in the lumbar region (common); secondary to obesity, hip flexion contractures, and muscular dystrophy; treat underlying cause

A

lordosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

posterior convexity (round back) primarily in upper back; result of faulty posture (skeletal growth outpaces muscular growth); common in spina bifida cystica and arthritis; postural training, strengthening, Milwaukee brace, spinal release/spinal fusion

A

kyphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

brace that runs from pelvis to base of skull; useful for kyphosis

A

Milwaukee brace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

lateral curvature, spinal rotation, and thoracic hypokyphosis; treat if lateral curvature > 10 degrees; < 20: mild; > 40 permanent deformity; 65-80 reduced cardiopulmonary function; Boston brace (children), TLSO; strengthening, ADL adaptations

A

scoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

scoliosis caused by poor postural tone, hip contractures, leg length discrepancy, pain; spine flexible

A

functional scoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

scoliosis that is usually structural, caused by abnormal spinal or spinal cord structure or disease of the nervous system

A

congenital scoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

non progressive condition the includes neurologic, motor, and postural deficits; common comorbidities include language, cognitive, sensory, and psychosocial deficits; feeding and seizure disorders common; difficulty maintaining normal muscle postures because of a lack of muscle co-activation and development of abnormal compensatory movement patterns

A

cerebral palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

congenital CP is most commonly the result of ________ and infants are at risk __________ weeks gestations

A

prematurity; 26-32 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

retention of primitive reflexes, abnormal/variable tone, hyperresponsive tendon reflexes, asymmetrical extremity use, clonus, poor feeding/tongue control, and involuntary movement may indicate

A

cerebral palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

quadriplegia with mild UE involvement and significant LE involvement

A

diplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

fluctuation of tone from low to normal with little spasticity

A

athetosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

constant fluctuation from low to high tone without co-contractions; appear as jerky movements

A

choreoathetosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

tone within normal range but involving LE flexion patterns

A

ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

2 functional classification systems for CP

A

manual ability classification system

gross motor function classification system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

eye alignment deviation (CP)

A

strabismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

reflexive back and forth movement of the eyes when the head moves (CP)

A

nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

difficulty pronouncing or articulating words (CP)

A

dysarthria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

associated with poor language development; looks as though person has difficulty comprehending the meaning of certain words (CP)

A

aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

seizure that involves the entire cerebral cortex

A

generalized seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

most frequent type of generalized seizure; person experiences a sensation that seizure is about to begin; followed by LOC and rhythmic clonic contractions; may last as long as 5 minutes; incontinence common; may be drowsy and sleep 1-2 hours

A

tonic clonic seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

generalized seizure with a brief lapse or loss of awareness along with absence of motor activity (including eye blinking); lasts 30 seconds or more; mistaken as day dreaming

A

absence seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

generalized seizure with contractions of single muscles or muscle groups

A

myclonic seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

generalized seizure with loss of muscle tone for more than 30 minutes

A

akinetic seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

seizure that begins in a single location and then spreads or remains limited to one area of the cortex

A

partial seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

partial seizure that originates in the temporal lobe and appears as lip smacking, chewing, or buttoning and unbuttoning clothing; similar to absence seizures

A

complex partial seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

partial seizure that originates in the motor cortex and results in clonic activity of the face/extremities; may experience visual/auditory hallucinations or olfactory sensations

A

simple partial seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

experiencing both generalized and partial seizures

A

mixed seizure disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

spasms that begin between 6 and 24 months; development stops or slows considerable; some skills lost

A

infantile spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

condition that results in progressive degeneration and weakness of a variety of muscle groups and could lead to death; result of biochemical and structural changes of the surface and internal membranes of muscle cells; hereditary link

A

muscular dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

muscular dystrophy that affects the proximal muscles of the pelvis and shoulder girdle; occurs within first 30 years of life; slow progression

A

limb girdle muscular dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

muscular dystrophy that affects the face, upper arms, and scapular region; onset in adolescence; slope shoulders and limited ability to raise arms over head; ‘masklike’ appearance of face

A

Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

most common form of muscular dystrophy affecting only boys; deficiency in production of dystrophin causing muscles to degenerate; develops after birth with signs between 2-6; enlarged muscles and positive Gower’s sign; difficulty going up/down stairs and getting up from lying-down; die in 20’s as result of respiratory/cardiovascular complications

A

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

when asked to get up from sitting on the floor, the child will move the hands on the legs as though crawling up to the thighs and then assume a standing position

A

Gower’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

muscular dystrophy characterized by brain involvement, neuromuscular functioning, hypotonia, generalized muscle weakness, and contractures; clubfoot, torticollis, diaphragm involvement, heart/spinal defects

A

congenital muscular dystrophy (CMD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

