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Progress Test 10 NF Flashcards

(67 cards)

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1
Q

What does LARS stand for and what is it?

A

Low Airspace Radar Service, A collection of agencies that provides radar coverage for use with the various flight information services

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2
Q

Where are the participants of LARS declared?

A

In the UK AIP ENR

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3
Q

What is the LARS availability/coverage?

A

-within 30nm of each unit
-Up to but not including FL100 (radar service is defined for FL100 and above)

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4
Q

True or False? A response is required after the controller responds to a radio check.

A

False. No response is required.

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5
Q

What is the initial radio call from an aircraft at an AGCS?

A

“G-BORK PA28 Turweston to Kemble request taxi”

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6
Q

What will the departure calls look like at an AGCS?

A

“G-RK ready for departure”
“G-RK surface wind 250 degrees 5 knots”
“Roger G-RK” or “taking off G-RK”

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7
Q

What would a leaving call look like from an AGCS?

A

“G-RK leaving the ATZ to the Northwest altitude 2500ft, changing to Wattisham approach 125.800”

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8
Q

What are the main difference between AGCS departure radio calls from an AFIS?

Name three.

A

-AFIS can control on the ground
-Once airborne they cannot control
-Slightly different phrases.

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9
Q

What is an example of requesting taxi and instruction provided by an AFIS or ATC?

A

“G-BORK request taxi”
“G-BORK taxi to holding point B1 for runway 23”

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10
Q

What is the difference between AGCS departure calls to AFIS calls?

A

“G-RK surface wind 020 degrees 5knots. Take-off at your discretion”

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11
Q

What does an initial call to ATC look like?

A

“G-BORK, PA28, MA2 information Tango, QNH 1020 request start”
“G-RK temperature +15 start approved”
“start approved G-RK”

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12
Q

What is an example of a departure transmission at an ATC?

A

“G-BORK, A1 ready for departure”
“G-RK, hold position. Report ready to copy your departure clearance”
“G-RK ready to copy departure clearance”

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13
Q

What may be included in a departure clearance?

Name five.

A

-Initial track and altitude instructions
-Pressure setting
-Squark
-Next frequency
-Any special instructions

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14
Q

Does a departure Clarence require read back?

A

Yes.

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15
Q

Which ATSU instructs you when to take-off, and provide an example?

A

ATC. “G-BORK surface wind 020 degrees 15knots. Runway 02 cleared to take-off”

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16
Q

When contacting the next frequency from departing an ATC what will the call look like?

A

“Oxford Radar G-BORK, passing altitude 1000feet climbing to altitude 2000feet request basic service”

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17
Q

What joins TMA’s (terminal Manoeuvring Area) together?

A

Airways.

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18
Q

What is a TMA?

A

An area where aircraft can commence a descent into a controlled (major) airfield.
Typically class A airspace.

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19
Q

What is a CTA?

A

Controlled Area/controlled airspace. Reside beneath a TMA. Commence at an altitude or Flight Level. Allows for further descent into a major airfield.

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20
Q

What airspace can a CTA be in the UK?

A

A, D or E.

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21
Q

When crossing a CTA it can only be VFR or IFR (no SVFR), what are the calling restrictions and what is the process of the CTA called?

A

25nm
10, 000feet
Controlled airspace transit.

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22
Q

Provide an example of the initial call for a CTA transit?

A

“Essex radar G-BORK request controlled airspace transit East to West”
“G-BORK Essex Radar”

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23
Q

What is an appropriate response to this message?
“G-RK now entering controlled airspace, radar control service”

A

“Radar Control Service G-RK”

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24
Q

What is a CTR and where does it normally reside beneath?

A

Controlled Zone. Normally resides beneath a CTA.

