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NBCOT > Cardiopulmonary > Flashcards

Cardiopulmonary Flashcards

1
Q

During systole, the ______ chambers of the heart (contract/relax)

A

ventricular; contract

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2
Q

During diastole, the _____ chambers of the heart (contract/relax)

A

ventricular; relax

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3
Q

Disorder that leads to inadequate system circulation, pulmonary congestion, and low cardiac output; includes difficulty breathing, anxiety, cerebral hypoxia, and fatigue/weakness

A

Congestive (left sided) heart failure

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4
Q

Disorder that leads to inadequate blood return from system circulation, jugular vein distension, peripheral edema, cyanotic nail beds, jaundice, and LE edema

A

Right sided heart failure

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5
Q

Describe the functional categories of cardiac disease (New York Heart Association (NYHA)

A

Class I: no limitation in physical activity
Class II: slight limitation in ordinary physical activity, comfortable at rest
Class III: marked limitation in less than ordinary physical activity, comfortable at rest
Class IV: inability to carry out physical activity without discomfort

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6
Q

Describe the objective classifications of cardiac disease

A

Class A: no evidence of diseases, symptoms, limitations
Class B: evidence of minimal disease, mild symptoms, light limitations
Class C: moderate/severe disease, marked limitations, only comfortable at rest
Class D: severe disease and limitations with symptoms at rest

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7
Q

Surgical intervention where a small balloon tipped catheter is run through the femoral artery to the coronary artery to open the vessels with placement of a intraventricular stent

A

Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PCTA)

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8
Q

Surgical intervention where the coronary artery is circumvented using anastomosing graft; deconditioning is common

A

Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)

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9
Q

Arterial disease with diminished bloody supply to extremities with pulse decreased or absent (typically LE’s); in early stages there is intermittent claudication relieved with rest; in late stages there is resting pain and muscle atrophy

A

Occlusive peripheral artery disease

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10
Q

Arterial disease with inflammation of small arteries and veins; starts distally and progresses proximally in UEs and LEs; leads to pain, paresthesia, cold, poor temperature sensation, ulceration, and gangrene; affects young males who smoke

A

Thomboangitis Obliterans (buergers disease)

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11
Q

Venous disease with inflammation of veins and formation of thrombus with progressive inflammation, tenderness to palpation, changes in LE color, temperature, circumference, and appearance; life threatening and requires immediate medical attention

A

Deep vein thombosis (DVT)

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12
Q

A common disease secondary to Tuberculosis that causes vertebral collapse and spinal compression

A

Roods disease

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13
Q

COPD leads to (increased/decreased) expiratory rate

A

decreased

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14
Q

To improve respiratory rate for an individual with COPD, what should you instruct them to do?

A

breathe out on exertion, lean forward, talk during therapy

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15
Q

Chronic obstructive disease with permanent abnormal enlargement of air space which damages functional units of gas exchange; lungs lose elasticity. Symptoms include dyspnea, poor exertion, diminished breath sounds, wheezing, prolonged expiratory phase and turning reddish in color

A

Emphysema

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16
Q

chronic progressive lung disease characterized by production of abnormal mucous that become thick and sticky; impacts exercise, nutrition, and development

A

Cystic fibrosis

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17
Q

Normal heart rate for infants and adults

A

120 bpm (infants); 60-100 (adults)

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18
Q

Normal blood pressure for infants, 6 year olds, and adults

A

75/50 (infants) 105/60 (6 years) 120/80 (adults)

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19
Q

Normal respiratory rate for infants and adults

A

40 br/min (infants) 12-20 br/min (adults)

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20
Q

Condition resulting in decreased blood pressure as a result of positional changes; change in 20 systolic and 10 diastolic requires attention

A

Otrhostatic hypotension

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21
Q

MET level characterized by performing light upper body tasks for a short period of time

A

Stage I: 1.0 - 1.5

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22
Q

MET level characterized by seated ADLs, easy transfers, and slow ambulation; acute care assessment would start here

A

Stage 2: 1.5 - 2.0

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23
Q

MET level characterized by performing seated ADLs and IADLs for an extended period of time; warm showers;

A

Stage 3: 2.0 - 3.0

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24
Q

MET level characterized by slow ambulation as tolerated and light IADLs; standing warm shower; discharge from acute care at the end of this stage

A

Stage 4: 3.0 - 3.5

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25
Q

MET level characterized by performing medium IADLs in standing (dishes, laundry, carrying)

A

Stage 5: 3.5 - 4.0

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26
Q

MET level characterized by performing moderate activity (changing linens, gardening); standing hot shower; start outpatient therapy at this stage

A

Stage 6: 4.0 - 5.0

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27
Q

MET level characterized by heavy IADLs and sexual activity

A

5.0 - 6.0

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28
Q

Pulmonary condition characterized by insufficient production of surfactant to keep aveoli open; lung collapse after each breath

