Progress Test Continued Flashcards

(181 cards)

1
Q

Central nervous system consists of…

A

Brain and spinal cord

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2
Q

Peripheral nervous system is…

A

Cranial nerves (12pairs) and spinal nerves (31 pairs)

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3
Q

Frontal lobe

A

Thinking, planning, organising and problem solving, emotions and behavioural control

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4
Q

Motor cortex

A

Movement

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5
Q

Sensory cortex

A

Sensations

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6
Q

Parietal lobe

A

Perception, making sense of the world, arithmetic and spelling

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7
Q

Occipital lobe

A

Vision

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8
Q

Temporal lobe

A

Memory, understanding, language

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9
Q

What should parameters should be recorded for AEC sensivity test?

A

MAS and detector dose indicator (DDI)

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10
Q

What bony landmark would you use to locate L4/5?

A

Superior aspect of iliac crests

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11
Q

Where is the duodenum?

A

Below stomach, before the small
Bowel

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12
Q

Anatomical position

A

Body erect facing the observer with feet flat and pout h forward, upper limbs at side with palms anteriorly

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13
Q

What bone architecture comprises the two types of bone

A

Cortical and trabecular bone

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14
Q

Location of the prostate gland

A

Inferior to the neck of the bladder,
Superior to external urethral sphincter,
Lays anterior to ampulla of rectum

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15
Q

Hypnoses portal system

A

Anterior pituitary gland and hypothalamus

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16
Q

What part of epiphyseal growth plate is being described-
‘Contains large chondrocytes which divide and are responsible for longitudinal growth of bone’

A

The growth or proliferation zone

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17
Q

Description of the function of cortical
Bone

A

Support and protection for inner trabecular bone

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18
Q

Functions of the bone remodelling by osteoblasts and osteoclasts

A

Osteoblasts and osteoclasts work together to continuously reshape and maintain bone based on stress and repair needs

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19
Q

Principle
Mechanism that causes glomercular filtration within the bowman’s capsule of the kidney?

A

Hydrostatic pressure

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20
Q

What process occurs as urine filtrate passes through the descending loop of henle?

A

Passive transportation of water as this part of the tubule is impermeable to sodium ions

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21
Q

Enzyme that is secreted by the prostate that aids liquefaction of the emasculate by laying seminal vesicle proteins ?

A

Prostate specific antigen (PSA)

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22
Q
A
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22
Q

Normal tidal volume for health adult

A

500ml per expiration

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23
Q

Characteristics of cells that can be used to determine how radiosensrivs they are?

