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Flashcards in pediatrics final review Deck (90):
1

Dysgenesis of the fourth ventricle results in which one of the following malformations???
a. corpus callosum
b. cystic dilation of the lateral ventricle
c. holoprosencephally
d. dandy-walker

d. dandy-walker

2

What is the name of the structure that forms between the corpus callosum and the anterior horn or lateral ventricle?

septum pellucidum

3

Cyclopia is associated with which one of the following?
a. holoprosencephally
b. hydrocephalus
c. hydranencephaly
d. dandy walker

a. holoprosencephally

4

Bilateral occlusion of the carotid arteries may result in ___________________
a. hydro
b. hydranencephally
c. holoprocencephally
d. intraventricular hemorrhage

b. hydranencephally

5

Which three mechanisms account for the development of hydrocephalus?
a. outflow obst, increased absorption, and overproduction
b. inflow obst., decreased absorption, and underproduction
c. inflow obst., increased absorb., and overproduction
d. outflow obst., decreased absorp., and overproduction

d.

6

The junction of the anterior, occipital, and temporal horns is called the ________?

Atrium (trigone)

7

The most important cause of abnormal neurodevelopment sequelae in premature infants is which one of the following
a. hydro
b. choroid plexus cyst
c. white matter necrosis
d. alobar holoprosencephally

C. white matter necrosis

8

The portion of the brain that forms the lateral borders of the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles and lies anterior to the lateral ventricles and thalamus is which one of the following?
a. caudate nucleus
b. cisterna
c. corpus collosum
d. fontanelle

A. caudate nucleus

9

A thin, triangular space filed with kkCSF that lies between the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle is
a. interhemispheric fissure
b. cavum septi pellucidi
c. trigone
d. caudate nucleus

B. cavum septi pellucidi

10

The portion of the brain tat lies posterior to the cranial fossa under the tentorium is called which one of the following
a. cerebellum
b. corpus collosum
c. lower recess
d. cavum septum pellucidum

A. cerebellum

11

Sonography of the neonatal brain is evaluated through which one of the following
a. inferior temporal lobe
b. anterior fontanelle
c. superior temporal lobe
d. posterior fontanelle

b. anterior fontanelle

12

A mass of special cels located in the atrium of the lateral ventricles is which one of the following
a. corpus collosum
b. caudate nucleus
c. choroid plexus
d. cisterna

c. choroid plexus

13

The periventricular tissue, which may bleed easily before 32 weeks gestation
a. caudate nucleus
b. corpus collosum
c. brainstem
d. germinal matrix

d. germinal matrix

14

The area in which the falx cerebri sits that separates the two cerebral hemispheres is which one of the following
a. tentorium
b. corpus callosum
c. lateral ventricles
d. interhemispheric fissure

d

15

The two ovoid brain structures located on either side of the third ventricle superior to the brainstem make up the what
a. thalami
b. choroid plexus
c. gyri
d. fontanelle

A. thalami

16

The brain coverings are known as what

meninges

17

Approximately 40% of CSF is produced by which one of the following
a. extracellular fluid
b. choroid plexus
c. corpus callosum
d. cerebrum

b.

18

The largest subarachnoid space demonstrated sonographically

Cistern magnum

19

Convolutions on the surface of the brain are called which one of the following
a. sulci
b. fissures
c. gyri
d. lobes

c

20

The most common cause of congenital hydrocephalus is which one
a. papilloma of the choroid plexus
b. aqueductal stenosis
c. overproduction of CSF
d. a genesis of the corpus callosum

b.

21

Acute neonatal brain hemorrhage appears
a. echolucent
b. hypoechoic
c. echogenic
d. complex

c

22

Periventricular leukomalacia is defined as which
a. white matter necrosis
b. focal brain necrosis
c. thickened ependyma
d. an epidural hemorrhage

a

23

The primary brain vesicle , rhombencephalon, is located in which one of the following
a. hypothalamus
b. forebrain
c. midbrain
d. hindbrain

d

24

Which one of the following is most likely the result of a germinal matrix hemorrhage
a. cerebral cyst
b. subependymal cyst
c. subarachnoid cyst
d. periventricular leukomalacia

b

25

The part of the brain that connects the forebrain and the spinal cord is which one of the following
a. pons
b. trigone
c. cerebrum
d. brainstem

d

26

Failure of the neural tube to fold and fuse in the midline results in a

myelomeningocele

27

The spinal cord in the younger child ends at the upper border of the _____________ lumbar vertebra.

third

28

The cord tapers off into which one of the following?
a. filum terminals
b. conus medullaris
c. median fissure
d. median sulcus

conus medullaris

29

The spinal cord is surrounded by three meninges, which include all the following except
A. dura mater
b. subdural mater
c. arachnoid mater
d. pia mater

subdural mater

30

Sonography is able to image the spinal cord because the
a. ossification of the posterior spinal elements is incomplete
b. ossification of the anterior body of the spine is incomplete
c. dura mater is less dense during neonatal growth
d. cerebrospinal fluid is an excellent window

a

31

An anechoic mass in the cuada equine region is most likely what?

