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Capstone > Pharmacology cheat sheet > Flashcards

Pharmacology cheat sheet Flashcards

1
Q

pyrantel

A

cholinergic agonist that binds to nicotinic receptors to depolarize and act as a neuromuscular-blocking agent to paralyze susceptible parasites
small animals: rounds and hooks
horses: strongyles, pinworms, large rounds

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2
Q

fenbendazole

A

benzimidazole antiparasitic that disrupts intracellular mircotubular transport systems by binding tubulin, preventing tubulin polymerization, and inhibiting microtubule formation
broad dewormer: rounds, hooks, whips, tapes excluding Dipylididum caninum

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3
Q

ivermectin

A

avermectin antiparasitic
macrocyclic lactone binds glutamate-gated chloride ion channels within invertebrate nerve and muscle cells resulting in cell hyperpolarization causing paralysis. and death of the parasite
heartworm preventative and skin/ear mites in small animals
MDR1 (ABCB1) mutation causes CNS toxicity
DONT USE: chelonians, indigo snakes, crocodilians, skinks

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4
Q

praziquantel

A

anticestodal antiparasitic
causes irreversible focal vacuolization with subsequent cestodal disintegration at specific sites of the integument to cause susceptibility to digestion
used in horses, sheep, goats, camelids, birds, small mammals, reptiles

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5
Q

piperazine

A

thought to paralyze susceptible nematodes
primarily used for ascarids
limited efficacy, not usually used today
OTC

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6
Q

sulfa/trimethoprim sulfadiazine

A

potentiated sulfonamides
sulfa is bacteriostatic and when used with trimethoprim is bacteriocidal
good efficacy against many bacteria resistant to other common antibiotics
side effects: KCS, hematuria, hemolytic anemia, polyarthritis
used in small animals, horses, birds, ferrets, reptiles

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7
Q

milbemycin oxime

A

macrolide antiparasitic used as heartworm preventative, hookworm control and removal of adult roundworms and whipworms
extra label for skin mites
can cause CNS signs in MDR1 mutant species or overdose situations
used in dogs and cats

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8
Q

moxidectin

A

macrocyclic lactone antiparasitic
milbemycin-class antiparasitic used in small and large animals
safe for MDR1 mutants but may cause CNS toxicity, anaphylaxis, or immune-mediated reactions at higher doses or when given with vaccines
can be used in combo for broader spectrum treatment, used for roundworms and hookworms

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9
Q

selamectin

A

topical antiparasitic in small animals
potential MDR1 mutant breed concerns
combo products improve efficacy
labeled for fleas, heartworm, ear mites, scabies in dogs, and cat rounds and hooks
used in small animals and exotics

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10
Q

afoxolaner, sarolaner, fluralaner, lotilaner

A

isoxazoline ectoparasites
oral/topical flea/tick treatment and preventatives for dogs and cats
extra label: demodex, scabies, ear mites
starts killing fleas within 3 hours of administration, kills most ticks within 48 hours, and maintains for 30 days
caution in animals with history of seizures or overdose

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11
Q

imidacloprid

A

acts on nicotinic acetylcholine receptors on the post-synaptic membrane causing CNS impairment and death
OTC oral tablets, topicals, and collars
oral labeled for dog fleas only, starts killing within 1 hour
topically used on cats for long duration

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12
Q

fipronil

A

phenylpyrazole antiparasitic that interferes with the passage of chloride ions in GABA-regulated chloride channels in invertebrates disrupting CNS activity and causing death
labeled for flea, tick, and chewing lice
used in combo with Permethrins and Pyriproxyfen

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13
Q

nitenpyram

A

neonicotinoid insecticides
binds to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in the postsynaptic membranes and blocks acetylcholine-mediated neuronal transmission causing paralysis and death of fleas
used in cats and dogs, extra label in reptiles
Rx and OTC
comboed with Lufenuron and Milbemycin
starts working in 30 minutes and can be repeated up to once daily
oral and rectal forms, or crushed in a wound for maggots