CMD that does not involve intellectual functioning

A

CMD I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

CMD that does involve muscle and brain abnormalities

A

CMD II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

CMD that involves muscle, brain, and eye abnormalities

A

CMD III and IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

protrusion in the occipital region of the brain; associated with severe cognitive impairments, hydrocephalus, motor impairment, and seizures

A

encephalocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

neural development above the level of the brain stem lacking; do not survive infancy

A

anencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

congenital defect of the vertebral arches and spinal column

A

spina bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

mild spina bifida with 1 or 2 affected vertebrae and no SC involvement; may have no symptoms

A

spina bifida occulta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

extensive spinal opening with an exposed pouch of CSF and meninges

A

meningocele (spina bifida)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

excessive spinal opening with an exposed pouch of CSF and meninges with nerve roots exposed; severe; sensorimotor problems, LE paralysis, hip/spine/foot deformities; complications include hydrocephalus and arnold-chiari syndrome

A

myclomeningocele (spina bifida)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

is a condition in which brain tissue extends into your spinal canal. It occurs when part of your skull is abnormally small or misshapen, pressing on your brain and forcing it downward.

A

arnold-chiari syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

caused by an injury to the upper brachial plexus (C5/C6) such as extreme shoulder flexion (with arm overhead); breech deliveries; weakness or wasting of small hand muscles and sensory discrimination in hand/arm; unilateral; UE paralysis affecting more shoulder musculature; recovery depends on extend and occurs 3-24 months

A

Erb-Duchenne palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

characteristic arm position for Erb-Duchenne palsy

A

should adduction/internal rotation, elbow extension, forearm pronation, wrist flexion (waiters tip position)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

injury resulting from compression or traction of the lower brachial plexus (C8/T1); paralysis of hand and wrist muscles (claw hand deformity); severe can result in full paralysis of entire UE

A

Klumpke’s palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

class I peripheral nerve injury with some degree of paralysis but no peripheral degeneration

A

neurapraxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

class II peripheral nerve injury with the endometrium intact but the axon degenerated distal to the lesion

A

axonotmesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

class III peripheral nerve injury where the axon and endometrium are severed

A

neurotmesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

when is a child considered to have an intellectual disability (3 factors)

A

(1) scores on psycho educational assessment > 2 SD below normative range for child’s age (2) before age 18 (3) impairment in adaptive abilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

IQ between 55 and 70; able to learn academic skills at 3rd to 7th grade level; work with minimal support

A

mild intellectual disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

IQ between 40 and 55; able to learn academic skills at 2nd grade level; perform unskilled and some skilled work tasks

A

moderate intellectual disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

IQ between 25 and 40; able to communication and perform basic ADLs and health habits; requires support to complete routines

A

severe intellectual disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

IQ below 25; requires caregiver assistance for basic tasks; neuromuscular, orthopedic, or behavioral deficits

A

profound intellectual disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

neurologic soft signs indicative of intellectual disabilities (4)

A

(1) poor balance, (2) motor asymmetry, (3) decreased perceptual-motor skills, (4) decreased fine motor skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

assesses sensory processing in the home and school environment

A

sensory processing measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

difficulty taking others’ perspectives and hypothesizing about what they might do next; common for individuals with ASD

A

theory of mind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

acute sense for detail almost to the point of missing the bigger picture; common for individuals with ASD

A

weak central coherence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

poor motor planning ability; common for individuals with ASD

A

dyspraxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

using variation in pitch, emphasis or rhythm of speech; difficult for individuals with ASD

A

prosody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

use of language in social situations; difficult for individuals with ASD

A

pragmatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

progressive neurological disorder caused by a genetic mutation found in girls; development appears normal for 6 months; head growth then slows, hand skills lost, and poor trunk/gait coordination; initial loss of social skills with re-emergence; handwringing and hyperventilation common; non-ambulatory and non-verbal by late childhood

A

Rett’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what area of the brain is diminished in ADHD and what does this brain area control

A

parietal lobe; inhibition and attentional control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

difficulty with reading

A

dyslexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

difficulty with writing

A

dysgraphia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

difficulty with math

A

dyscalculia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

involuntary swearing (Tourette’s)

A

coprolalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

precautions for children with atlantoaxial instability (down syndrome)

A

clearance for sports, avoid neck hyper flexion, do not perform front rolls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

chromosomal disorder with short stature, small head, low-set ears, flat nose, slack jaw, short extremities and phallanges, simian hand; cardiovascular abnormalities, obesity, respiratory infection, and poor visual acuity common; atlantoaxial instability (AAI)

A

Trisomy 21/Down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

chromosomal disorder with multiple anomalies affection the eyes, ears, nose, lip, palate, and digits; microcephaly and neural tube differences; 20% survival rate

A

Trisomy 13/Patau’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

chromosomal disorder with neck webbing, congenital edema of the extremities, and cardiac problems; short/obesity/lack sexual characteristics; no intellectual disabilities but visual perception deficits