Cyst of the spinal cord

32

Pathologic fixation of the spinal cord in an abnormal caudal location is know as which one of the following?
a. lipoma
b. tethered cord
c. diastematomy
d. hydromyelia

b. tethered cord

33

Dilation of the central canal of the spinal cord is

hydromyelia

34

Indications for spinal sonography include all of the following except
a. back mass
b. midline cutaneous deformities
c. large collections of hair on the back
d. shortening of the femur

d. shortening of the femur

35

A dimple may indicate a spinal abnormality if it is more than ______ from the anus.
a. 1 cm
b. 1 inch
c. 2 cm
d. 2 inches

b. 1 inch

36

The lumbar peduncles are strong and directed

posteriorly

37

A severe form of spina bifida is called

aperta

38

The most important determination in ruling out tethered spinal cord is which one of the following
a. skin surface of the lumbar spine
b. oscillations of the spinal cord
c. vertebral level of the tip of the cornus medullaris
d. vertebral level of the tip of the cauda equina

c. vertebral level of the tip of the cornus medullaris

39

Spina bifida with a portion of the spinal cord and membranes protruding is called

myelomeningocele

40

The sacrum consists of ________ fused bones

five

41

Which of the following structures are responsible for one fourth of the vertebral column's length?
a. vertebral bodies
b. intervertebral disks
c. vertebral lemma
d. spinal muscles

b. intervertebral disks

42

The vascular membrane that closely covers the spinal cord is the

pia mater

43

Which one of the following appears as an inverted U
a. posterior dorsal spinal elements
b. dura mater
c. spinous process
d. coccyx

c. spinous process

44

A transverse projection across the midline from the lowest palpable rib is

L2

45

A meningocele demonstrates which one of the following
a. nerve roots
b. flat, nontubulated cord
c. neural placode
d. fluid within the sac

d. fluid within the sac

46

The neonatal coccyx should not be mistaken for a

cyst and fluid collection

47

Hemangiomas over the back have a high association with which one of the following abnormalities
a. tethered spinal cord
b. hydromelia
c. spina bifida occulta
d. myeloschisis

a. tethered spinal cord

48

How many lumbar vertebrae are in the vertebral column

5

49

A transverse projection across the midline from the palpated apex of the iliac crest is on

L5

50

The lower nerve roots together are called which one of the following
a. spinal nerves
b. cauda equina
c. filum terminale
d. posterior root ganglion

b. cauda equina

51

What percentage of liver tumors in children are benign

40%

52

When bowel prolapses into the distal bowel and is propelled in an antegrade fashion, this condition is known as which one of the following
a. hypertorphic pyloric stenosis
b. intussusception
c. projectile vomiting
d. appendicitis

b. intussusception

53

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis occurs in all of the following patient populations except
a. most common in males
b. most common in females
c. infants between 3 and 6 weeks of age
d. infants with bile free projectile vomiting

b. most common in females

54

Other causes of vomiting in the infant include all of the following except
a. pylorospasm
b. hiatal hernia
c. malrotations of the bowel
d. appendicolith

d. appendicolith

55

Hepatoblastoma has been associated with which one of the following
a. meige sydrome
b. choledochal cyst
c. precocious puberty
d. intussusception

c. precocious puberty

56

The mean portal vein measurement in children younger than 10 years of age

8.5 mm

57

Which one of the following statements about appendicitis is false?
a. In young children appendicitis may lead to perforation within 6-12 hours
b. The adnexa should also be evaluated in females
c. a graded-compression technique is used
d. the appendix is anterior and lateral to the psoas muscle

d.

58

In patients with appendicitis, the outer diameter should measure at least ______mm

6

59

Other findings that may indicate appendicitis include all the following except
a. free peritoneal fluid
b. loculated fluid in the lower abdomen
c. appendicitis
d. Meckel diverticulum

d

60

A pitfall in diagnosing appendicitis may be which one of the following
a. enlarged lymph nodes
b. dilated antrum
c. hydronephrosis
d. hydrops

a

61

Children with intussusception may exhibit the following clinical presentations except
a. colicky abdominal pain
b. vomiting
c. bloody stools
d. tenderness over McBurney's point

d.

