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NBCOT > Standards and Ethics > Flashcards

Standards and Ethics Flashcards

OT Process, Management, Evaluation and Intervention

1
Q

the individuals ability to place the needs of others before their own

A

altruism

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2
Q

the desire to promote fairness in interactions with others

A

equality

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3
Q

core concept that states that the desires of the client must OT intervention

A

freedom

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4
Q

relating in a fair and impartial manner to individuals with whom they interact and respect and adhere to the applicable laws and standards regarding their area of practice

A

justice

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5
Q

treating each client respectfully and as an individual by enabling the client “to engage in occupations that are meaningful, regardless of level of disability”

A

dignity

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6
Q

In all situations, OT, OTAs, and OT students must provide accurate information both in oral and written form

A

truth

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7
Q

use of clinical and ethical reasoning skills, sound judgement, and reflection to make decisions within OTs area of practice

A

prudence

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8
Q

ethical principle that states that OT personnel shall demonstrate a concern for the well being and safety of the recipients of their services

A

beneficence

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9
Q

maintaining current knowledge by attending evidence-based educational sessions and using current and updated assessment tools are examples of what ethical principle

A

beneficence

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10
Q

ethical principle that states that OT personnel shall intentionally refrain from actions that cause harm

A

nonmaleficence

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11
Q

transferring a client from WC to bed using due care and not practicing OT under the influence are examples of what ethical principle

A

nonmaleficence

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12
Q

ethical principle that states that OT personnel shall respect the right of the individual to self-determination

A

autonomy/confidentiality

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13
Q

respecting the clients refusal to participate in OT and complying with HIPPA are examples of what ethical principle

A

autonomy/confidentiality

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14
Q

ethical principle that states that OT personnel shall provide services in a fair and equitable manner

A

social justice

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15
Q

promoting the health of members in a facility and treating clients fairly regardless of sex, age, or ethnicity are examples of what ethical principle

A

social justice

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16
Q

ethical principle that states that OT personnel shall comply with institutional, local, state, federal, and international law and AOTA documents applicable to the profession

A

procedural justice

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17
Q

learning about laws and regulations and following reimbursement guidelines are examples of what ethical principle

A

procedural justice

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18
Q

ethical principle that states that OT personnel shall provide comprehensive, accurate, and objective information when representing the profession

A

veracity

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19
Q

ensuring accurate and truthful documentation and avoiding plagiarism are examples of what ethical principle

A

veracity

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20
Q

ethical principle that states that OT personnel shall treat colleagues and other professionals with respect, fairness, discretion, and integrity

A

fidelity

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21
Q

who has jurisdiction over the code of ethics for people who were or are AOTA members when the incident occured

A

ethics commission

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22
Q

sanction imposed by the ethics commission through a private letter

A

reprimand

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23
Q

sanction imposed by the ethics commission via a public, formal, notice of disapproval of the behavior

A

censure

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24
Q

sanction imposed by the ethics commission where as failure to meet certain terms will subject an AOTA member to suspension or permanent revocation

A

probation of membership subject to terms

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25
Q

sanction imposed by the ethics commission where as membership is withheld for a predetermined time period

A

suspension

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26
Q

sanction imposed by the ethics commission where as membership is taken away

A

permanent revocation

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27
Q

ethical problem that occurs when it is difficult to follow through on a course of action that the person knows is right because he or she is tempted to go against it (continuing services for money when they are not medically necessary)

A

ethical temptation

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28
Q

ethical problem that occurs when it is difficult to follow through on what the person knows is the right course of action because of policies or procedures occurring at the organizational or facility level (providing night services even though the facility is not open)

A

ethical distress

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29
Q

ethical problem that occurs when it is difficult to identify what the best ethical course of action would be because of conflicts that occur when determining the resolution or two ways to solve a problem (family not wanting the client to know of terminal condition when client is asking whether it is)