A

Turner’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

chromosomal disorder with weak and ‘cat like’ cry in infancy, microcephaly, down-slanting eyes, cardiac abnormalities, failure to thrive, intellectual disability, hypotonia, feeding/respiratory problems

A

Cri du char syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

condition where the head circumference is smaller than normal

A

microcephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

boys with extra C chromosome; learning disabilities, emotional/behavioral problems, tall/slim, small genitalia, unable to father children

A

Klinefelter’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

genetic disorder marked by intellectual disability, craniofacial deformity, elongated face, prominent jaw and forehead, large ears, high-arched palate, pes planus (flat feet), and hyper mobile joints

A

Fragile X syndrome

122
Q

genetic disorder marked by multiple tumors (fibromas) on the central and peripheral nerve, cafe-au-lait birthmarks, and vascular/visceral lesions

A

neurofibramatosis

123
Q

genetic disorder marked by moderate intellectual disability, food-seeking behavior, hypotonia, poor thermal regulation, underdeveloped sex organs, and a long face with slanted eyes

A

Prader-Willi syndrome

124
Q

genetic disorder marked by cerebral and cardiovascular abnormalities; intellectual disability but affinity for music, social skills, and writing; facial characteristics; difficulty with visual, spatial, motor skills

A

Williams syndrome

125
Q

inborn error in processing an amino acid in proteins; blonde hair/blue eyes; untreated can lead to severe intellectual and behavioral difficulties (autistic presentation); Guthrie test done at birth; diet as primary means of treatment

A

phenylketonuria (PKU)

126
Q

inability to convert milk sugar to glucose; leads to spleen and liver dysfunction; jaundice, vomiting, diarrhea, lethargy, cataracts, systemic infections; avoid milk products and breast milk; untreated can lead to learning difficulty, perceptual problems, tremors, coreoathetosis, and ataxia

A

Galactosemia

127
Q

progressive neuromuscular disease that is a result of difficulty metabolizing purines; boys normal for 1st year then regress; intellectual disabilities, neuromotor degeneration, spasticity; nail biting, face-rubbing, compulsions; prevent self-injurious behavior

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

128
Q

primarily a condition of motor incoordination; delayed achievement of motor milestones and basic self-care; developmental coordination disorders of speech/language commonly occur

A

developmental coordination disorder
developmental disorder of motor function
developmental dyspraxia
congenital maladroitness

129
Q

what model should be used for developmental coordination disorder

A

CO-OP

130
Q

infections transmitted from mother to child

A

STORCH (syphillis, toxoplasmosis, other infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes)

131
Q

infection transmitted during the 3rd trimester of pregnancy or during delivery; requires isolation and penicilin; can lead to hepatitis, failure to. thrive, and neurologic involvement; after treated, osteochondritis, dental abnormalities, and visual and auditory deficits common

A

congenital syphillis

132
Q

contracted through handling cat feces or raw meat; still births common; intellectual disabilities, hydrocephalus, and chorioetinitis common for those who live; associated with CP, seizures, cardiac/liver damage, gastrointestinal problems

A

toxoplasmosis

133
Q

infection that is very harmful if contracted in the 1st trimester; intellectual disabilities, hearing loss, microcephaly, congenital heart defects, seizures, problems with spleen/liver

A

rubella

134
Q

can be transmitter before, during, or after birth; can be dormant (use universal precautions); low birth weight, hearing loss, microcephaly, spleen/liver damage, neurologic deficits

A

cytomegalovirus (CMV)

135
Q

contracted during delivery; skin and internal organ lesions; CNS damage; fever, lethargy, poor feeding, vomiting; C-section used to stop transmission

A

congenital herpes

136
Q

neoplasm in which the growth resembles the tissue around it

A

histoid neoplasm

137
Q

neoplasm that is made up of two layers

A

mixed neoplasm

138
Q

neoplasm growth that comes from several distinct cell groups

A

multicentric neoplasm

139
Q

neoplasm growth that is similiar to an organ in the body

A

organoid neoplasm

140
Q

neoplasm growth that originated from one group of cells

A

unicentric neoplasm

141
Q

therapist performs the first several steps of the task and allows the child to complete the last step of the task

A

backward chaining

142
Q

child performs the first step of the task and practice it until it is mastered while the therapist completes the rest of the task

A

forward chaining

143
Q

developmental framework for visual intervention that is hierarchical with each skill building on the preceding skill

A

Warren’s Model

144
Q

the inability of the eye to adjust to different lighting conditions, visual-field problems, accommodations, and other oculomotor functions

A

refractive errors

145
Q

poor accommodation for near objects

A

presbyopia

146
Q

one eye turned in, out, up, or down as a result of muscle imbalance; results in blurred or double vision