62

Sonographic characteristics associated with the bowel include all of the following signs except
a. croissant
b. doughnut
c. target
d. pseudokidney

a

63

The length of the pediatric gallbladder should not exceed which one of the following
a. 6cm
b. 8cm
c. 10cm
d. length of the kidney

d

64

Preparation for a biliary sonographic exam of a 2 year old child is nothing by mouth for _______hrs
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 8

a

65

An abdominal ultrasound may be ordered in the neonate when jaundice persists beyond
a. 5 days
b. 2 months
c. 2 weeks
d. 5 weeks

c

66

Which one of the following is the most likely condition to lead to cirrhosis
a. jaundice
b. hepatitis
c. choledochal cyst
d. biliary atresia

d

67

The most common causes of prolonged neonatal jaundice include all of the following except
a. hepatoblastoma
b. choledochal cyst
c. hepatitis
d. biliary atresia

a

68

Which one of these statements accurately completes the following. Biliary atresia _________________
a. may not involve the gallbladder
b. may affect the intrahepatic ducts
c. may not affect the extra hepatic ducts
d. is more common in female patients

a

69

The most common type of choledochal cyst is

fusiform dilations of the CBD

70

Which one of the following is considered to be the infantile form of hepatocellular carcinoma
a. neuroblastoma
b. Wilms tumor
c. Hepatoblastoma
d. A & B

C.

71

The pylorus muscle connects the _________ with the duodenum
a. body of the stomach
b. antrum of the stomach
c. lesser curvature of the stomach
d. fundus of the stomach

b

72

An over distended stomach _______ displaces the pylorus

posteriorly

73

The most common acute abdominal disorder in early childhood is which one of the following
a. hypertrophied pyloric stenosis
b. appendicitis
c. intussusception
d. biliary atresia

c. intussusception (not sure on this, during review she said intussusception is the answer but when we reviewed this exam earlier she said appendicitis was the answer)

74

In older children the common bile duct should not exceed ____mm
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

c. 4

75

Unconjugated bilirubin is elevated in which one of the following percentages of normal term infants
a. 20
b. 40
c. 60
d. 80

c. 60

76

Which of the following structures lies at the base of the medullary pyramid and appears echogenic

arcuate arteries

77

Which of the following structures is thin in the neonate with echogenicity similar or slightly greater than normal liver parenchema

cortex

78

Which of the following conditions is the most common cause of renal cystic disease in the neonate

c. Muliticystic renal disease

79

Which one of the following malignant tumors is most frequent in the neonate and infant

Wilms

80

When empty the bladder wall thickness should not exceed

5

81

Conditions in newborn associated with renal abnormalities include all the following except
a. hematuria
b. vomitting
c. oliguria
d. hypertension

d. hypertension

82

Which one of the following structures should not be mistaken for dilated calicies or cysts
a. renal cortex
b. arcuate arteries
c. renal vein
d. medullary pyramids

d. medullary pyramids

83

The best way to demonstrate the dilated ureter at the ureteral pelvic junction is with a_________ view
a. coronal
b. anterior
c. upright
d. posterior

coronal

84

Conditions that may lead to adrenal hemorrhage include all the following except
a. difficult delivery
b. large fetus
c. neonatal hypoxia
d. hydronephrosis

d. hydro

85

If the ipsilateral renal is absent or ectopic in location then the adrenal gland

b, remains in the renal fossa

86

Which one of the following statements regarding ectopic ureteroceles is incorrect?
a. are more commonly found in male patients
b. are more often found on the left side
c. result from an ectopic insertion of the distal ureter
d. cause cystic dilatation of the distal ureter

a. are more commonly found in male patients

87

Renal vein thrombosis is more prevalent in infants of ______ mothers

diabetic

88

Differential consideration for hydronephrosis include all of the following except
a. extrarenal pelvis
b. functional dilitation
c. parapelvic cyst
d. renal vein thrombosis

d. renal vein thrombosis

89

The normal renal length in the pediatric patient varies with

age

90

A pelvocaliceal dilatation without ureteral dilatation is seen with which one of the following conditions
a. posterior uretheral valves
b. bladder outlet obstruction
c. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
d. mulitcystic dysplastic kidney disease

c.