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25
A CTR allows protected airspace right down to the runway at major airports. A CTR is from ground level to a specified level, what airspace could a CTR be?
A,D or E.
26
What are the differences between a CTR transit and a CTA transit?
-It is a zone transit -VFR, IFR and SVFR (requested by pilot)
27
What is an Aerodrome Traffic Zone?
An ATZ surrounds all licensed airfields and they take upon the class of airspace they are within.
28
An ATZ is always 2000ft above the QNH or QFE?
QFE.
29
What is the radius of an ATZ, and why is it this length?
May be either 2 or 2.5nm to allow 1.5km protection from each runway threshold.
30
When can you call an ATZ?
When in the immediate vicinity, up to 1000ft. Or 10nm up to 3000ft.
31
A military ATZ is active during notified hours ( normally H24), what are the opening hours of a civilian ATZ?
Civilian ATZ's are active according to the AIP entry (may not coincide within the hours of watch of the ATSU).
32
True or False? ATZ's that reside wholly within controlled airspace are not depicted separately on a chart.
True.
33
What must be done before entering an ATZ?
-Clearance from associated ATC unit -If ATC does not exist information must be gained by the ATSU for the safe conduct of flight.
34
What is a MATZ?
Military Aerodrome Traffic Zone (MATZ).
35
Where do MATZ's normally reside in?
In the open FIR (uncontrolled airspace)
36
Unless stated otherwise what altitude what altitude does MATZ go up to?
3000ft above ground level.
37
What are the measurements of a MATZ?
-5nm radius -4nm wide stubs extend to cover runway approaches to 10nm, commencing at 1000ft AGL. -Stubs extend 10nm away from runway center
38
What class of airspace does a MATZ reside in?
Class G.
39
True or False? A MATZ normally has an ATZ embedded inside it.
True.
40
What distance is recommended to make contact with a MATZ?
15nm or 5 minutes to run before enterning.
41
What are the difference in Transponder Mandatory Zones (TMZ) in the UK and EASA?
-EASA = if you have a working A+C or S transponder you do not need permission to enter the airspace. -UK = If you have a serviceable and enabled mode S transponder no permission is required to enter the airspace. Permission is required without mode S.
42
Provide an example of the initial call for a TMZ transit.
"Farnborough Radar G-BORK request TMZ transit"
43
What are the options when the controller is unable to provide weather information?
-use London Information -Or use VOLMET
44
True or False? The pilot is the only one who can activate a flight plan.
False. If required, you may ask any ATSU to activate a flight plan once in flight.
45
What should a pilot do if they don't know what the correct circuit pattern is?
Should remain overhead circling, once circuit pattern is found then can descend dead side.
46
What are the two preferred circuit entry point?
-Overhead -Downwind
47
What other entry points can be used to a circuit? ## Footnote Name four.
-Crosswind -Base leg -Straight in approach -Long final
48
What distance is long final classified as?
-between 4-8nm -final call should always be made 4nm from the runway.
49
What is the difference between downwind and late downwind?
Downwind - Along side the opposite end threshold to the one intended to land on Late downwind - along side the threshold of the runway you are intending to land on
50
What is the wing tip to wing tip method?
The wing tip of your aircraft is parallel to the traffic on final, is when there is sufficient spacing to start turning safely on base.
51
What does a Military circuit look like?
An oval. Final starts at the end of the downwind leg.
52
On AGCS radio what would be the appropriate response to this message after calling final? "G-RK surface wind 250 degrees 10knots"
"G-RK"
53
How is the runway condition reported by the ATSU?
The runway is split into thirds from landing or take-off direction
54
What does 'dry' condition on a runway report mean?
The runway surface is considered dry if it's free of visible moisture and not contaminated.
55
What does 'wet' condition on a runway report mean?
Wet surface is covered by visible dampness or water up to 3mm depth. If the runway shows a change of colour due to moisture the runway will be considered wet.
56
What does 'slippery wet' condition on a runway report mean?
A wet runway where the surface friction characteristics has been determined to have degraded.
57
What does 'contaminated' condition on a runway report mean?
The runway is contaminated (wether isolated in areas or not) within the length or width being used is covered by one or more of the substances listed in the runway surface conditions description.
58
What does 'flooded' condition on a runway report mean?
Extensive patched of standing water are visible. Runway is considered contaminated.
59
What does 'compacted snow' condition on a runway report mean?
Snow that has been compacted into a solid mass, in which aircraft will run out of surface without significant further compaction or rutting of the surface.
60
What does 'dry snow' condition on a runway report mean?
Snow from which a snowball cannot be readily made.
61
What does 'ice' condition on a runway report mean?
water that has frozen or compacted snow that has been transitioned into ice. (cold and dry conditions)
62
What does 'slush' condition on a runway report mean?
Snow that is so water saturated water will drain from it when picked up.
63
What does 'wet ice' condition on a runway report mean?
Ice with water on top of it or melting ice.
64
What does 'wet snow' condition on a runway report mean?
Snow that contain enough water content to make a well compacted snow ball that if squeezed water will come out.
65
True or False? A 'go-around' call is required immediately after making the decision to go-around.
False.
66
Who is responsible for determining in flight visibility in controlled airspace?
The ATC.
67
What is the normal maximum distance to call an ATSU for a zone transit?
25nm.

Communications (R/T) (13 decks)

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