A

strabismus

147
Q

tendency for one eye to move slightly in, out, up, or down without overt misalignment

A

phoria

148
Q

handwriting development: 10-12 months

A

scribbles on paper

149
Q

handwriting development: 2 years

A

imitates horizontal, vertical, and circular marks

150
Q

handwriting development: 3 years

A

copies a vertical line, horizontal line, and circle

151
Q

handwriting development: 4-5 years

A

copies a cross, diagonal, and oblique lines; some letters and numbers; can maybe write own name

152
Q

handwriting development: 5-6 years

A

copies a triangle, prints own name, copies most letters

153
Q

positional awareness

A

proprioception

154
Q

awareness of movement

A

kinesthesia

155
Q

1st grasp progression; whole hand or extended fingers with a pronated forearm used to hold writing utensil; movement comes from shoulder

A

primitive grip

156
Q

2nd grasp progression; writing utensil held with flexed fingers, pronated forearm (radial side down) with progression to a supinated forearm position

A

transitional grip

157
Q

3rd grasp progression; writing utensil stabilized by distal phalanges of thumb, middle, and index finger (maybe ring finger); wrist in slight extension with supinated forearm on table; should be encourage by _______

A

mature grip; 2nd grade

158
Q

functional handwriting grip where the pencil rests against distal phalanx of the radial side of the middle finger; thumb opposed to index finger

A

dynamic tripod

159
Q

functional handwriting grip where the pencil rests against the radial side of the middle finger; thumb rests on middle finger DIP

A

lateral tripod

160
Q

functional handwriting grip where the pencil rests against the distal phalanx of the radial side of the ring finger; thumb is opposed to the index finger

A

dynamic quadruped

161
Q

functional handwriting grip where the pencil rests against the radial side of the ring finger; thumb rests on the middle finger DIP

A

lateral quadruped

162
Q

what is the word legibility formula

A

total number of readable words divided by total number of words written

163
Q

acquisitional stage of handwriting where the child begins to understand the demands of handwriting and develops a strategy for the necessary motor movement

A

cognitive phase

164
Q

acquisitional stage of handwriting where the child continues to practice and begins to self-monitor; proprioceptive feedback and visual cues are essential

A

associative phase

165
Q

acquisitional stage of handwriting where the child can perform handwriting with minimal conscious attention

A

autonomous phase

166
Q

what height should the table surface be for handwriting

A

2 inches above the flexed elbows

167
Q

paper position for handwriting

A

slanted and paralell for forearm

168
Q

proximal senses; dominate early life experience

A

vestibular, tactile, proprioceptive

169
Q

distal senses; do not have as large of an impact until later in childhood

A

vision and hearing

170
Q

seeking out the sensory input needed to organize ones self and help to achieve goals; leads to changes through neural plasticity

A

adaptive response

171
Q

lower level of the CNS where vestibular input is processes

A

brain stem

172
Q

lower level of the CNS where somatosensory input is processed

A

thalamus

173
Q

if an individual has difficulty with fine motor coordination, grading force, visual-motor tasks, and motor planning they may have ________ and should be taught to compensate by using __________

A

tactile discrimination; visual guidance

174
Q

if an individual appears gawky and awkward they may have difficulty with _________ and should be taught ___________- strategies to help compensate

A

proprioception; cognitive

175
Q

if an individual has poor bilateral coordination and difficulty sequencing actions (catching a ball) they may be experiencing __________

A

vestibular-proprioceptive problems

176
Q

what are the 3 parts of praxis

A

ideation, planning, and execution

177
Q

children who have difficulty with motor planning, tactile perception, and discrimination may have

A

dyspraxia, developmental dyspraxia, somatodyspraxia

178
Q

can the sensory integration and praxis test be administered by a general practicioner

A

no; requires specialized training

179
Q

method of intervention where as any interaction is considered an opportunity for learning, the therapist acts with respect toward the child, and promote decision making; uses color coded zones (green, yellow, red)

A

rational intervention (RI)

180
Q

rational intervention response where as the occupational therapist matches his or her response to the child’s behavior

A

matching

181
Q

rational intervention response characterized by observing the child and improving environmental supports

A

facilitation

182
Q

rational intervention response characterized by observing the child and letting them know the therapist is present; encouraging the child; using guided questions to prompt problem solving

A

monitoring

183
Q

rational intervention response characterized by reminding the child of the expectations, modeling appropriate behavior, and re-directing

A

gentle correction

184
Q

rational intervention response characterized by giving the child a break by re-directing

A

moderate correction

185
Q

rational intervention response characterized by time out and possible use of physical management if safety is an issue

A

strong correction

186
Q

dressing development: age 1

A

assists through cooperation; pulls off shoes and removes socks

187
Q

dressing development: age 2

A

able to doff coat (not fasteners), begin pulling down parts, locate armholes in shirt