A

ethical dilemma

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30
Q

what does the CARE acronym of documentation stand for

A

clarity
accuracy
relevance
expectations

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31
Q

what does the COAST method stand for in goal writing

A 
client
occupation
assistance level
specific conditions
timeline
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32
Q

what does the SOAP method stand for in note writing

A

subjective
objective
assessment
plan

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33
Q

what does DAP stand for in note writing

A

description (subjective/objective)
assessment
plan

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34
Q

what does BIRP stand for in note writing

A

behavior
intervention
response
plan

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35
Q

what does PIRP stand for in note writing

A

purpose
intervention
response
plan

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36
Q

what does SIRP stand for in note writing

A

situation
intervention
response
plan

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37
Q

a multidisciplinary evaluation that is used to determine the specific level of care needed

A

minimum data set (MDS)

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38
Q

interdisciplinary evaluation used in inpatient rehabilitation settings; OT contribute by scoring the FIM

A

Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility Patient Assessment Instrument (IRF-PAI)

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39
Q

assessment that helps provide guidance for the services the client requires and helps determine the clients eligibility to receive home health; may be complete by OT

A

Outcome Assessment Information Set (OASIS)

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40
Q

whom does Medicare cover

A

adult 65 and older, people with disabilities younger than 65, and people with end-stage renal disease

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41
Q

considered the ‘hospital insurance’ aspect of Medicare, covers partial inpatient stays, short stays in a SNF, hospice, and some home health services

A

Medicare Part A

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42
Q

system of paying for medicare hospital services based on the range of services expected to be provided to each patient on the basis of established diagnosis related groups (DRGs)

A

prospective payment system (PPS)

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43
Q

_______ days of a SNF stay are covered by Medicare and are paid as part of the ___________

A

100

per diem PPS

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44
Q

establishes a patients need for services and the prospective per diem rate

A

resident assessment instrument (RAI) (includes the minimum data set)

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45
Q

what qualifies for hospice services under Medicare

A

terminal illness with prognosis fewer than 6 months

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46
Q

considered the supplementary medical insurance part of Medicare. covers some outpatient care (physicians visits/OT), some home health services, and some supplies and equipment; premium is paid monthly

A

Medicare Part B

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47
Q

Medicare part B covers ______ of the cost for outpatient therapy and the client pays any deductible not met and 20% of cost

A

80%

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48
Q

payment for outpatient service is based on the _________ and takes into account ________ used during service provision

A

Medicare Physician Fee Schedule

CPT codes

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49
Q

Medicare generally covers about _______ of the approved cost for DME

A

80%

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50
Q

adaptive equipment such as reachers, dressing sticks, bathtub seats, and grab bars are covered/not covered by Medicare

A

not covered

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51
Q

Medicare advantage plan offered by a private company that contracts with Medicare

A

Medicare Part C

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52
Q

added prescription drug coverage to some Medicare plans

A

Medicare Part D

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53
Q

insurance program that involves a partnership with the state and federal government; general eligibility requirement is income under a certain level and disabilities; covers early and periodic screening, diagnosis, and treatment for people younger than 21

A

Medicaid

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54
Q

health coverage for children and families with incomes too high to qualify for Medicaid, but who can’t afford private coverage

A

Children’s Health Insurance Program (CHIP)

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55
Q

IDEA services that covers children and young adults with disabilities ages 3-21

A

IDEA Part B

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56
Q

IDEA services that covers infants and toddlers ages 0-2

A

IDEA Part C

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57
Q

allows related services (such as OT) to be billed to Medicaid though the school system under certain conditions

A

Medicare Catastrophic Coverage Act

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58
Q

program to identify improper payments made on claims of health care services provided to Medicare beneficiaries

A

Medicare Recovery Audit Program

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59
Q

making a false statement or representation of material facts to obtain some benefit or payment for which no entitlement would otherwise exist (billing for services not provided)

A

fraud

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60
Q

describes practices that either directly or indirectly result in unnecessary costs to the Medicare program (billing for services that were not medically necessary)

A

abuse

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61
Q

service delivery system where clients can be readmitted for necessary procedures, and the hospital is able to keep clients in its market by placing them in affiliated systems

A

hospital with vertical organizations

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62
Q

service delivery system where larger hospital systems take over smaller hospitals or facilities to create a large health care delivery system

A

health network

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63
Q

most common form of managed care where control is maintained over services by requiring enrollees to see doctors within the network and obtain referrals prior to seeking specialty/ancillary care; primary care physicians assume some financial risk for the care provided to its enrolled members

A

health maintenance organization (HMO)

