Pharmacology Flashcards
(196 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following types of local anesthetics is metabolized in the liver?
A. Amides
B. Esters
***BOARDS***
A
A. Amides
2
Q
Ester local anesthetics are metabolized by pseudocholinesterase in the ______.
A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Plasma
D. Stomach
***BOARDS***
A
C. Plasma
Amides = Liver
Esters = Plasma
3
Q
All of the following local anesthetics are Esters EXCEPT:
A. Procaine
B. Cocaine
C. Tetracaine
D. Prilocaine
E. Benzocaine
A
D. Prilocaine
4
Q
All of the following local anesthetics are Esters EXCEPT:
A. Procaine
B. Cocaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Tetracaine
E. Benzocaine
A
C. Lidocaine
5
Q
Which of the following local anesthetics cause the least amount of vasodilation?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivicaine
C. Mepivicaine
D. Articaine
E. Prilocaine
A
C. Mepivicaine (carbocaine)
6
Q
Which of the following is the safest local anesthetic to use on children?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivicaine
C. Mepivicaine
D. Articaine
E. Prilocaine
A
A. Lidocaine
7
Q
Which of the following local anesthetics is the LEAST safe for children?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivicaine
C. Mepivicaine
D. Articaine
E. Prilocaine
A
B. Bupivicaine (Maricaine)
8
Q
Which of the following local anesthetics has an ester chain in it chemical formula?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivicaine
C. Mepivicaine
D. Articaine
E. Prilocaine
A
D. Articaine
9
Q
Which of the following local anesthetics is metabolized in both the liver and the plasma?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivicaine
C. Mepivicaine
D. Articaine
E. Prilocaine
***BOARDS***
A
D. Articaine
Note: Articaine is an amide that also contains one ester chain in its chemical formula thus it gets metabolized in both the liver and the plasma
10
Q
Which of the following local anesthetics is linked to a blood disorder known as methemglobinemia?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivicaine
C. Mepivicaine
D. Articaine
E. Prilocaine
***BOARDS***
A
E. Prilocaine
note: Methemglobinemia is where an abnormal amount of met-hemoglobin is produced which leads to deprivation of oxygen
11
Q
Which of the following local anesthetics has the longest duration (last the longest)?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivicaine
C. Mepivicaine
D. Articaine
E. Prilocaine
A
C. Mepivicaine
12
Q
Which of the following local anesthetics has the shortest duration (doesn’t last long)?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivicaine
C. Mepivicaine
D. Articaine
E. Prilocaine
***BOARDS***
A
D. Articaine
13
Q
Discuss each of the following local anesthetics:
- What’s the other name along w/ the percentage of LA for each of the following?
- Lidocaine
- Bupivicaine
- Mepivicaine
- Articaine
- Prilocaine
A
14
Q
Which of the following local anesthetics is Carbocaine?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivicaine
C. Mepivicaine
D. Articaine
E. Prilocaine
A
C. Mepivicaine
15
Q
Which of the following local anesthetics is Marcaine?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivicaine
C. Mepivicaine
D. Articaine
E. Prilocaine
A
B. Bupivicaine
16
Q
Which of the following local anesthetics is Xylocaine?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivicaine
C. Mepivicaine
D. Articaine
E. Prilocaine
A
A. Lidocaine
17
Q
Which of the following local anesthetics is Citanest?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivicaine
C. Mepivicaine
D. Articaine
E. Prilocaine
A
E. Prilocaine
18
Q
Which of the following local anesthetics is Septocaine?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivicaine
C. Mepivicaine
D. Articaine
E. Prilocaine
A
D. Articaine
19
Q
Local anesthetics on their own are usually vasodilators, which of the following is the exception to this being a vasoconstrictor?
A. Procaine
B. Cocaine
C. Tetracaine
D. Benzocaine
A
B. Cocaine
20
Q
What is the mechanism of action for Local Anesthetics?
***BOARDS***
A
Sodium channel blocker
21
Q
Discuss the Pharmodynamics of Local Anesthetics in regards to each of the following:
- What does Pharmodynamics refer to?
- What is the Pharmodynamics of LA?
- Only ____ form can penetrate neuron membrane.
A
22
Q
Discuss the Pharmacokinetics of LA in regards to each of the following:
- Increasing blood flow = ?
- Increasing lipid solubility/hydrophobicity = ?
- Increasing protein binding = ?
- Decreasing pKa = ?
A
23
Q
Which of the following has a pKa of 8.1?
A. Mepivicaine
B. Lidocaine, Septocaine, Prilocaine
C. Bupivicaine
D. All of the above
A
C. Bupivicaine
Mepivicaine = pKa 7.6
Lidocaine, Septocaine, articaine = pKa 7.8
Bupivicaine = pKa 8.1
24
Q
Which of the following has a pKa of 7.6?