188
Q

dressing development: age 2.5

A

pull down pants (elastic), helps to put on socks, coat, shirt, unbutton large buttons

189
Q

dressing development: 3

A

don pullover shirt, put on shoes/socks, zippers once engaged, button large buttons

190
Q

dressing development: 3.5

A

distinguish front/back, manage snaps/hooks, unzip, begins buckles, mittens, dress with supervision

191
Q

dressing development: 4

A

removes pullover garments, buckles, zippers, may lace shoes

192
Q

dressing development: 4.5

A

weave belt through loops

193
Q

dressing development: 5

A

tie and untie knots; dress without supervision

194
Q

dressing development: 6

A

tie bows, manage fasteners in back of garment

195
Q

toileting development: 1

A

discomfort when wet/dirty, regular bowel movement

196
Q

toileting development: 1.5

A

sit on toilet with supervision

197
Q

toileting development: 2

A

interest in toilet, dry for 2 hours, flush independently, urinate regularly

198
Q

toileting development: 2.5

A

informs about need to use bathroom, regular toileting schedule, help with positioning, dry at night, wipes after urinating, washes hands independently

199
Q

toileting development: 3

A

uses bathroom independently; assistance wiping/managing clothing

200
Q

toileting development: 4-5

A

independent with toileting, washing hands, clothing management

201
Q

mobility development: 7 months

A

bear weight through LE’s, transition from sitting to kneeling

202
Q

mobility development: 9 months

A

able to stand while holding on to a surface; begins to crawl

203
Q

mobility development: 10 months

A

purposeful steps while holding adults hand

204
Q

mobility development: 12 months

A

begins to walk independently

205
Q

when corner of mouth or upper/lower lip is stroked, there is movement of the tongue/mouth/head toward stimulus; helps locate feeding sources to begin feeding;

onset: _________
integration: _________

A

rooting reflex (searching reflex)

onset: 28 weeks gestation
integration: 3 months

206
Q

when finger is placed in mouth, there is strong nutritive sucking

onset: _________
integration: _________

A

suck-swallow reflex

onset: 28 weeks gestation
integration: 2-5 months

207
Q

when forearm is grasped and pulled to sit, there is complete flexion of UE’s, reflexive grasp, and head lag (for eventual voluntary grasp)

onset: _________
integration: _________

A

traction reflex

onset: 28 weeks gestation
integration: 2-5 months

208
Q

when the head is rapidly dropped backwards, there is initial arm extension/abduction and hand opening and then arm flexion and adduction (protective response to stress)

onset: _________
integration: _________

A

MORO reflex

onset: 28 weeks gestation
integration: 4-6 months

209
Q

when pressure is applied to the ball of the foot, there is toe flexion (for foot input and gait) problems can lead to hypersensitivity and gravity insecurity

onset: _________
integration: _________

A

Plantar grip reflex

onset: 28 weeks gestation
integration: 9 months

210
Q

when the back is tapped alongside the spine from the shoulder to butt while in prone, there is lateral trunk flexion to stimulated side (for trunk stabilization, creeping/crawling)

onset: _________
integration: _________

A

galant reflex

onset: 32 weeks gestation
integration: 2 months

211
Q

when the head is fully rotated in supine, there is extremity extension on face side and flexion on skull side (hand-eye coordination)

onset: _________
integration: _________

A

asymmetric tonic reflex (ATNR; fencing pose)

onset: 37 weeks gestation
integration: 4-6 months

212
Q

when there is a finger in the palm, there is finger flexion (voluntary grasp, FMC)

onset: _________
integration: _________

A

palmar grasp

onset: 37 weeks gestation
integration: 4-6 months

213
Q

when the infant is in supine, there is increased extensor tone (allows posture to adapt to head)

onset: _________
integration: _________

A

tonic labyrinthine- supine

onset: >37 weeks gestation
integration: 6 months

214
Q

when the infant is in prone, there is increased flexor tone (allows posture to adapt to head)

onset: _________
integration: _________

A

tonic labyrinthine- prone

onset: >37 weeks gestation
integration: 6 months

215
Q

when held in horizontal prone suspension, there is complete extension of head, trunk, and extremities (regulates tone)

onset: _________
integration: _________

A

landau reflex (superman pose)

onset: 3-4 months
integration: 12-24 months

216
Q

when the head is extended in the crawling position, the arms extend and there is hip and knee flexion; when the head is flexed in the crawling position, the arms flex and hip and knees extend (quadruped position)

onset: _________
integration: _________

A

symmetric tonic neck reflex (STNR)

onset: 4-6 months
integration: 8-12 months

217
Q

when supine with the head fully turned to one side, there is log rolling of entire body to maintain head alignment (facilitates rolling)

onset: _________
integration: _________

A

neck righting (on body)

onset: 4-6 months
integration: 5 years

218
Q

when supine with one hip/knee flexed toward the chest, there is segmental rolling of upper trunk to maintain alignment (facilitate sitting and quadruped)

onset: _________
integration: _________

A

body righting (on body)

onset: 4-6 months
integration: 5 years

219
Q

when suspended vertically and tilted to side, forward, and back, there is upright positioning of the head mediated by the visual system
onset: __________