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64
Q

integrated delivery system where the people who belong to it are able to go directly to a specialist without going through the primary care physician; greater choice; as choice increases, percentage of payment decreases

A

preferred provider organization (PPO)

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65
Q

health care plan that is similar to HMO’s but sometimes allows people to refer themselves to physicians who do not belong to the network

A

point-of-service plan

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66
Q

an analysis of systems or organizations that change based upon chaos, complexity, and dynamic systems

A

dynamic systems theory

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67
Q

style of leadership characterized by motivating others to reach their highest potential and providing inspiration to others to work effectively together to meet goals of the organization or groups

A

Transformational Leadership

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68
Q

leadership style in which leaders clarify role and task requirements and provide followers with positive and negative rewards contingent on successful performance

A

Transactional Leadership

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69
Q

the study of non verbal communication

A

paralinguistic

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70
Q

relates to body language

A

kinesics

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71
Q

the study of space, including the use of personal space during communication

A

proxemics

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72
Q

standards for continuing competence (5)

A
  1. knowledge
  2. critical reasoning
  3. interpersonal skills
  4. performance skills
  5. ethical practice
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73
Q

practitioners must acrue _______ hours of professional development units every _____ years to maintain NBCOT certification

A

36 hours

3 years

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74
Q

accrediting body whose purpose is to continuously improve health care for the public, in collaboration with other stakeholders, by evaluating health care organizations and inspiring them to excel in providing safe and effective care of the highest quality and value

A

Joint Commission

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75
Q

independent, non profit organization focused on advancing the quality of services you use to meet your needs for the best possible outcomes

A

CARF Internation

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76
Q

the process of ensuring that an organizations current purpose, aspirations, goals, activities, and strategies connect to plans and support its mision

A

strategic planning

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77
Q

an organizations core, underlying purpose, or basis for its existence, focus, and actions

A

mission

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78
Q

the ideal state or ultimate level of achievement to which an organization aspires

A

vision

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79
Q

a process that identifies and analyzes the organizations strengths and weaknesses and describes the opportunities and threats that may have an impact on its ability to grow and prosper

A

SWOT analysis

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80
Q

the monetary flow of the organization (money that comes into the organization and that is used by the organization for expenses)

A

cash flow

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81
Q

a specific way to allocate where the organizations money is spend, how much money is allotted for various expenses, and the money that comes into the organization

A

budget

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82
Q

the costs assosciatd with opening a business

A

startup costs

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83
Q

the ongoing costs of operating the business (utilities, rent, equipment)

A

operational costs

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84
Q

analyzing the market to see whether the product or services you would like to sell are desirable

A

market analysis

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85
Q

management process that evaluates the arrangement of people, equipment, and procedures in a series of tasks intended to repeatedly produce a desired end result

A

continuous quality improvement

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86
Q

indicates how well an assessment produces consistent scores over time and across raters

A

reliability

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87
Q

indicates the degree to which an assessment measures what it states it measures

A

validity

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88
Q

what does the continuous quality improvement approach: FOCUS-PDCA stand for

A 
find the process that needs improvement
organize people who understand
clarify the issues 
understand inconsistency
select a solution
plan for improvement
do the improvement
check if improvement was effective
act to ensure maintenance
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89
Q

what are the 4 standards of practice

A

I: professional standing and responsibility
II: screening, evaluation, re-evaluation
III: intervention
IV: outcomes

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90
Q

method of supervision that is face to face and includes observation, modeling, co-treatment, discussion, teaching, and instruction

A

direct supervision

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91
Q

method of supervision that occurs by phone or written or type communication and receiving feedback from others

A

indirect supervision

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92
Q

what precautions should be followed for all evaluations

A

standard and transmission based

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93
Q

how well an assessment appears to address the stated purpose

A

face validity

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94
Q

extent to which the items on a test are fairly representative of the entire domain the test seeks to measure.