A

Respiratory distress syndrome

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29
Q

Pulmonary condition characterized by the walls of immature lungs thickening making exchange of oxygen and CO2 difficult; often requires machines to breath

A

bronchopulmonary dysplasia

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30
Q

this chamber of the heart pumps blood via the pulmonary artery to the lungs for oxygenation

A

right ventricle

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31
Q

this chamber of the heart pumps blood via the aorta throughout the entire systemic circulation

A

left ventricle

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32
Q

when does atrial contraction occur and what is its function

A

during the last 1/3 of diastole

complete ventricular filling

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33
Q

transports oxygenated blood from areas of high to low pressure

A

arteries

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34
Q

transports unoxygenated blood from tissues back to heart

A

veins

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35
Q

atherosclerotic disease process that narrow lumen of the coronary arteries resulting in ischemia to the myocardium

A

coronary artery disease

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36
Q

mild/moderate substernal chest pain with discomfort possibly present in L arm, upper body, neck, back, and epigastric areas that usually lasts less than 20 minutes

A

angina pectoris

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37
Q

angina that is exertional and can be controlled by rest and a nitroglycerin tablet

A

stable angia

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38
Q

angina that cannot be controlled by rest or a nitroglycerin tablet and is not a result of exertion

A

unstable angina (crescendo)

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39
Q

angina caused by a vasospasm and controlled by nitroglycerin or calcium channel blockers (long term)

A

variant angina (Prinz metals)

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40
Q

with what medication may an individual not demonstrate the expected increase in heart rate during an activity requiring adjusted parameters and the use of an RPE scale

A

beta-blockers

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41
Q

what is the most common psychosocial disorder associated with transplants

A

anxiety

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42
Q

disorder characterized by uncontrolled blood glucose, atherosclerosis, neuropathies, ulcers, and diabetic neuropathy

A

diabetic angiopathy

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43
Q

how long does it take for anticoagulation therapy to be within a therapeutic range;

when can ambulation be initiated;

no longer than ________ of bed rest

A

12 hours

2-3 days

3-4 days

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44
Q

disorder characterized by chronic leg edema, skin pigmentation change, scaly, and itchy

A

chronic venous insufficiency

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45
Q

stage of lymphedema with no visible change but a change in feeling (tingling, tiredness, heaviness)

A

0

46
Q

stage of lymphedema that is reversible and characterized by soft-pitting and increased swelling at night

A

1

47
Q

stage of lymphedema that is spontaneous irreversible and swelling with increase in fibrotic tissue and risk for infection

A

2

48
Q

stage of lymphedema with lymphostatic elephantitis and extreme swelling and skin changes

A

3

49
Q

airborne infection caused by bacterium that once settled in the lungs can spread to other areas of the body (kidney dysfunction); characterized by compromised spinal integrity, cervical/thoracic spine lesions, and space occupying lesions

A

tuberculosis

50
Q

chronic obstructive disorder with chronic inflammation with cough, sputum, and low oxygen

A

chronic bronchitis

51
Q

newborn condition where in sufficient surfactant is produced which prevents proper expansion resulting in formation of hyaline material in the lungs; respiratory distress

A

hyaline membrane disease

52
Q

collapsed or airless alveolar unit

A

atelectasis

53
Q

excessive fluid between the parietal and visceral pleura

A

pleural effusion

54
Q

describe the RPE scale

A

1-2: comfortable for extended period
3-4: comfortable for 60 minutes
5-6: tough but maintained for 30 minutes
7-8: uncomfortable but maintained 5-10 minutes
9-10: difficult to maintain 10-30 seconds

55
Q

describe functional impact of RPE scale

A 
1-2: normal talking/breathing
3-4: more effort to talk; some SOB
5-6: 1-2 sentences, moderate SOB
7-8: broken sentences, heavy breathing
9-10: cant talk, grasping for breath
56
Q

measure of edema with mild, barely perceptible indentation and <1/4 inch of pitting

A

1+

57
Q

measure of edema with moderate, easily identifiable depression with return to normal in 15 seconds and 1/4-1/2 inch of pitting

A

2+

58
Q

measure of edema with severe depression that takes 15-30 seconds to rebound and 1/2-1 inch of pitting

A

3+

59
Q

measure of edema with very severe depression that takes > 30 seconds to rebound and 1 inch of pitting

A

4+

60
Q

what characterizes bradycardia

A

< 60 bpm

61
Q

what characterizes tachycardia

A

> 100 bpm

62
Q

type of hypotension when a person goes from supine to standing shortly after eating a meal

A

postprandial hypotension

63
Q

type of hypotension after long periods of standing

A

neurally mediated hypotension

64
Q

excessiv sweating

A

diaphoresis

65
Q

what psychosocial condition is most commonly associated with heart conditions

A

depression

66
Q

what kinds of activities should be avoided for cardiac patients

A

isometrics
straining
breath holding (Valsalva)
overhead activities

67
Q

what sleeping position should be avoided for COPD

A

prone with pillow under chest

68
Q

optima sleep position for an individual with sleep apnea and obesity

A

side lying with head of bed elevated

69
Q

what are good strengthening exercises for an individual with COPD in the maintenance phase