A

optical righting reflex

onset: birth-2 months

220
Q

when suspended vertically and tilted to side, forward, and back, there is upright positioning with eyes mediated by the vestibular system
onset: __________

A

labyrinthine head righting

onset: birth-2 months

221
Q

when rapidly lowered toward a supporting surface while suspended vertically, there is extension of the lower extremities (preparation for surface contact)
onset: __________

A

downward parachute

onset: 4 months

222
Q

when suddenly tipped forward toward supporting surface while vertically suspended, there is sudden extension of UEs, hand opening, and neck extension
onset: __________

A

forward parachute

onset: 6-9 months

223
Q

when quickly/firmly tipped off balance to side while sitting, there is arm extension and abduction the side
onset: __________

A

sideward paracute

onset: 7 months

224
Q

when quickly/firmly tipped off balance backward, there is backward arm extension or to one side with spinal rotation
onset: __________

A

backward parachute

onset: 9-10 months

225
Q

curving of the spine toward a raised surface in prone, supine, quadruped, or standing, there is spine curvature and abduction/extension of arms/legs toward the raised side

A

prone tilting: 5 months
supine/sitting tilting: 7-8 months
quadruped tilting: 9-12 months
standing tilting: 12-21 months

226
Q

framework to used to guide assistive technology evaluation and service delivery by allowing for collaboration and communication among educational team members to support good decision making to determine the AT needs of a student.

A

SETT (student, environment, task, tools)

227
Q

standard deviation of ________ away from the mean on standardized assessments indicates the need for OT services

A

1.5

228
Q

1st sensory system to develop and most mature at birth

A

tactile

229
Q

1st line of defense against falling _____

2nd line of defense against falling ____

A

equilibrium reactions; protective reactions

230
Q

according to Erhardt Prehension Developmental levels, at what age is fine pincer grasp achieved

A

12 months

231
Q

at what age is voluntary release present

A

7-9 months

232
Q

at what age is bilateral hand use available for different functions

A

12-18 months

233
Q

linear object movement on finger surfaces to reposition objects such as separating paper and rolling clay into a ball; present from 3-6 years

A

shift

234
Q

rotating an object 360 degrees such as turning a pencil to erase; present from 6-7

A

complex rotation

235
Q

at what age does a child begin to show an interest in scissors and can do controlled opening and closing

A

2-3 years

236
Q

at what age can a child cut laterally and simple geometric shapes

A

3-4 years

237
Q

at what age can a child cut simple figure shapes

A

4-6 years

238
Q

at what age can a child cut complex figure shapes

A

6-7 years

239
Q

psychosocial development stage proposed by Erikson characterized by an understanding that survival and comfort will be met and hope is integrated
age: _______

A

basic trust vs mistrust

0-18 months

240
Q

psychosocial development stage proposed by Erikson characterized by an understanding that bodily functions cannot be controlled; self-controlled will integrated
age: _________

A

autonomy vs doubt/shame

2-4 years

241
Q

psychosocial development stage proposed by Erikson characterized by gaining social skills and gender role identity; sense of purpose integrated
age: _______

A

initiative vs guilt

pre-school

242
Q

psychosocial development stage proposed by Erikson characterized by a sense of security through peers and mastery over activities of their age group; feelings of competency integrated into personality
age: ________

A

industry vs inferiority

elementary school age

243
Q

psychosocial development stage proposed by Erikson characterized by making choices about adult roles with resolution of identity crisis and a sense of fidelity or membership with society
age: ________

A

self-identity vs role confusion

teenage years

244
Q

psychosocial development stage proposed by Erikson characterized by establishing intimate relationships with partner/family; capacity to love is achieved
age: ________

A

intimacy vs solidarity

young adulthood

245
Q

psychosocial development stage proposed by Erikson characterized by finding security in contribution of chosen personal/professional role; capacity to care is achieved
age: ________

A

generativity vs self-absorption

middle adulthood

246
Q

psychosocial development stage proposed by Erikson characterized by reflecting on own values and sharing knowledge gained with younger generations; wisdom acquired
age: ________

A

integrity vs despair

maturity/older adulthood

247
Q

stage of moral development that occurs until age 8 characterized by punishment and obedience and instrumental relativism (making choices based on benefit to self and others)

A

pre-conventional morality

248
Q

stage of moral development that occurs between ages 9-10 characterized by social conformity and law and order (rules internalized)