A. Mepivicaine
B. Lidocaine, Septocaine, Prilocaine
C. Bupivicaine
D. All of the above
A
A. Mepivicaine
Mepivicaine = pKa 7.6
Lidocaine, Septocaine, articaine = pKa 7.8
Bupivicaine = pKa 8.1
25
Which of the following has a **pKa of 7.8**?
## Footnote
A. Mepivicaine
B. Lidocaine, Septocaine, Prilocaine
C. Bupivicaine
D. All of the above
B. Lidocaine, Septocaine, Prilocaine
Mepivicaine = pKa 7.6
Lidocaine, Septocaine, articaine = pKa 7.8
Bupivicaine = pKa 8.1
26
Discuss the calculations of local anesthetics:
* How many mg of anesthetic is in one 1.8mL carpule of 2% lidocaine?
* How many mg of anesthetic is in one 1.8mL carpule of 4% septocaine?
27
A carpule of 2% lidocaine solution with 1:100k epi would contain how much epinephrine in mg?
0.018mg
28
What are the 3 benefits to adding a vasoconstrictor (epinephrine) to local anesthetic?
**\*\*\*BOARDS\*\*\***
29
The maximum lidocaine **without** a vasoconstrictor for a patient is \_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. 0.2mg
B. 0.4mg
C. 4.4mg/kg
D. 7mg/kg
C. 4.4mg/kg
30
The maximum epinephrine for a **cardiac patien**t is \_\_\_\_.
A. 0.2mg
B. 0.4mg
C. 4.4mg/kg
D. 7mg/kg
B. 0.4mg
31
The maximum epinephrine for ASA I patients is:
A. 0.2mg
B. 0.4mg
C. 4.4mg/kg
D. 7mg/kg
A. 0.2mg
32
"Slow" injection is 1 carpule per \_\_\_\_.
"Slow" injection is **1 carpule per minute**
33
The maximum lidocaine **with** a vasoconstrictor for a patient is \_\_\_\_\_\_.
## Footnote
A. 0.2mg
B. 0.4mg
C. 4.4mg/kg
D. 7mg/kg
D. 7mg/kg
34
Discuss needle dimensions: (length and gauge of needles)
35
Which of the following has the highest failure rate?
A. IAN block
B. Buccal nerve block
C. Mental nerve block
D. Incisive nerve block
A. IAN block
36
Which of the following is done in tandem with IAN block?
A. PSA nerve block
B. Buccal nerve block
C. Mental nerve block
D. Incisive nerve block
E. ASA nerve block
B. Buccal nerve block
37
Which of the following is the open mouth method for IAN block?
A. Halstead
B. Gow-Gates
C. Akinosi
B. Gow-Gates
38
Which of the following has the **highest risk of hematoma**?
A. IAN block
B. ASA nerve block
C. Buccal nerve block
D. PSA nerve block
E. Mental nerve block
**\*\*\*BOARDS\*\*\***
D. PSA nerve block
39
How deep (in mm) do you need to go w/ your needle to hit the PSA nerve block?
**\*\*\*BOARDS\*\*\***
40
Whihc of the following is also called "true ASA block"?
A. MSA nerve block
B. PSA nerve block
C. Nasopalatine nerve block
D. Infraorbital nerve block
E. IAN block
D. Infraorbital nerve block
41
All of the following antibiotic classes are **bactericidal** EXCEPT:
A. Sulfonamides
B. Fluoroquinolones
C. Penicillins
D. Cephalosporins
E. Monobactams
A. Sulfonamides
42
Which of the following antibiotics is a **folate synthesis inhibitor**?
A. Sulfonamides
B. Fluoroquinolones
C. Penicillins
D. Cephalosporins
E. Monobactams
A. Sulfonamides
43
Which of the following antibiotics is a **DNA synthesis inhibitor**?
A. Sulfonamides
B. Fluoroquinolones
C. Penicillins
D. Cephalosporins
E. Monobactams
B. Fluoroquinolones
44
Discuss the prefix/suffix you need to know to remember what class of antibiotics each of the following belong to:
* Sulfonamides
* Fluoroquinolones
* Penicillins
* Cephalosporins
* Monobactams
Sulfonamides = "sulfa"
Fluoroquinolones = "floxacin"
Penicillins = "cillin"
Cephalosporins = "cef"
Monobactams = "am"
45
All of the following are cell wall synthesis inhibitors, beta-lactam EXCEPT:
A. Fluoroquinolones
B. Penicillins
C. Cephalosporins
D. Monobactams
E. Carbapenems
A. Fluoroquinolones
46
Which of the following antibiotics has the **broadest antimicrobial spectrum**?