A

content validity

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95
Q

measures how well a new test compares to an well-established test; or 2 instruments administered at the same time

A

concurrent validity

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96
Q

the degree to which an instrument can predict performance on future criterion

A

predictive validity

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97
Q

the extent to which different raters will achieve the same results on a test

A

interrater reliability

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98
Q

the extent to which the same results will be obtained on an assessment that is administered by the same person twice

A

test-retest reliability

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99
Q

degree to which items agree/relate

A

correlation

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100
Q

reducing the incidence/occurrence of disability in populations at risk

A

primary prevention

101
Q

early detection of problems in populations at risk to reduce or minimize duration of disability

A

secondary prevention

102
Q

eliminate or reduce the impact of dysfunction on an individual

A

tertiary prevention

103
Q

the process of identifying problems, setting goals, and developing a treatment plan

A

procedural reasoning

104
Q

presents an occupational story and process of change needed to reach an imagined future

A

narrative

105
Q

reasoning with a focus on treatment possibilities in a given setting

A

pragmatic reasoning

106
Q

includes ongoing revision of treatment, integration of various types of reasoning in context; represents multi-dimensional thinking

A

conditional reasoning

107
Q

type of group leadership where the therapist is responsible for planning and structuring groups

A

directive leadership

108
Q

type of group leadership where the therapist shares responsibility for group and process with members

A

facilitative leadership

109
Q

type of group leadership where the therapist serves as a resource to members who set the agenda and structure of the group

A

advisory leadership

110
Q

activity group that enables assessment of skills, assets, and limitations in group interactions; activity is introduced but not intervened; includes a task that is completed in one session that requires interaction

A

evaluation group

111
Q

activity group that assists members in acquiring knowledge, skills, and attitudes to perform activity; behaviors practiced with reinforcement; parallel group interaction skills required

A

thematic group

112
Q

activity group that discuses activities engaged in outside of the group to enable effective management’; discussion of concerns, solutions, and strategies; includes role play and home work

A

topical group

113
Q

activity group that increases clients awareness of needs, values, ideas, feelings, and behaviors; therapist is active initially then slowly fade; activities have end-product or demonstrable service

A

task-oriented group

114
Q

continuum of groups focused on developing group interaction skills

A

developmental group

115
Q

type of developmental group where individuals perform individual tasks in the presence of others

A

parallel groups

116
Q

type of developmental groups where individuals perform a shared, short-term activity with another member; focus is on interaction not completion

A

project/associative group

117
Q

type of developmental group where individuals select and implement a long-range activity that requires group interaction skills to complete; members may fulfill functional leadership roles; activity completed over multiple sessions

A

egocentric-cooperative/basic cooperative

118
Q

type of developmental group where individuals engage in group activity which facilitates free expression of ideas and feels; leader is a non-authoritarian advisor; activity is secondary to need fulfillment and may not have end product

A

cooperative/supportive cooperative group

119
Q

type of developmental group where individuals assume all functional socio-emotional and task roles within a group; therapist acts as peer; requires end product or time limit

A

mature group

120
Q

type of group that helps members function at highest possible level for as long as possible; goal is to prevent regression, maintain function, and meet health needs

A

instrumental group

121
Q

precautions used for tuberculosis, measles, and chickenpox

A

airborne precautions

122
Q

precautions used for mumps, rubella, pertussis, and the flue

A

droplet precautions

123
Q

precautions used for patients with known or suspected infection of serious illness transmitted by direct patient contact or contact with items in the patients environment

A

contact precautions

124
Q

level of supervision that includes daily direct contact at the work site

A

close supervision

125
Q

level of supervision that includes direct contact every 2 weeks with interim supervision using other methods (email)

A

routine supervision

126
Q

level of supervision that includes monthly direct contact and the supervisor is available as needed by other methods

A

general supervision

127
Q

level of supervision that includes supervision a needed basis but may be less than monthly

A

minimal supervision

128
Q

type of team where members support and enhance the activities and programs of other disciplines to provide quality services; role-blurring accepted

A

transdisciplinary team

129
Q

develops rules and regulations pertaining to federal laws governing the Medicare and Medicaid programs

A

center of Medicare and Medicaid services (CMS)

130
Q

person receiving services

A

beneficiary

131
Q

payment system where provider is paid prospectively a set fee for each member of a specific population regardless of health care delivered

A

capitation

132
Q

typical capitation payment system

A

per member per month (PMPM)

133
Q

monetary amount to be paid by the patient, expressed as percent of total charge

A

co-insurance

134
Q

standardized recommended intervention protocol for specific diagnosis

A

clinical/critical pathway

135
Q

descriptive category established by CMS that determines the level of payment at a per case rate