A

conventional morality

249
Q

stage of moral development where there is social awareness and awareness of legal implications of decisions/actions (social contract); age varies and not always achieved

A

post conventional morality

250
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs (5)

A 
physiologic
safety
love and belonging
self-esteem
self-actualization
251
Q

can enhance or weaken intrinsic motivation, self-regulation, and well-being; key elements are competence, autonomy, and relatedness

A

self-determination theory

252
Q

period of hierarchical cognitive development characterized by reflexes, voluntary movement, improved gross and fine motor function, and purposeful use
age: ________

A

sensorimotor period

0-2 years

253
Q

period of hierarchical cognitive development characterized by categorizing objects, relating objects to one another (seriation), recognition of similarities in objects (conservation)
age: ________

A

preoperational period

2-7 years

254
Q

period of hierarchical cognitive development characterized by spatial awareness (reversibility), rules, inductive thinking, and logical thinking
age: __________

A

concrete operations

7-11 years

255
Q

period of hierarchical cognitive development chracterized by hypothetical deductive reasoning, and use of logic to hypothesize problem solving
age: _______

A

formal operations

11-teen years

256
Q

age at which a child acts on objects with a variety of schemes

A

12 months

257
Q

age at which a child links schemes in simple combinations (baby in carriage and push)

A

12-15 months

258
Q

age at which a child links multi scheme combinations in sequence

A

24-36 months

2-3 years

259
Q

age at which a child links schemes into complex script

A

36-42 months

3-4 years

260
Q

category of play involving object properties and effects of actions on objects and people
age: _______

A

exploratory play

0-2 years

261
Q

category of play that involves manageable objects in terms of symbolization, control, and mastery; parallel play
age: ______

A

symbolic play

2-4 years

262
Q

category of plays that involves exploring combinations of actions on multiple objects; cooperative peer groups
age: ________

A

creative play

4-7 years

263
Q

category of play that involves rules, competition, social interaction, and skill development; friends validate performance
age: _______

A

games

7-12 years

264
Q

at which age is munching, phasic bite and release present; takes food from spoon

A

4-5 months

265
Q

at which age is there strong up and down movement of the tongue

A

6 months

266
Q

at which age does mastication of soft foods, drinking from a cup, and diagonal jaw movement occur

A

7-8 months

267
Q

at which age does lateral tongue movement and finger feeding occur

A

9 months

268
Q

at which age is the jaw firm and rotary chewing occur; dips spoon in food but spills

A

12 months

269
Q

at which age is a child able to chew most meats and raw vegetables; interest in using fork and proficient at spoon use; can use a straw

A

24 months/2 years

270
Q

how to facilitate swallow

also used in presence of tonic bite reflex

A

downward pressure of spoon on middle of tongue

271
Q

assessment of appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration measured 1, 5, and 10 minutes after birth to indicate new born well being

A

apgar score

272
Q

assesses patterns of developing behavior organization in response to increasing sensory and environmental stimuli; includes a neonatal behavioral assessment and a behavior checklist; scores reflect degree of facilitation; includes eye movement and asymmetry

A

assessment of preterm infants behavior (APIB)

273
Q

rating scale of brief neurological examination incorporated into routine assessment used for newborns in an incubator/ventilator in handling tolerance

A

neurological assessment of preterm and full term newborn infant (NAPFI)

274
Q

standardized performance/observation screening tool for earl identification of children at risk for developmental delays in areas of personal-social, fine motor, language, and gross motor; 125 items assessed sequentially until child fails 3; parent questionnaire; 1 month-6 years at risk for developmental delay

A

Denver Developmental Screening Test II

275
Q

standardized rating scale for development to attain a baseline in domains of cognition, language, motor, social-emotional, and adaptive behavior; parent questionnaire; 1 month-43 months

A

Bayley Scales of Infant Development- 3rd Edition (BSID-III)

276
Q

identifies students at risk and whom need further evaluation for 5 areas identified under IDEA (cognition, communication, physical, social-emotional, adaptive function; 2.9-6.2 years

A

FirstSTEP Screening Test for Evaluating Preschoolers

277
Q

standardized task performance screen for sensory-motor, cognition, and combined abilities; results help develop a plan for assessing school development problems; 2.9-5.8 years

A

Miller Assessment for Preschoolers (MAP)

278
Q

non-standardized scale of developmental levels for education curriculum referenced areas administered in the natural environment, family context, and during typical routines; includes warm up, structured plat. and snack time; 0-3 years with developmental delay/at risk; pre school version 3-8

A

Hawaii Early Learning Profile Revised (HELP)

279
Q

standardized behavior checklist to assess functional capabilities to detect functional deficits, determine developmental level, and monitor progress in areas of self-care, mobility, and social skills; includes a modifications and caregiver assistance scale; 6 months-7 1/2 years