A. Penicillins
B. Tetracyclines
C. Lincosamides
D. Macrolides
E. Carbapenems
**\*\*\*BOARDS\*\*\***
B. Tetracyclines
47
Which of the following is cross-allergenic with cephalosporins because they are chemically related?
A. Sulfonamides
B. Fluoroquinolones
C. Penicillins
D. Carbapenems
E. Monobactams
\*\*\*BOARDS\*\*\*
C. Penicillins
48
Which of the following Penicillins has the best/broadest **gram-negative** spectrum?
A. Penicillin G
B. Penicillin V
C. Ampicillin
D. Carbenicillin
E. Augmentin
C. Ampicillin
49
Which of the following penicillins is given **IV** because it is sensitive to acid degradation?
A. Penicillin G
B. Penicillin V
C. Ampicillin
D. Carbenicillin
E. Augmentin
A. Penicillin G
**Note: Penicillin V is taken orally bc it is less sensitive to acid degradation**
50
Which of the following penicillins is used specifically against **pseudomonas**?
A. Penicillin G
B. Penicillin V
C. Ampicillin
D. Carbenicillin
E. Augmentin
D. Carbenicillin
51
Which of the following penicillins are a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid?
A. Penicillin G
B. Penicillin V
C. Ampicillin
D. Carbenicillin
E. Augmentin
E. Augmentin
52
Which of the following penicillins is **beta-lactamase-resistant**?
A. Penicillin G
B. Penicillin V
C. Ampicillin
D. Methicillin
E. Augmentin
D. Methicillin
Note: remember that MRSA is a very dangerous disease
53
Discuss the prefix/suffix you need to know to remember what class of antibiotics each of the following belong to:
* Carbapenems
* Tetracyclines
* Macrlides
* Lincosamides
Carbapenems = "nem"
Tetracyclines = "cycline"
Macrlides = "thromycin"
Lincosamides = "mycin"
54
Which of the following antibiotics is a **protein synthesis inhibitor (30S ribosome)**?
A. Carbapenems
B. Tetracyclines
C. Macrlides
D. Lincosamides
B. Tetracyclines
55
All of the following antibiotics are **protein synthesis inhibitors** EXCEPT:
A. Carbapenems
B. Tetracyclines
C. Macrlides
D. Lincosamides
A. Carbapenems
56
All of the following conditions require antibiotic prophylaxis EXCEPT:
A. Prosthetic heart valve
B. Mitral valve prolapse without valvular regurgitation
C. History of endocarditis
D. Heart transplant with valvulopathy/valve dysfunction
E. Congenital heart problems
B. Mitral valve prolapse without valvular regurgitation
57
What are the 4 cardiovascular conditions that require antibiotic prophylaxis?
58
What are the 3 compromised immunity conditions that require antibiotic prophylaxis?
59
Discuss antibiotic prophylaxis for Infective Endocarditis in regards to each of the following: (make sure to indicate the dose for each)
* First choice?
* First choice for children?
* Penicillin allergy?
* Children w/ PCN allergy?
* Non-oral (IV or IM)?
* Children, non-oral?
60
What is the antibiotic prophylaxis used for a patient with a **prosthetic joint**?
61
Which of the following heart conditions is an indication for antibiotic prophylaxis?
A. Cardiac pacemaker
B. Rheumatic fever without valvular dysfunction
C. Mitral valve prolapse without valvular regurgitation
D. Prosthetic joints
E. Congenital heart problems
**"YOU WILL SEE THIS ON BOARDS - MAYBE EVEN WORD FOR WORD"**
E. Congenital heart problems
Note: careful, prosthetic joint is not a heart condition
62
When is Antibiotic Prophylaxis NOT required?
\*\*\*BOARDS\*\*\* FORSURE\*\*\*
**_Simple dental procedures do NOT require prophylaxis_**. Make sure to review the slide below
63
Which of the following antibiotics is associated with **liver damage**?
A. Clindamycin
B. Broad spectrum antibiotics
C. Tetracycline
D. Erythromycin estolate
E. Penicillin
\*\*\*BOARDS\*\*\*
C. Tetracycline
64
Which of the following antibiotics is associated with **aplastic anemia**?
A. Clindamycin
B. Broad spectrum antibiotics
C. Tetracycline
D. Erythromycin estolate
E. Chloramphenicol
\*\*\*BOARDS\*\*\*
E. Chloramphenicol
65
Which of the following antibiotics causes GI upset and **_pseudomonas colitis_**?
A. Clindamycin
B. Broad spectrum antibiotics
C. Tetracycline
D. Erythromycin estolate
E. Chloramphenicol
**\*\*\*BOARDS\*\*\***
A. Clindamycin
66
Which of the following antibiotics is associated with allergic **cholestatic hepatitis**?