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14
Q

spinosad

A

oral macrocyclic lactone
contains spinosyn A and spinosyn D
nicotinic acetylcholine D-alpha receptor agonist causing involuntary muscle contractions and tremors secondary to motor neuron activation, prolonged exposure causes paralysis and death
starts working in 30 minutes
monthly dosing for dogs and cats
combined with milbemycin oxime for dogs

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15
Q

lufeneron

A

IGR-Chitin synthesis inhibitor
prevents flea eggs from hatching, doesn’t kill adults
combined with milbemycin oxime, praziquantel, and nitenpyram

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16
Q

permethrins/pyrethrins

A

OTC
permethrins are a synthetic pyrethyroid insecticide
very toxic to cats, don’t use on dogs that live with cats
signs of toxicity: hyperesthesia, generalized tremors, muscle fasciculation, hyperthermia, seizures
used in flea shampoos

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17
Q

IGRs

A

OTC often combined with permethrins and other OTC insecticides

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18
Q

aminoglycoside/aminocyclitol antibiotics

A

primarily used for gram negative aerobes
mostly topical formulations
oto and nephrotoxic
should only be used systemically when necessary with culture/sensitivity results with monitoring

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19
Q

quinolones

A

effective against a variety of pathogens except anaerobes
avoid use in young animals due to negative impact on cartilage development
higher doses (> 5mg/kg/day) of enrofloxacin can cause blindness in cats
caution in renal/hepatic insufficiency or. dehydration patients
pradofloxacin oral suspension approved for use in cats

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20
Q

cephalosporins

A

1st generation typically effective against most gram positive pathogens, variable coverage against gram negative pathogens but used for UTIs
2nd and 3rd generations retain gram positive pathogen activity with enhanced gram negative pathogen activity
often cause GI effects that can be minimized with some labeled once daily formulations
caution in renal insufficiency

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21
Q

macrolides

A

useful for treating a variety of bacterial, rickettsial, and protozoal infections
possesses a broad spectrum with in vitro activity against gram positive and greater gram negative activity
long tissue half-lives in dogs and cats
caution in hepatic dysfunction

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22
Q

aminopenicillins

A

time-dependent, bactericidal agent that acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis
susceptible to inactivation by beta-lactamase-producing bacteria
neurotoxicity associated with high doses or prolonged use

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23
Q

potentiated aminopenicillins

A

sulbactam combined with aminopenicillins to enhance their spectrum to bacteria that produce beta-lactamases that would otherwise render them ineffective
good choice for beta-lactamase-producing gram positive aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

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24
Q

tetracyclines

A

many bacteria are resistant
doxycycline and minocycline are preferred due to more favorable dosing frequency and adverse effect profile
use with niacinamide to help control sterile inflammatory skin conditions in dogs
can cause staining of developing teeth and bones

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25
Q

lincosamides

A

broad-spectrum coverage against many anaerobes, gram positive aerobic cocci, and toxoplasma spp.
contraindicated in hindgut fermenters
caution in renal/hepatic dysfunction patients
follow dosing with water to prevent esophageal strictures after administration

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26
Q

metronidazole

A

good anaerobic activity
used for GI symptoms and to treat Giardia
high doses can cause neurological symptoms
very bitter tasting

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27
Q

chloramphenicol

A

broad spectrum antibiotic with good tissue penetration including the eye, CNS, and prostate
caution in preexisting hematologic disorder patients and hepatic failure patients
can cause aplastic anemia in humans

28
Q

amphotericin B

A

antifungal
injectable systemic formulation used for serious mycotic infections
nephrotoxic

29
Q

fluconazole

A

oral particularly used for CNS infections
long duration of treatment
caution in renal/hepatic dysfunction patients

30
Q

itraconazole

A

used for systemic and cutaneous mycoses
caution in hepatic/renal impairment patients

31
Q

terbinafine and miconazole

A

used in many OTC athletes foot cream, jock itch cream, or shampoos

32
Q

famciclovir

A

rapidly converted to penciclovir which inhibits herpesvirus DNA polymerase and eventually inhibiting viral DNA synthesis
caution in patients with renal dysfunction

33
Q

lysine/ L-lysince

A

amino acid that is believed to compete with arginine for incorporation into many herpes viruses
believed that arginine is required for producing infective viral particles and when lysine is incorporated the virus becomes less infective

34
Q

oseltamivir

A

neuraminidase inhibitor that has been suggested as a treatment for canine parvovirus infections or other mixed bacterial/viral infections

35
Q

lokivetmab

A

monoclonal antibody
neutralizes interleukin-31 that is produced by activated T helper cells in dogs with atopic dermatitis, binds to receptors in the spinal cord that send signals to the brain to stimulate peripheral nerves to cause pruritus
dogs only

36
Q

frunevetmab

A

monoclonal antibody
felinized immunoglobin G that binds to nerve growth factor that is responsible for noxious stimuli that. produces peripheral sensitization, neurogenic inflammation, and increased perception of pain
cats only

37
Q

bedinvetmab

A

monoclonal antibody
limited information on mechanism of action but should be similar to Frunevetmab
only for dogs

38
Q

CPMA (canine parvovirus monoclonal antibody)

A

synthetic antibody that binds to canine parvovirus neutralizing it before it can enter the cell

39
Q

maropitant

A

neurokinin-1 receptor antagonist that acts in the CNS by inhibiting the binding of substance P which is the key neurotransmitter involved in vomiting
contraindicated if GI obstruction is suspected
can cause prolongation of the QT interval because of cardiac potassium channel blockage
caution in hepatic dysfunction patients
stings when given SQ which can be minimized with refrigerated storage

40
Q

meclizine and dimenhydrinate

A

antihistamines with sedative and antiemetic effects used for motion sickness and vestibular disease

41
Q

metoclopramide

A

stimulates upper GI motility without stimulating gastric, pancreatic, or biliary secretions
contraindicated with GI hemorrhage, obstruction, and perforation

42
Q

apomorphine

A

rapidly acting centrally mediated emetic used in dogs, ineffective in cats
compounded tablets can be crushed or mixed with saline for use as eye drops or whole tablets via subconjunctival route
contraindicated in species that cannot vomit

43
Q

hydrogen peroxide

A

induces vomiting by gastric irritation, may require large volumes
recommend administering in bathtub or outside to minimize need for cleanup

44
Q

xylazine

A

can be used for both cats and dogs to induce vomiting
rarely used in small animal medicine
sedative effects can be reversed with yohimbine
caution in patients with pre-existing cardiac dysfunction

45
Q

antineoplastics

A

chemotherapy, often dosed in a mg/m2 instead of mg/kg
handle with caution, use appropriate PPE, and biohazard disposal

46
Q

NSAIDs

A

exhibit analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic effects by cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibition
caution in renal/hepatic dysfunction patients
GI related side effects

47
Q

meloxicam

A

considered COX-2 preferential (not specific) because at higher doses its COX-2 specificity is diminished

48
Q

firocoxib

A

predominantly inhibits COX-2 and spare COX-1 (maintain normal GI, platelet, and renal function)

49
Q

carprofen

A

COX-2 inhibition specificity depends on species
COX-1 sparing considered better than older COX-2 sparing NSAIDs

50
Q

grapiprant

A

prostaglandin E2 EP4-receptor antagonist
doesn’t inhibit COX
decreases inflammatory effects of PGE2 which lessens pain transmission at sensory neurons
not antipyretic
elevated ALP and ALT reported with use of drug

51
Q

flunixin

A

potent inhibitor of COX used in large animal
caution in patients with pre-existing GI ulcers or renal/hepatic/hematological diseases

52
Q

ketoprofen

A

non-selective inhibition of COX-1 and COX-2
labeled for large animal use but used extra-label in small animal and exotics

53
Q

phenylbutazone

A

proposed mechanism of action is COX inhibition
used mostly in horses
additional pharmacologic actions include reduced renal blood flow, decreased glomerular filtration rate, decreased platelet aggregation, and gastric mucosal damage

54
Q

diclofenac and fluriprofen

A

inhibit COX-1 and COX-2
used in ophthalmic formulations

55
Q

azathioprine

A

purine-antagonist used for a variety of autoimmune conditions
adverse effect: myelosuppression
caution in patients with hepatic dysfunction
may take weeks of treatment before immunosuppression occurs

56
Q

cyclosporine

A

calcineurin inhibitor that focuses on cell-mediated immune responses with some humoral immunosuppressive action, it binds to T cell cyclophilin and blocks calcineurin-mediated T-cell activation
used for dogs to control atopic dermatitis and for cats to control allergic dermatitis
extra-label for immune-mediated disorders in dogs and cats, and to prevent rejection of kidney transplant in cats

57
Q

glucocorticoids

A

have effects on almost every cell type and system in mammals
contraindicated with any disease process where suppressing the immune system will allow condition to become worse
side effects: PUPD, polyphagia, panting
iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism can occur from prolonged use
used for various conditions from allergic reactions to auto-immune diseases
oral and injectable
methylprednisolone or prednisOLONE used in cats due to their decreased ability to absorb or convert prednisone into prednisolone

58
Q

phenobarbital

A

barbiturate that causes CNS depression
side effects: lethargy, ataxia, PUPD, polyphagia, hepatotoxicity
dose frequency: q12 hours, peaks between 4-8 hours
monitoring bloodwork is usually drawn 6-8 hours after giving, monitor liver enzymes
oral and injectable
C-IV controlled substance

59
Q

bromides

A

primary or adjunctive therapy for seizures
long half life requires loading dose then transition to maintenance after monitoring indicated appropriate concentrations, monitoring bloodwork is not time specific due to long half life
very salty
toxic effects: profound sedation to stupor, ataxia, tremors, hindlimb paresis, CNS signs

60
Q

benzodiazepines

A

depress CNS subcortical levels producing anxiolytic, sedative, skeletal muscle relaxation, and anticonvulsant effects
IV, rectal, intranasally for status epilepticus and cluster seizures
relatively short acting, usually followed by phenobarbital
C-IV controlled substances

61
Q

levetiracetam

A

broad spectrum anticonvulsant that can be used as adjunct therapy for canine epilepsy or when phenobarbital or bromides are not tolerated
dogs may become refractory over time
may be used as a second-line option when phenobarbital doesn’t control seizure in cats
dosing frequency: q8 hours

62
Q

pimobendan

A

inodilator with both positive inotropic and vasodilatory effects
decreases heart rate in animals with CHF, enhances cardiac contractility without an increase in myocardial oxygen consumption

63
Q

antitussives

A

butorphanol has 15-20 times the oral antitussive effects of codeine or dextromethorphan
used mostly for analgesia or sedation

64
Q

hydrocodone combinations

A

combined with homatropine to prevent abuse
exhibits characteristics of other opioid agonists yet it tends to have a slightly higher antitussive effect than codeine because of direct suppression of the cough reflex in the medullary cough center

65
Q

SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)

A

may take 3-4 weeks before efficacy is noted or may need to increase dose
adverse effects: anorexia, lethargy, GI effects, anxiety/restlessness, vocalization, seizures, aggression

66
Q

tricyclic antidepressants

A

used for behavior disorders, neuropathic pain, and pruritus in small animals
may reduce seizure thresholds in epileptic animals
side effects: sedation, anticholinergic effects (risk for serotonin syndrome)
may take a few weeks to see effects and need to taper when discontinuing
baseline CBC, serum chemistries, urinalysis, and baseline thyroid testing prior to therapy, 1 month after starting therapy, and then yearly as well as baseline ECG due to possible widening of QRS complexes, prolonged PR intervals, and inverted/flattened T waves

67
Q

Trazodone (SARI)

A

used for behavior disorders, phobia related anxiety, postoperative confinement, transport, or examination phobia
side effects: GI disturbances, ataxia, sedation, tachycardia, increased anxiety, behavior disinhibition, aggression, mydriasis
caution in patients with severe cardiac disease or hepatic or renal impairment

Capstone (18 decks)

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