Perinatal Period Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

connects umbilical vein to inferior vena cava

A

ductus venosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

channel of communication between the main pulmonary artery and the aorta

A

ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

opening between the two atria of the fetal heart

A

foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What causes foramen ovale to close at birth?

A

decreased pulmonary vascular resistance causes increased left atrial pressure and eliminates right to left shunting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What causes ductus arteriosus to close at birth?

A

increased oxygen initiates constriction and subsequent closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the last system to form in utero?

A

pulmonary system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When is surfactant production sufficient?

A

by 34 weeks of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Normal weight loss in first week after birth

A

5-10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When do disorders usually develop in newborns?

A

after baby has been feeding for 2-3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Commonly screened conditions

A

PKU, galactosemia, hemoglobinopathies, hypothyroidism, hearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Type of growth restriction that implies event in EARLY pregnancy such as chromosomal abnormalities, drug or alcohol use, or congenital viral infections

A

symmetric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

type of growth restriction that implies problem LATE in pregnancy such as pregnancy-induced hypertension, pre-eclampsia or placental insufficiency

A

asymmetric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What should all LGA infants be screened for?

A

hypoglycemia (40-45 mg/dL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Chance of RDS at 28-30 weeks gestation

A

70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Signs within 6 hrs of birth that include: tachypnea, retractions, nasal flaring, grunting, cyanosis

A

RDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CXR findings of RDS

A

reticulogranular (ground glass) pattern and air bronchograms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Managment of RDS

A

oxygen, CPAP, vent if needed, artifical surfactant replacement

18
Q

Syndrome that is common with postmaturity and fetal distress

A

Meconium Aspiration Syndrome(MAS)

19
Q

Chest xray reveals fluffy infiltrates with alternating areas of lucency. Pneumothorax or pneumomediastinum and hyperinflation with flattening of diaphragm

A

Meconium Aspiration Syndrome(MAS)

20
Q

Management of Meconium Aspiration Syndrome(MAS)

A

gentle suctioning, chest physiotherapy, oxygen, CPAP/vent, abx

21
Q

Caused by sustained elevation in pulmonary vascular resistance
Can be idiopathic or secondary to MAS, RDS, congenital diaphragmatic hernia, hyperviscosity, sepsis, or other causes

A

Persistent Pulmonary HTN of Newborn (PPHN). aka- persistent fetal circulation

22
Q

Retained fetal lung fluid that often occurs in term or near-term infants and resolves within 24 hrs

A

Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn

23
Q

CXR shows perihilar streaking and fluid in interlobar fissures

A

Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn

24
Q

Type of jaundice that begins after 24 hrs of life, peaks around 3 days, and progresses cephalocaudally

25
Three mechanisms of physiologic jaundice
bilirubin production is higher, bilirubin clearance is decreased in liver, increased enterohepatic circulation
26
At what serum bilirubin level does jaundice appear?
3-5
27
Tests for presence of blood type antibodies in serum. A positive test results in agglutination of the RBCs
Indirect Coomb's Test
28
Use of a blue light that converts bilirubin to lumirubin to treat jaundice
phototherapy
29
Used when phototherapy fails or an infant shows signs of bilirubin-induced signs of neurologic-dysfunction (BIND), including “acute-bilirubin encephalopathy” (reversible) and kernicterus (irreversible)
exchange transfusion
30
Type of jaundice that is exaggerated when the milk takes longer to come in Or when there is mild dehydration
Exaggerated physiologic hyperbilirubinemia or breast milk jaundice
31
How often should a newborn feed?
every 2-3 hrs
32
How many wet diapers should a newborn produce?
6-8 per day
33
Can occur when unconjugated bilirubin reaches high levels and subsequently crosses the blood-brain barrier to damage cells of the brain
kernicterus
34
level that kernicterus can occur in full term newborns
unconjugated bilirubin levels are above 20-25mg/dL
35
How do you distinguish between pre-liver and post-liver problem?
Indirect bilirubin usually indicates a pre-liver problem while direct usually indicates a post-liver problem
36
Peak age of SIDS
2-4 months of age.
37
Risk factors for SIDS
sleeping position, bottle feeding, maternal smoking, infant overheating
38
Treatment for breast milk failure jaundice
Nursing is interrupted for 24-48 hours
39
Administered to any Rh-negative woman after any invasive procedure during pregnancy as well as after any miscarriage, abortion, or delivery of an Rh-positive infant
Rhogam
40
Occurs in Rh-negative women who have NOT received appropriate care with Rhogam. Often results in fetal or neonatal death without appropriate prenatal intervention
Erythroblastosis fetalis (hydrops fetalis)
41
antibodies directed against Rh protein. Can accompany any pregnancy where mom has Rh negative blood
Rh hemolytic disease
42
Occurs in context of mom having type O blood and baby having type A or B. Disease usually is not severe
ABO hemolytic disease