A

diagnostic related groups (DRG)

136
Q

payment system where provided is paid same type of rate per unit of service (payers pay 80% and patient responsible for remaining 20%)

A

fee for service

137
Q

established by the affordable care act to allow consumers to compare the cost of insurance plans in their area

A

health insurance marketplace

138
Q

method of maintaining control over costs ant utilization of services while providing quality health care; includes MCOs, HMOs, and PPOs

A

managed care

139
Q

negotiated, per day fee for service (inpatient and SNF)

A

per diem

140
Q

nationwide payment schedule that determines the Medicare payment for each inpatient stay of a Medicare beneficiary based on DRGs

A

prospective payment system (PPS)

141
Q

Medicaid form a primary care physician must complete to document need for requested medically necessary covered services with a supporting rationale

A

treatment authorization request (TAR)

142
Q

average cost of specific health care procedures in a geographic area; maximum amount insurer will pay for a service or covered expense

A

usual and customary rate (UCR)

143
Q

those who are contracted through Medicare to handle the day to day operations

A

intermediaries

144
Q

payment system based on client characteristics regardless of amount/type of services provided

A

patient driven payment model (PDPM)

145
Q

how is home health re-imbursed

A

prospective payment system with rate per episode of care

146
Q

system used to determine episode payment rate for home health

A

home health resource groups (HHRGs)

147
Q

what is a home health episode

A

60 day period beginning with first billable visit and ending 60 days after

148
Q

payment system for outpatient services that are according to a fee schedule

A

resource-based relative value scale (RBRVS)

149
Q

program affiliated with a hospital or community mental health day program for individuals who would otherwise have required inpatient psychiatric care

A

partial hospitalization program (PHP)

150
Q

what needs to be done for changing documentation

A

cross out, initial, and date with a black/blue pen

151
Q

what does the acronym SMART stand for in goal writing

A 
specific
measurable
attainable
relevant
time-limited
152
Q

what does the acronym RUMBA stand for in goal writing

A 
realistic/relevant
understandable
measurable
behavioral
attainable/achievable
153
Q

structure for a progress note based on a problem list

A

problem oriented medical record (POMR)

154
Q

describe the condition or medical reason for requiring services (ICD most common)

A

diagnosis code

155
Q

payment system for outpatient services

A

merit-based incentive pay system (MIPS)_

156
Q

functional data reported on claims for outpatient services that identify the primary issues being addressed

A

g-codes

157
Q

ten separate legislative titles that seek to improve accessibility, fairness, quality, efficiency, accountability, and affordability of health insurance coverage

A

Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA)

158
Q

requires CMS to develop acute care practice guidelines for non pharmacological pain management and opioid use prevention

A

substance use-disorder prevention that promotes optimal recovery and treatment (SUPPORT)

159
Q

monthly incomes for persons with disabilities to enable community living

A

supplemental security income (SSI)

160
Q

prohibits discrimination based on disability in federally funded programs

A

rehabilitation act of 1993

161
Q

prevention of employment discrimination

A

ADA Title I

162
Q

methods to make materials visually available, provide qualified interpreters, and make equipment and actions that increase accessibility

A

ancillary services

163
Q

who is exempt from ADA

A

US government, Indian Tribes, and private/tax-exempt membership clubs

164
Q

prevention of discrimination in public entities

A

ADA Title II

165
Q

prevention of discrimination by public services (public or privately owned)

A

ADA Title III

166
Q

prevention of discrimination in telecommunications

A

ADA Title IV

167
Q

strives to make it more realistic and easier for persons with disabilities to work by removing disincentive to work, enabling choice in service providers, and establishing vocational programs

A

Ticket to Work and Work Incentives Improvement Act (TWIIA)

168
Q

national employment and vocational training system that serves as a ‘one-stop’ delivery system for adults seeking access to employment and training to allow universal access to persons with disabilities

A

work investment act

169
Q

general education law that emphasized standards-based education with focus on improve educational opportunities and outcomes for children from lower income families

A

every student succeeds act (ESSA)

formally no child left behind act

170
Q

enables American’s receiving retirement social security (SS) benefits to be able to work without it affecting their SS income

A

freedom to work act

171
Q

mandate comprehensive resident assessment system administered at admission and on an annual basis unless significant change in condition; coordinated by RN