A

free weights, arm ergometer, and elastic bands

70
Q

in phase I of lymphedema, how often should short-stretch compression bandages be worn

A

24 hours a day

71
Q

what does the acronym RICE stand for

A

rest
ice
compression
elevation

72
Q

sternal precautions

A

no reaching overhead with both arms
no reaching behind the back
no lifting or pulling

73
Q

when can weight training begin for cardiac conditions if symptoms are controlled

A

2-4 weeks after beginning outpatient treatment

74
Q

passing too much protein in the urine; present in kidney disease and is the result of diabetes and lupus

A

nephrotic syndrome

75
Q

stage of kidney disease that is focused on prevention of progression

A

stage 1

76
Q

stage of kidney disease that is focused on management of the health condition

A

stage 2

77
Q

stage of kidney disease that is focused on management of edema and bone loss

A

stage 3

78
Q

stage of kidney disease that is focused on education for further management

A

stage 4

79
Q

stage of kidney disease where dialysis or transplant is required for life to be sustained

A

stage 5

80
Q

should movement and engagement in activity be promoted during dialysis

A

yes

81
Q

stage of cancer characterized by a present tumor with no perceived spread; operable lesion; and good response to treatment

A

stage 1

82
Q

stage of cancer characterized by localized spread of tumor, an operable lesion, and good response to treatment

A

stage 2

83
Q

stage of cancer characterized by extensive evidence of spread of primary tumor to other organs or the body; tumor cannot be removed but some cells may remain; deep spread in lymphatics

A

stage 3

84
Q

stage of cancer characterized by inoperable primary lesion with survival dependent on spread and response to therapy

A

stage 4

85
Q

time spent recovering from surgery

A

convalesence

86
Q

vulnerability is related to

A

liminality

87
Q

rheumatic connective tissue disease associated with an impaired immune response

A

scleroderma

88
Q

type of scleroderma with linear skin involvement

A

limited

89
Q

type of scleroderma which includes the internal organs

A

systemic

90
Q

what does CREST stand for as a type of systemic scleroderma

A 
Calcium in skin
Raynaud's 
Esophageal dysfunction
Sclerodactyl fingers/toes
Telangiectasis (red spots)
91
Q

medication for HIV/AIDS

A

protease inhibitors

92
Q

type of viral infection from contaminated sea food where protective immunization is possible

A

hepatitis type A

93
Q

type of viral infection from body and blood borne exposure with protective immunization possible

A

hepatitis type B

94
Q

type of viral infection from body and blood borne exposure with no protective immunization and can be life threatening over time with chronic fatigue and disability

A

hepatitis type C

95
Q

type of diabetes that is insulin dependent

A

type I

96
Q

type of diabetes that is not insulin dependent

A

type II

97
Q

if a person is vague, dizzy, has tachycardia, pallor, weakness, diaphoresis, seizure or come they may be experiencing ________ and the therapist should _________ immediately

A

hypoglycemia

provide carbohydrates

98
Q

if a person is dehydrated, has a rapid and weak pulse, and acetone breath they may be experiencing ___________ and the therapist should ___________ immediately

A

hyperglycemia/ketoacidosis

call for help- IV and fluid required

99
Q

intervention for obesity that does not focus on overcoming obesity, rather a focus on occupational needs of the client

A

tertiary intervention

100
Q

disorder characterized by early symptoms of fatigue, headache, chills/fever, muscle/joint pain, swollen lymphnodes, and a rash. an impaired immune response affects neurological and orthopedic systems

A

lyme disease

101
Q

stage of pressure ulcer with local discoloration of intact skin or blister with blood as a result of damage of underlying tissue

A

suspected

102
Q

stage of pressure ulcer with intact skin and visible non blanchable redness over a localized area; soft, firm, cool, warm, painful, itchy; hard to detect

A

stage I

103
Q

stage of pressure ulcer with dermis involvement with partial thickness loss and shallow ulcer appears shiny or dry; intact/rupture blister, red/pin wound without slough or bruising

A

stage II

104
Q

stage of pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss with subcutaneous fat possibly visible

A

stage III

105
Q

stage of pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss with bone, tendon, or muscle visible

A

stage IV

106
Q

stage of pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss with wound bed slough or eschar

A

unstageable

107
Q

group of non-electrical cushions or mattresses to distribute pressure

A

group I

108
Q

group of dynamic electric powered devices for full-thickness ulcers of moderate to high risk

A

group II

109
Q

group of dynamic electric powered device for non-healing full-thickness ulcers

A

group III

110
Q

how often should weight shifts be

A

every 30 minutes for 30 seconds OR

every 60 minutes for 60 seconds

NBCOT (12 decks)

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