A. Clindamycin
B. Broad spectrum antibiotics
C. Tetracycline
D. Erythromycin estolate
E. Chloramphenicol
\*\*\*BOARDS\*\*\*
D. Erythromycin estolate
67
Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause a **superinfection**?
A. Clindamycin
B. Broad spectrum antibiotics
C. Tetracycline
D. Erythromycin estolate
E. Chloramphenicol
\*\*\*BOARDS\*\*\*
B. Broad spectrum antibiotics
68
What two classes of antibiotics cancel each other out?
69
Which of the following antibiotics concentrate on **gingival crevicular fluid**?
A. Clindamycin
B. Tetracycline
B. Tetracycline
70
Which of the following antibiotics concentrate on **bone**?
A. Clindamycin
B. Tetracycline
A. Clindamycin
71
Discuss antivirals and anti fungal in regards to each of the following:
* Acyclovir, Valcyclovir = ?
* Fucon**_azole_**, Ketocon**_azole_** = ?
* _____ is in **troche form**. \*\*\***He got a boards Q on this\*\*\***
72
Which of the following is a **COX 1 and 2 blocker** that is metabolized in the **liver**?
A. Aspirin
B. Ibuprofen
C. Celecoxib
D. Meloxicam
B. Ibuprofen
73
Which of the following is a _COX 1 and 2 blocker_ that is metabolized in the **GI tract**?
A. Aspirin
B. Ibuprofen
C. Celecoxib
D. Meloxicam
A. Aspirin
74
Which of the following are selective COX 2 blockers?
A. Aspirin
B. Ibuprofen
C. Celecoxib
D. Meloxicam
E. Two of the above
\*\*\*BOARDS\*\*\*
E. Two of the above
75
Discuss **Acetaminophen** in regards to each of the following:
* Is Acetaminophen an NSAID?
* Where is Acetaminophen metabolized?
* Where is Ibuprophen metabolized?
* Why is this the drug of choice for a feverish child? Why is aspirin bad for children?
* What syndrome can be caused in a child taking aspirin?
\*\*\*BOARDS\*\*\*
76
What is the maximum dose per day for each of the following:
* Ibuprofen?
* Acetaminophen?
77
Discuss the Therapeutic Effects of Aspirin in regards to each of the following:
* **Analgesic = ?**
* **Anti-inflammatory = ?**
* **Antipyretic = ?**
* **Bleeding time = ?**
**\*\*\*MOST IMPORTANT SLIDE IN ENTIRE PPT - BOARDS\*\*\***
78
What is the number one toxic effect of aspirin?
Occult bleeding from GI tract
79
What is the suffix for Corticosteroids ?
What does the chemical structure of corticosteroids look like?
80
Discuss the therapeutic effects of steroids in regards to each of the following:
* Analgesic = ?
* Anti-inflammatory = ?
81
What is the rule of 2's in regards to steroid side effects?
82
What is the mechanism of action for **Narcotics/Opiods**?
83
Discuss Narcotic combinations in regards to each of the following: (know #'s for BOARDS)
* Vicodin
* Percocet
* Tylenol 1
* Tylenol 2
* Tylenol 3
* Tylenol 4
84
Discuss the therapeutic and side effects of **morphine**:
**\*\*\*HE GOT 3 Qs ON BOARDS\*\*\***
85
Discuss Nitrous Oxide in regards to each of the following:
* Who was the first to use this?
* **Sensation before onset = ?**
* **Side effect = ?**
* **Long term exposure = ?**
* Diffusion hypoxia
86
Discuss the absorption of drugs:
87
Discuss the pH considerations in regards to each of the following:
* **For drugs that are weak acids = ?**
* **For drugs that are weak bases = ?**
88
Discuss the Distribution of drugs:
89
Discuss the **first pass effect**:
90
Discuss the Volume of Distribution of medications:
91
Discuss the metabolism of medications in regards to each of the following:
* Phase 1
* Phase 2
92
Discuss the metabolism of Acetaminophen:
93
Discuss the clearance/elimination of medications:
94
Discuss Elimination Kinetics in regards to each of the following:
* First-order kinetics?
* Zero-order kinetics?
95
Discuss Drug-Drug interactions in regards to each of the following:
* One drug affects the pharmacokinetics of another drug, most commonly \_\_\_\_\_\_.
* Induction?
* Inhibition?
96
Review the basics of pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of medications:
97
Which of the following is associated w/ Pharmacodynamics?
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Drug-receptor interaction
D. Metabolism
E. Clearance
C. Drug-receptor interaction
98
Almost all drug targets are \_\_\_\_\_.
Proteins
99
Discuss **Agonists** in regards to each of the following:
* What is an agonist?
* Full agonist = ?
* Partial agonist = ?
100
Discuss Antagonist in regards to each of the following:
* What is an antagonist?
* **Competitive antagonist?**
* **Non-competitive antagonist?**
101
Which of the following inhibits the **basal activity** of a receptor in the absence of the normal agonist?
A. Non-competitive antagonist
B. Competitive antagonist
C. Inverse agonist
D. Partial agonist
E. Full agonist
C. Inverse agonist
102
Discuss the Type I Dose Response Curve:
103
Discuss the Type II Dose Response Curve:
104
Combining drugs leads to more than the sum of the two independently:
A. Additive
B. Antagonistic
C. Synergistic
D. Partial agonist
C. Synergistic
105
Two drugs producing opposing effects on the same tissue via distinct receptors is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Chemical antagonism
B. Receptor antagonism
C. Pharmacokinetic antagonism
D. Physiologic antagonism
D. Physiologic antagonism
106
Drug binds directly to another drug to put it out of commission:
A. Chemical antagonism
B. Receptor antagonism
C. Pharmacokinetic antagonism
D. Physiologic antagonism
A. Chemical antagonism
107
One drug affects the PK of another via pH, etc.:
A. Chemical antagonism
B. Receptor antagonism
C. Pharmacokinetic antagonism
D. Physiologic antagonism
C. Pharmacokinetic antagonism
108
Competition between two drugs for a single receptor is known as \_\_\_\_\_.
A. Chemical antagonism
B. Receptor antagonism
C. Pharmacokinetic antagonism
D. Physiologic antagonism
B. Receptor antagonism
109
Discuss ANS Physiology in regards to each of the following:
* How is the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems related and different?
* Discuss how many nerves and which system (PSNS/SNS) controls them:
* cranial nerves
* cervical
* lumbar
* sacral
110
All of the following are the result of stimulating the **sympathetic** system EXCEPT:
A. Pupil dilation
B. Stimulated salivation
C. Airway relaxation
D. Bladder relaxation
E. Slowed digestion
B. Stimulated salivation
111
Which of the following type of receptors is a **G-protein coupled receptor**?
A. Ionotropic receptors
B. Metabotropic receptors
B. Metabotropic receptors
112
Which of the following is a **metabotropic** receptor controlled by the **Parasympathetic system**?
A. Nicotinic receptors
B. Muscarinic receptors
C. Adrenergic receptors
D. All of the above
B. Muscarinic receptors
113
Which of the following is a **metabotropic** receptor controlled by the **Sympathetic system**?
## Footnote
A. Nicotinic receptors
B. Muscarinic receptors
C. Adrenergic receptors
D. All of the above
C. Adrenergic receptors
114
Which of the following is a **Ionotropic** receptor controlled by the **Parasympathetic** system?
## Footnote
A. Nicotinic receptors
B. Muscarinic receptors
C. Adrenergic receptors
D. All of the above
A. Nicotinic receptors
115
Review the SNS vs. PSNS slide in the mental dental ppt on the other side of this note card:
116
Discuss the synthesis of Acetylcholine in regards to each of the following:
* _______ + _________ = Acetylcholine
* Catalyzed by what enzyme?
* Reversed by what enzyme?
117
Which of the following catalyzes the **synthesis** of Acetylcholine?
A. Choline acetyltransferase
B. Acetycholinesterase
A. Choline acetyltransferase
118
Which of the following Muscarinic receptors innervates the **heart**?
A. M1 receptor
B. M2 receptor
C. M3 receptor
D. M4 receptor
E. M5 receptor
B. M2 receptor
119
Which of the following Muscarinic receptors innervates **Smooth Muscle**?
## Footnote
A. M1 receptor
B. M2 receptor
C. M3 receptor
D. M4 receptor
E. M5 receptor
C. M3 receptor
120
**Muscarinic** receptor are under control of which of the following?
A. Sympathetic system
B. Parasympathetic system
B. Parasympathetic system
121
Discuss **Muscarinic** receptors in regards to each of the following:
* Which Muscarinic receptor innervates the heart and what effect does this have?
* SLUDS?
* BAM?
122
Discuss Muscarinic Agonist in regards to each of the following:
* Non-selective M agonist should not be used systemically for people with what 3 conditions?
CHF = congestive heart failure
Peptic ulcers = PSNS causes rest and digest increasing acidity
Asthma/COPD = don't want to constrict the airway even more
CHF = you don't want to decrease cardiac output even more
123
Which of the following is a Muscarinic agonist that **reversibly** inhibits cholinesterase but can also directly affect NMJ?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Atropine
C. Neostigmine
D. Organophosphate insecticides
E. Pralidoxime
C. Neostigmine
124
Which of the following is a Muscarinic agonist that **irreversibly** inhibits cholinesterase but can also directly affect NMJ?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Atropine
C. Neostigmine
D. Organophosphate insecticides
E. Pralidoxime
D. Organophosphate insecticides
125
Which of the following **stimulates saliva** and constricts pupils?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Atropine
C. Neostigmine
D. Organophosphate insecticides
E. Pralidoxime
A. Pilocarpine
Pilocarpine = stimulates saliva
Atropine = reduces saliva
126
Which of the following **reduces saliva** and can be used as an _emergency drug to treat bradycardia_?
## Footnote
A. Pilocarpine
B. Atropine
C. Neostigmine
D. Organophosphate insecticides
E. Pralidoxime
B. Atropine
Pilocarpine = stimulates saliva
Atropine = reduces saliva
127
Which of the following can be used to tx insecticide poisoning?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Atropine
C. Neostigmine
D. Organophosphate insecticides
E. Pralidoxime
**\*\*\*BOARDS\*\*\***
E. Pralidoxime
128
Review all of the Muscarinic drugs:
129
Discuss the synthesis of epinephrine and norepinephrine in regards to each of the following:
* **What are the 4 steps to synthesizing epinephrine?**
* Catecholamines = ?
* Monoamines = ?
130
All of the following are **Catecholamines** EXCEPT:
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Norepinephrine
D. Epinephrine
B. Serotonin
131
All of the following are Catecholamines EXCEPT:
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Histamine
D. Epinephrine
C. Histamine
Monoamines = Catecholamines + serotonin and histamine
132
All of the following Adrenergic receptors innervates smooth muscle EXCEPT:
A. Alpha-1 receptor
B. Alpha-2 receptor
C. Beta-1 receptor
D. Beta-2 receptor
C. Beta-1 receptor
133
Which of the following innervates the smooth muscle of the **lungs**?
A. Alpha-1 receptor
B. Alpha-2 receptor
C. Beta-1 receptor
D. Beta-2 receptor
D. Beta-2 receptor
## Footnote
Note: "1 heart and 2 lungs" - NOVAK
134
Which of the following innervates the **heart**?
## Footnote
A. Alpha-1 receptor
B. Alpha-2 receptor
C. Beta-1 receptor
D. Beta-2 receptor
C. Beta-1 receptor
135
Discuss alpha and beta Adrenergic receptors in regards to each of the following:
* Which receptor causes vasoconstriction, urinary retention, and mydriasis?
* What 3 effects does the Beta-1 receptor have on the heart?
* What receptor causes the release of renin form the kidneys?
* What 3 effects does the Beta-2 receptor have?
136
How does the Beta-1 receptor cause **Tachycardia**?
137
Which of the following causes **Tachycardia**?
A. Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor
B. Alpha-2 adrenergic receptor
C. Beta-1 adrenergic receptor
D. Beta-2 adrenergic receptor
E. M2 Muscarinic receptor
C. Beta-1 adrenergic receptor
M2 Muscarinic receptor = bradycardia
Beta-1 adrenergic receptor = tachycardia
138
Review all adrenergic agonist/antagonist drugs:
139
Which of the following sympathomimetics inhibits _Reuptake_ of serotonin and norepinephrine?
A. Amphetamine
B. Tyramine
C. Cocaine
D. Tricyclic antidepressants
E. MAOI
D. Tricyclic antidepressants
140
Which of the following inhibits _release_ of norepinephrine?
A. Amphetamine
B. Tyramine
C. Cocaine
D. Tricyclic antidepressants
E. MAOI
A. Amphetamine
141
Which of the following should not be taken with wine, cheese, chocolate (fermented)?
A. Amphetamine
B. Tyramine
C. Cocaine
D. Tricyclic antidepressants
E. MAOI
B. Tyramine
142
Which of the following blocks enzymatic degradation of monoamines?
A. Amphetamine
B. Tyramine
C. Cocaine
D. Tricyclic antidepressants
E. MAOI
E. MAOI
143
Which of the following blocks adrenergic receptors?
A. Metoprolol
B. Isoprotenol
C. Albuteral
D. Dobutamine
E. Phenylephrine
A. Metoprolol
Beta-blockers block adrenergic receptors
note: albuterol activates the beta-2 receptor (inhaler) "2 lungs and 1 heart"
144
Which of the following activates the Beta-1 receptor to kick start the heart?
A. Metoprolol
B. Isoprotenol
C. Albuteral
D. Dobutamine
E. Phenylephrine
D. Dobutamine
145
Which of the following sympatholytics is an alpha-2 agonist, which actually blocks SNS signal?
A. Guanethidine
B. Reserpine
C. Clonidine
D. Methyldopa
E. Two of the above
E. Two of the above
146
Which of the following _depletes_ NE stores thus inhibiting release?
A. Guanethidine
B. Reserpine
C. Clonidine
D. Methyldopa
E. Two of the above
B. Reserpine
147
Whihc of the following inhibits release of NE?
A. Guanethidine
B. Reserpine
C. Clonidine
D. Methyldopa
E. Two of the above
A. Guanethidine
Guanethidine = stimulates _release_ of stored NE
Reserpine = _depletes_ NE stores thus inhibiting release of NE
148
Discuss Epinephrine Reversal:
**\*\*\*BOARDS\*\*\***
149
Discuss the **Vasovagal Reflex** in regards to each of the following:
* What is the Vasovagal reflex and what are it's effects?
* What drug blocks this effect?
150
Discuss the Circulatory System in regards to each of the following:
* The human circulatory system is an open system? (T/F)
* What are the 3 components of the human circulatory system?
151
Discuss the circulatory system in regards to each of the following:
* What is the main equation for Blood Pressure?
* Systole = ?
* Diastole = ?
* Preload = ?
* Afterload = ?
152
All of the following are _Diuretics_ EXCEPT?
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Hydralazine
D. Spironolactone
C. Hydralazine
153
Which of the following is a loop or high-ceiling diuretic?
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Hydralazine
D. Spironolactone
A. Furosemide
154
Which of the following diuretics causes **Hyperkalemia**?
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Hydralazine
D. Spironolactone
D. Spironolactone
**Note: Spironolactone is a K+ sparing diuretic which is why it can cause Hyperkalemia**
155
Which of the following diuretics causes **Hypokalemia**?
## Footnote
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Hydralazine
D. Spironolactone
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
156
Which of the following open K+ channels to cause **vasodilation**?
A. Spironolactone
B. Hydralazine
C. Verapamil
D. Diltiazem
E. Furosemide
B. Hydralazine
157
Which of the following drugs induce **gingival hyperplasia**?
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Verapamil
D. Spironolactone
C. Verapamil
Verapamil = calcium channel blocker
Thiazide diuretics = Hypokalemia
K+ sparring diuretics = Hyperkalemia
158
Which of the following drugs induce **Hyperkalemia**?
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Verapamil
D. Spironolactone
D. Spironolactone
Verapamil = calcium channel blocker
Thiazide diuretics = Hypokalemia
K+ sparring diuretics = Hyperkalemia
159
Which of the following drugs induce **Hypokalemia**?
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Verapamil
D. Spironolactone
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
Verapamil = calcium channel blocker
Thiazide diuretics = Hypokalemia
K+ sparring diuretics = Hyperkalemia
160
Which of the following may cause **hyperkalemia**?
A. Loop diuretics
B. Thiazide diuretics
C. K+ sparing diuretics
D. Calcium channel blockers
C. K+ sparing diuretics
161
Which of the following may cause **hypokalemia**?
## Footnote
A. Loop diuretics
B. Thiazide diuretics
C. K+ sparing diuretics
D. Calcium channel blockers
B. Thiazide diuretics
162
Which of the following may induce **gingival hyperplasia**?
A. Loop diuretics
B. Thiazide diuretics
C. K+ sparing diuretics
D. Calcium channel blockers
**\*\*\*GAURENTEED BOARDS Q\*\*\***
D. Calcium channel blockers
**Calcium channel blockers: verapamil, diltiazem, amlodipine, nifedipine**
163
Discuss each of the following in regards to calcium channel blockers:
* Calcium channel blockers may induce \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
* What are the 4 drugs that are calcium channel blockers?
**\*\*\*GAURENTEED BOARDS Q\*\*\***
164
Which of the following blocks the enzyme that converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II, the latter of which is a potent vasoconstrictor?
A. Diuretics
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. ARBs
C. ACE inhibitors
ACE inhibitors = "prils"
165
Which of the following are competitive antagonist at angiotensin II receptor blocking a potent vasoconstrictor?
A. Diuretics
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. ARBs
D. ARBs
ACE inhibitors = "prils"
ARBs = "sartans"
166
All of the following are **Antianginals** EXCEPT:
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta-blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Nitroglycerine
A. ACE inhibitors
167
What does **MONA** stand for in regards to Antianginals?
**M**orphine
**O**xygen
**N**itroglycerine
**A**spirin
168
Which of the following antianginals reduce oxygen demands by _relaxing the heart_?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta-blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Nitroglycerine
B. Beta-blockers
169
Which of the following antianginals reduce oxygen demands by _reducing peripheral resistance_ via vasodilation?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta-blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Nitroglycerine
C. Calcium channel blockers
170
Which of the following antianginals causes vasodilation of smooth muscle in _coronary arterie_s to increase oxygen supply?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta-blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Nitroglycerine
D. Nitroglycerine
171
Which of the following block Na/K ATPase to increase calcium influx and promotes positive inotropy in cardiac muscle cell only?
A. Digoxin
B. Propanolol
C. Digitalis
D. ACE inhibitors
E. Two of the above
E. Two of the above
Anti-congenstive heart failure drugs = Digoxin and Digitalis
172
Which of the following types of anti-arrhythmics are **beta blockers**?
A. Type 1a anti-arrhythics
B. Type 1b anti-arrhythics
C. Type II anti-arrhythics
D. Type III anti-arrhythics
E. Type IV anti-arrhythics
C. Type II anti-arrhythics
173
Which of the following types of anti-arrhythmics are Calcium channel blockers?
## Footnote
A. Type 1a anti-arrhythics
B. Type 1b anti-arrhythics
C. Type II anti-arrhythics
D. Type III anti-arrhythics
E. Type IV anti-arrhythics
E. Type IV anti-arrhythics
174
Which of the following types of anti-arrhythmics are sodium channel blockers lengthens refractory period to slow heartbeat?
## Footnote
A. Type 1a anti-arrhythics
B. Type 1b anti-arrhythics
C. Type II anti-arrhythics
D. Type III anti-arrhythics
E. Type IV anti-arrhythics
A. Type 1a anti-arrhythics
175
Which of the following types of anti-arrhythmics is a Na channel blocker that shortens refractory period to hasten heartbeat?
A. Type 1a anti-arrhythics
B. Type 1b anti-arrhythics
C. Type II anti-arrhythics
D. Type III anti-arrhythics
E. Type IV anti-arrhythics
B. Type 1b anti-arrhythics
176
Which of the following types of anti-arrhythmics is a **K+ channel blocker**?
A. Type 1a anti-arrhythics
B. Type 1b anti-arrhythics
C. Type II anti-arrhythics
D. Type III anti-arrhythics
E. Type IV anti-arrhythics
D. Type III anti-arrhythics
177
Which of the following antidepressants is used for **manic depression** (bipolar disorder)?
A. Haloperidol
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Clozapine
D. Lithium
E. Fluoxetine
**\*\*\*BOARDS\*\*\***
D. Lithium
178
Which of the following is a dopamine and serotonin blocker?
A. Haloperidol
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Clozapine
D. Lithium
E. Fluoxetine
C. Clozapine
179
Which of the following is a D2 blocker that is used to tx **Tardive Dyskinesia**?
A. Haloperidol
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Clozapine
D. Lithium
E. Fluoxetine
A. Haloperidol
180
All of the following are SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Phenelzine
C. Citalopram
D. Trazadone
B. Phenelzine
Phenelzine = MAOI
181
Which of the following is an SNRI/TCA (serotonin and NE reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants)?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Phenelzine
C. Citalopram
D. Trazadone
E. Amitriptyline
E. Amitriptyline
182
Which of the following is a _2nd_ generation antispychotics used to tx **schizophrenia**?
A. Haloperidol
B. Phenothiazines
C. Clozapine
D. Phenylzine
E. Fluoxetine
B. Phenothiazines
183
What are the 3 drugs used to Tx **Schizophrenia**?
Haloperidol, phenothiazines, clozapine
184
What are the two classes of anxiolytics/sedatives?
185
Discuss **Benzodiazepines** in regards to each of the following:
* Mechanism of action?
* **Ideal drug for _____ in the dental setting.**
* **Propylene glycol can induce ______ in large veins.**
* **What are the 3 drugs?**
186
Discuss **Barbiturates** in regards to each of the following:
* Mechanism of action?
* **Barbs are contraindicated in patients with ______ because they will aggravate the disease.**
* **Barb overdose causes \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.**
187
Discuss General Anesthetics in regards to each of the following:
* The more soluble the agent in blood, the more \_\_\_\_\_.
* Stage 1?
* Stage 2?
* Stage 3?
* Stage 4?
* What drug and what is that drug associated with?
188
Which of the following stages of general anesthesia is associated with _delirium_?
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
B. Stage II
189
Which of the following stages of general anesthesia is associated with _surgical anesthesia_?
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
C. Stage III
190
Which of the following stages of general anesthesia is associated with _analgesia/better felling_?
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
A. Stage I
191
Which of the following stages of general anesthesia is associated with _medullary paralysis_?
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
D. Stage IV
192
Discuss **Parkinson's Disease** in regards to each of the following:
* What is the main pathway?
* **Parkinson's disease is due to _______ in the brain.**
* **Discuss the 2 drugs used for Parkinson's Disease and how they work together.**
193
Which of the following is the precursor to dopamine that is able to cross the blood brain barrier?
A. Carbidopa
B. Levodopa
B. Levodopa
194
Parkinson's Disease is due to a _______ deficiency in the brain.
Dopamine
195
Which of the following blocks DOPA decarboxylase, allowing L-DOPA to cross the BBB where it can be converted to dopamine once in the brain?
A. Carbidopa
B. Levodopa
A. Carbidopa
196
\_\_\_\_\_ is the precursor to Dopamine.
Levodopa (L-DOPA)