A

minimal data set

172
Q

guidelines to follow when conditions identified on MDS

A

resident assessment protocol (RAP)

173
Q

legislation that emphasized restraint reduction and restraint-free environments whenever possible

A

omnibus budget reconciliation act (OBRA)

174
Q

how long must an individuals LOS be in a tong-term acute care hospital to maintain Medicare certification

A

> 25 days

175
Q

eligibility criteria for early intervention services based on the extent of developmental delay requires

A

33% in one area or 25% in two areas

176
Q

for IFSP, review are done:

A

every 6 months

177
Q

developmental ares of early intervention evaluation

A

cognition, physical, communication, social-emotional, adaptive

178
Q

program for adolescents or adults who require intervention to develop skills needed for secondary/post secondary education

A

supported education program

179
Q

program for adolescents and adults who require intervention to develop skills to work

A

prevocational programs

180
Q

program for development of specific vocational skills with prerequisite abilities to work but still requires training for specific job, ongoing structure, support, and supervision

A

vocational program

181
Q

vocational program where discharge is not necessarily the goal

A

rehab/sheltered workshop or supported employment

182
Q

vocational program that is time limited (3-6 months) with discharge to competitive employment, supportive employment, or a rehab workshop

A

transitional employment program (TEP)

183
Q

vocational program with ongoing support, intervention, and referrals to employees

A

employee assistance program (EAP)

184
Q

program open to adults and elders with current mental illness or history of a mental illness; services and operations provided by staff; open 5-7 days a week with daily schedule organized around work ordered day; individuals can enter and exit at will; role of OT integrated not formal

A

clubhouse program

185
Q

program for adults and elders with chronic physical/psychosocial impairment of frail/semi-independent older adults; services provided in congregate group setting; 1-5 days a week

A

adult day care

186
Q

system of management based on a core set of goals for the program

A

management by objective (MBO)

187
Q

permanent/long-term purchases typically above a fixed amount ($500); separated due to depreciation of value and possible tax credits for purchases and investments

A

capital expenses

188
Q

costs related to service provision (salaries, benefits, supplies, equipment)

A

direct operating expense

189
Q

costs shared by the setting as a whole (utilities, housekeeping, marketing)

A

indirect operating expense

190
Q

costs that remain at the same level even with change in amount of services (rent)

A

fixed operating cost

191
Q

costs that change in direct proportion to the amount of services (splint materials)

A

variable operating cose

192
Q

the amount of time a full time employee works

A

full time equivalent

193
Q

a cost-volume profit analysis where volume of services needed for revenue to equal cost and profits to equal 0

A

break-even analysis

194
Q

system oriented approach that view limitations and problems proactively as opportunity to increase quality; emphases prevention and problems as organizational

A

quality improvement

195
Q

quality improvement method where current services are reviewed for enhancement of future services

A

prospective viewpoint

196
Q

creates an organizational culture that enables employees to contribute to environment of continuous improvement to meet/exceed consumer needs

A

total quality management

197
Q

evaluates the appropriateness of quality of services through an interdisciplinary system focus that is client centered and emphasizes ethics, performance, and leadership

A

performance assessment and improvement (PAI)

198
Q

evaluation tool that attains client goals for intervention and measures goal attainment and intervention outcomes after a specified time period

A

goal attainment scaling (GAS)

199
Q

plan to review the use of resources in a facility to determine medical necessity and cost efficiency; is an aspect of QI and PAI

A

utilization review (UR)

200
Q

review of reimbursement claims analyzed to determine efficient/cost-effective care; can be done via peer reivew

A

statistical utilization review

201
Q

groups of peers who evaluate appropriateness of services and quality of care under reimbursement/state licensure requirements

A

professional review organization (PRO)

202
Q

identifies, evaluates, and takes corrective action against risk and plans, organizes, and controls activities/resources to decrease actual or potential losses

A

risk management

203
Q

5 P’s of marketing strategies

A 
product
price
place
promotion
position
204
Q

2-group research design with random selection/assignment into experimental or control groups; treatment = independent variable; outcome = dependent variable; cause and effect relationship examined

A

true-experimental

205
Q

independent variable manipulated to determine the effect on the dependent variable with less degree of research control and/or no randomization