A

Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Inventory (PEDI)

280
Q

standardized rating of gross/fine motor skills (reflex, sustained control, locomotion, object manipulation, grasp, visual motor integration); discontinued with 3 consecutive 0 scores; 0-6 years with disorders; norm referenced assessment/training tool

A

Peabody Developmental Motor Scales (2nd edition) (PMDS-II)

281
Q

school based assessment of visual-motor, fine motor, gross motor, and participation; very engaging assessment; 2.6-7.11 years

A

Miller Function and Participation Scale (M-FUN)

282
Q

standardized test to provide index of overall motor proficiency (speed, duration, accuracy, hand/foot preference); 4-21 years

A

Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (2nd Edition) (BOT-2)

283
Q

observation checklist based on performance of involuntary arm-hand patterns, voluntary movement of approach, and pre writing skills; for all ages

A

Erhardy Developmental Prehension Assessment (EDPA)

284
Q

assessment of quality of movement for mobility, stability, motor organization, social/emotional ability, and functional performance; cutoff score indicate motor delay; 0-3.6 months

A

Toddler and Infant Motor Evaluation (TIME)

285
Q

assessment of copying 24 geometric forms sequenced according to difficulty; discontinued after 3 done incorrectly; measure quality of forms; norm references; ages 2-100; culture free/non-verbal

A

Beery-Buktenica Developmental Test of Visual-Motor Integration- VMI, 6th Edition

286
Q

assessment of visual perception and visual motor integration to design interventions and monitor progress (eye-hand coordination, copying, spatial relations, visual motor speed, position in space, figure-ground, visual closure, form constancy) ; for adults and adolescents

A

Developmental Test of Visual Perception (2nd edition) (DTVP-II)

287
Q

assessment of visuomotor development, involuntary visual patterns, and voluntary visual patterns; determines developmental level; 0-6 months

A

Erhardt Developmental Vision Assessment (EDVA)

288
Q

standardized, norm referenced, assessment of visual motor integration and visual perceptual skills (perception in space, awareness of spatial relations, color and space discrimination, matching, reproducing what is seen); 2 performance subtests and. 2 behavior checklists; 3 1/2- 51/2 years old

A

Preschool Visual Motor Integration Assessment (PVMIA)

289
Q

standardized, norm-referenced quick evaluation for visual perception (spatial relations, visual discrimination, figure-ground, visual closure, visual memory); 4-95 years

A

Motor-Free Visual Perception Test (MVPT-4)

290
Q

evaluation of spatial deficits due to hemi-field visual neglect or abnormal saccades; children/adults with visual cutes of without visual impairment

A

Motor-Free Visual Perception Test, Vertical (MVPT-V)

291
Q

visual perceptual skills assessed separately from motor dysfunction; MC format with increased complexity; discontinue after 3 errors; 4-19 years

A

Test of Visual Perceptual Skills (4th edition) (TVPS-4)

292
Q

assessment of reactions to daily sensory experiences; can be caregiver judgement and observation; cut off scores indicate problems; includes:
Infant-toddler: 0-36 months
Adolescent/Adult: 11-65

A

Sensory Profile (SP)

293
Q

assessment of sensory integration and processing; takes 2 hours to administer and requires extensive training; 4-8.11 years

A

sensory integration and praxis test (SIPT)

294
Q

assessment to determine the severity of autism and distinguishes autism from developmental delays without autism through observation and rating of behavior; children over 2

A

childhood autism rating scale (CARS)

295
Q

assessment of coping habits, skills, and behaviors administered as a questionnaire (productive, active, flexible); 15 years; 4-36 months)

A

Coping Inventory and Early Coping Inventory

296
Q

assessment of play behavior and play opportunity with information provided by main caregiver; general information, previous play experience, actual play over 3 days; 9 areas of play; children and adolescents

A

Play History

297
Q

observation of play skills to differentiate developmental play abilities, strengths/weaknesses, and areas of interest; administer in natural environment; 0-6 years

A

Revised Knox Preschool Play Scale (RKPPS)

298
Q

observation of playfulness on 4 aspects (intrinsic motivation, internal control, disengagement, framing); 15 months-10 years

A

Test of Playfulness (ToP)

299
Q

non-standardized observational assessment of development, learning style, interaction patterns, and behaviors; team observation in 6 phases with program plan developed; infancy-6 years

A

Transdisciplinary Play-Based Assessment (TPBA)

300
Q

questionnaire assessment that measures restrictions in social participation related to community mobility, access to work, recreation, and social interactions; 15+ years with physical disability

A

Participation Scale (P Scale)

301
Q

assessment to monitor functional performance for participation at school; criterion references questionnaire to address 9 items of participation; kindergaren- 6th grade

A

School Function Assessment (SFA)

NBCOT (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions