Positive Sense (+)RNA Viruses Flashcards

1
Q

What viruses are in the Picornaviridae family and classification?

A

(+) ssRNA Virus, naked

  • Hep A
  • Enteroviruses (Polio, Coxsackie, Echo)
  • Rhino
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where would you most commonly get Hep A from in developed countries?

A

Uncooked Shellfish – contaminates water

  • Patients traveling to endemic areas
  • Virus is Acid-Stable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the clinical signs of Hep A infection?

A

Jaundice (no jaundice in children)
Tobacco Aversion
1 month duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where does Polio virus replicate in the GI tract? (Enterovirus)

A

Peyer’s Patches (2-3 weeks before symptoms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are complications of Polio infection?

A

– Attacks the anterior horn in the spinal column, can lead to Resp insufficiency (due to no motor) and aseptic meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the pros and cons of polio viruses?

A
Live Virus (Sabin) -- IgA + IgG, but can cause the disease in compromised people and infants. 
Killed Virus (Salk) -- IgG only, not as effective and long lasting.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the major clinical syndromes of Coxsackie A virus?

A

Hand, Foot, Mouth Disease – red vessicular lesions everywhere including palsm and feet. Summer time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If a patient is diagnosed with dilated cardiomyopathy, what might have been an infectious agent to cause it?

A

Coxsackie B Virus

–Can also cause Pleurodynia (Devil’s Grip) very intense sharp pain in the lower chest making it difficult to breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the source of the common cold?

A

Rhinovirus – (+)RNA, naked

– from fomites, attaches to ICAM-1 on resp epithelium, grows best at lower temps, thus Upper Resp infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are characteristics of Togavirus family?

A

(+) ssRNA, enveloped – polypeptide precursor, rep in cytoplasm

    • Arbovirus
    • Rubella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What can cause encephalitis from a arthropod vector?

A

Arbovirus - from mosquitos

  • Eastern/Western US
  • Venezualan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the classic triade of congenital Rubella?

A
  • Congenital Cataracts
  • Deafness
  • Patient Ductus Arteriosus
    + Blue berry rash, microcephaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the features of childhood rubella?

A
  • postauricular and occipital LAD (Key)
  • Macular Rash, starts on face and moves outward
  • Resp infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the buzz words associated with adult rubella?

A

Immigrant from another country with LAD, fever, and arthalgias/arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How to prevent Rubella (TORCH infection)?

A

Live Attenuated Vaccine before becoming pregnant, developed countries everyone is usually covered, thus the reason to be suspicious of immigrants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What kind of virus are you likely to find on cruiseships, buffets, and daycares – causing explosive diarrhea?

A

Norwalk / Calicivirus – (+)RNA, naked, produces long polypeptide in cytoplasm that needs to be cleaved.
– Norovirus = most common type

17
Q

What do Dengue Fever, Yellow Fever, Hep C, and West Nile Virus all have in common?

A

(+) ssRNA, enveloped

– All apart of the Flavivirus Group

18
Q

What causative agent is spread by Aedes Egypti mosquito and causes severe bone pain, thrombocytopenia, and hemorrhagic fever? (Usually around the equator)

A

Dengue Fever — affects bone marrow

  • can lead to renal failure and shock
  • usually only happens on the 2nd time being infected by a different strain than the first time.
19
Q

What vector borne illness causes blood diarrhea, hematemesis with jaundice, typically from African region?

A

Yellow Fever – aedes mosquito, vaccine useful if travel to those regions
– Councilmen Bodies on Liver biopsy

20
Q

How is Hep C classified as a virus?

A

(+)RNA, enveloped virus – antigenic variable envelope

21
Q

What are the most common means of transmission of Hep C?

A
  • blood exposure
  • sharing needles
  • sexual
  • blood transfusion (pre-1990)
  • placenta
22
Q

Why does Hep C have a variable antigenic enveloped capsule?

A

RNA Polymerase, has no exonuclease 3->5 activity (unable to correct errors) leading to more errors and constantly changing antigens.

23
Q

What are the clinical syndrome of Hep C infection?

A

Most will go become chronically infected

  • jaundice/hepatitis
  • fibrosis of the liver
  • hepatocellular carcinoma
24
Q

What is a unique attribute of diagnosing Hep C, what test can you perform?

A

Hep C cryoglobulins (antibodies) if lowered to a cool temperature percipitate (IgM)

25
Q

What causative agent causes SARS/MERS and what can that lead to/

A

Coronavirus – (+)ssRNA, enveloped, helical virus

    • acute bronchitis that can lead to respiratory distress syndrome
    • highly infectious via resp drop
26
Q

How is HIV different from other RNA viruses?

A

HIV – (+)RNA virus with envelope. HIV uses it’s reverse transcriptase to convert the RNA into DNA, then infiltrate into the nucleus of the cell (CD4+ cells)

27
Q

What are the three important genes in HIV?

A
  • gap –> p24 capsid protein
  • env gene –> gp41 + gp120 transmembrane proteins
  • pol gene –> reverse transcriptase
28
Q

What are the initial prodome of HIV, what can it be confused with?

A

flu-like syndrome, LAD, pharyngitis, fever for several weeks.
– commonly confused with infectious mononucleosis

29
Q

What are the receptors on CD4 cells that the virus binds to and are important for treatment?

A

CCR5 – early stages

CXCR4 – late stages

30
Q

What are the cancer risks associated with HIV especially?

A

Diffuse Large Cell Lymphoma

31
Q

What are the best therapy for HIV?

A

HARRT Therapy
– Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor
– Non-nucleotide reverse trans inhibitor
– Protease Inhibitor
Maraviroc – CCR5 receptor blocker

32
Q

How do you test for HIV?

A

ELISA – antibody testing, then confirm with Western Blot