A

quasi-experimental

206
Q

research method where there is no manipulation of independent variable because randomization/control is not possible; correlational coefficient expressed; may be prospective, retrospective, descriptive, or predictive

A

non-experimental/correlational

207
Q

research method to determine how one or more person makes sense of an experience

A

phenomenological

208
Q

research method to determine patterns/characteristics including values, roles, beliefs via field observation, interview, or cultural emersion

A

ethnographic

209
Q

complete involvement of the researcher in experience to understand and interpret phenomena

A

heuristic

210
Q

single subject or group of subjects investigate in an in depth manner

A

case study

211
Q

level of confidence that findings reflect truth and reality attained with no pre-conceived notions and is enhanced by extended/various field experience and good interview techniques

A

credibility

212
Q

how well findings can fit into similar contexts “goodness of fit”

A

transferability

213
Q

inclusion of the full range of data including outliers and atypical findings

A

dependability

214
Q

degree to which conclusions are based on data

A

confirmability

215
Q

method of sampling where participants are selected from a population list and selected at specified intervals

A

systematic

216
Q

method of sampling where participants are selected from population identified subgroups based on predetermined characteristics

A

stratified

217
Q

method of sampling where participants are selected purposefully and deliberately

A

purposive

218
Q

method of sampling where participants are selected who meet population criteria based on availability

A

convenience sampling

219
Q

method of sampling where participants are selected by previous participates providing names of other participants who meet the study criteria

A

network/snowball

220
Q

survey instrument with a point scale with opposing objectives or 2 extremes

A

semantic differential

221
Q

survey instrument which indicates level of agreement on a 5-point scale (typical)

A

Likert scale

222
Q

survey instrument which indicates order of importance (uses no more than 10)

A

Guttman scale rank ordering

223
Q

survey instrument where a response is selected that reflect an individuals opinions and attitudes

A

multiple choice

224
Q

survey instrument where a phrase is provided and the respondent completes the sentence

A

incomplete sentence

225
Q

measures that determine average or typical scores

A

measures of central tendency

226
Q

determines the variability of scores from the mean

A

standard deviation (SD)

227
Q

symmetrical bell-shaped curve indicating distribution of scores; half the scores are above and below the mean; most scores near the mean with 68% +1 or -1 SD from the mean

A

normal distribution

228
Q

describes the score position within a distribution relative to other scores

A

percentile/quartiles

229
Q

estimate of expected error in individual score; measures response stability and reliability

A

standard error of measurement

230
Q

estimates the true difference not due to chance

A

test of significance

231
Q

preselected level of statistical significance

A

alpha level

232
Q

based on the number of subjects and groups; determines the level of significance based on consulting appropriate table for each statistical test

A

degree of freedom

233
Q

expected chance variation among means as the result of sampling error

A

standard error

234
Q

null hypotheses rejected by research when it is true (mean scores concluded to be truly different when difference is due to chance)

A

type I error

235
Q

null hypotheses is not rejected when it is false (mean scores are concluded to be due to chance when means are truly different)

A

type II error

236
Q

testing based on population parameters for interval or ratio data

A

parametric statistics

237
Q

parametric statistic; comparison of group means and identified difference at selected probability level

A

t-test

238
Q

parametric statistic; comparison of groups while also controlling for the effects of intervening variables (co-variables)

A

analysis of variance (ANOVA)

239
Q

testing not based on population parameters ordinal or nominal data; less powerful

A

non-parametric statistic

240
Q

comparison of data in form frequency counts occurring in 2 or more exclusive categories

A

chi-square test

241
Q

determines the relationship between 2 variables

A

correlation statistic

242
Q

correlated ordinal data

A

Spearmans rank correlation coefficient

243
Q

reliability based on analysis of variance

A

intraclass correlation coefficient (ICC)

244
Q

correlation coefficient 0.7-1.0

A

high

245
Q

correlation coefficient 0.35-0.69

A

moderate

246
Q

correlation coefficient 0-0.34

A

low

247
Q

correlation coefficient 0

A

no relationship

248
Q

negative correlation -1-0

A

inverse relationship

249
Q

what ethical principle includes not having a relationship with a patient

A

nonmaleficence

NBCOT (12 decks)

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