A

Rate of reproduction

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24
Name given to an agent such as IR that can cause malformations in developing embryos?
Teratogenic
25
In relation to IRR2017 what is the employers responsibility for a staff member who is breast feeding ?
Employer must ensure they are not working in and area where there is signification risk of intake of radionuclide or bodily contamination
26
Under Irmer what must happen before an exposure
Justification by practitioner
27
What may prevent a physicians asociate from referring patients for ionising radiation procedures?
Irmer requires referrers to be registered healthcare professional which physician associates may not be
28
What action should be taken if a diagnostic ref level is consistently exceeded?
Employer must ensure appropriate review os undertaken and take corrective action where appropriate
29
What is NOT a requirement of Irmer
Infection and prevention control audits
30
Definition of supervised area
An area of which any person is likely to receive an effective dose greater than 1mSv per year or equivalent dose greater than 5mSv a year for lense of eye or greater than 50mSV for skin or extremities
31
Why should we ensure we select the correct anatomical protocol when undertaking an xray?
Post processing algorithms will be setup as part of protocol to optimise image appearances based on anatomy of interest
32
What is the effect of averaging signals over fewer adjacent pixels within a 2D image?
Edge enhancement
33
In relation to digital processing, what is the name given to removing unexposed borders around an image (areas of high intensity)?
Shuttering
34
what is being described here- a source of IR that is not always contained and is often in liquid form e.g an injection of radiopharmectucal?
Unsealed source
35
NOT a type of dental radiography?
Cystographic
36
Typical window width and level for lung fields in CT
WW- 1500 WL- 600
37
How ultrasound is different to X-rays
US requires a medium to travel in, whereas xray can travel in a vacuum
38
What is Coincidence detection?
Position emission whereby 2 photons at 511kEv are emitted simultaneously and travel in exactly opposite directions
39
How is coincidence used in PET?
Each photon pair should hit the PET camera at the same time, the is is coincidence detection and ifentifies a line through the tissue where the event has occurred
40
MRI- process of losing energy to the molecular lattice
T1 recovery
41
MRI quench
Sudden loss of super conductivity when the temp of the superconductor is raised, either deliberately or spontaneously resulting in release of coolant
42
NOT part of daily quality control tests for US
Assessing air reverberation pattern
43
What detects over 90% of faults in US
Simple visual inspection and uniformity assessment
44
Acceptable limits for QC in CT
+/- 5HU
45
Description of TIA
Transient ischemic attack- manifests as a neurological deficit that completely resolves itself within 24 hours
46
What is INR and when might it be monitored?
International normalised ratio, measure of how well blood clots, patients on anticoagulants have INR monitored regularly
47
Which hormone imbalance can result in dis order of calcium, phosphate and bone metabolism?
Hyperparathyroidism
48
Intracranial condition strongly associated with thundeclap headache
Subarrachnoid haemorrage
49
What could lead to brain abscess?
Chronic infection of middle ear
50
Not generally cause of urinary calculi?
Acute renal failure
51
In relation to cancer staging what would TNM score of T1,N0,M0 mean?
T1 means the tumour is small and local, N0 means adjacent lymph nodes show no sign of cancer cells, M0 means there is no evidence of mets
52
Tetralogy of fallout 4 abnormalities
1. Ventricular septal defect 2. Pulmonary stenosis 3. Misloxated aorta 4. Right ventricular hypertrophy
53
Non ionic dimer
Molecule with 2 rings?
54
What is Enteral administration of contrast ?
Administration via gastrointestinal tract
55
How ionised contrast agents have developed in clinical use?
Ionic monomers Ionic dinners Non ionic monomers Non ionic dimers
56
Why have some chelate gadolinium base MRI contract agents been withdrawn from clinical use?
Evidence shows some were associated with nephrotic system fibrosis and also gad deposits being retained in tissues such as brain and other organs
57
Description of ideal contrast agent
Contrast introduced into body that does no change the way the body functions or cause any adverse effects but does change the image contrast so to gain an anatomical or pathological structure
58
Constructive technology
Digital radiography
59
Development in CT has resulted in developing protocol for national lung cancer screening?
Low dose CT
60
Current application for AI in radiography?
Detection of breast cancer
61
NOT potential Benefit of AI?
Reduction in exams requiring report from radiologist or reporting rad
62
Pre-requisite for teaching AI system to undertake image reporting
Image bank of both normal and known abnormal images from which the machine can learn
63
Which emerging technologies are becoming or interest in relation to diagnosis of Brest cancer ?
Digital infrared thermal imaging or breast, MR elastography
64
Biggest obstacle to good performance of web based PACS
Network bandwidth and reliability
65
What features of analogue to digital converter can improve quality of image?
High sample frequency
66
What determines the number of grey scales in an image receptor?
Analogue to digital converter
67
In relation to adjusting the display of digital images what is correct?
Human eye can only see a limited range of greyscalss at one brightness adaption, images can be adjusted (window width and level) to enable diagnostic detail to be observed)
68
Why ambient light important when reporting?
Cones within retina of eye need to adapt to brightness of the image to optimise the greyscale resolution
69
Satisfaction of search
Premature conclusion of a search of an image after finding one abnormality and thereby missing a second or more
70
Why ambient lighting key consideration when evaluating medical images ?
Human eye has ability to detect a certain, relatively fixed range of contrast on image Having lower Ambient lighting means differences between shades of grey are more discernible then if the light was bright
71
Bamboo spine
Ankylosis spondylitis
72
What is os subfibulare
Anatomical variant of fibular
73
Salter Harris 1 facture
Fracture plane passes all the way through the epiphyseal Plate only (s=slipped)
74
Measures recommended by royal college of radiologists in relation to Breast feeding parents
No special precaution or cessation of breast feeding is required but mother can cease breast feeding for 24 hours post contrast agent on consultation with clinician
75
2 types of allergic reaction and why relevant in relation to administration of contrast agents and other medicines in medicine?
1. Anaphylactic- triggered by prior exposure to particular allergen 2. Anaphylactoid reaction- occurs on 1st exposure to particular allergen
76
Why are PGDs and PSD needed in order for radiographer to administer contrast?
Individual prescribing not possible, logistically pgd and pad include exclusion and inclusion criteria that enable radiographer to assess the patient and give the contrast agent without having prescription thereby fulfilling legal requirements for administration of prescription only medicines (pom)
77
If patient is known asthmatic what further questions should be asked to fully establish the risk of administrating contrast agent
Do they have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), If they have true asthma is it well controlled?
78
How do we screen patients to minimise risk of contrast induced chronic kidney injury (CI-AKI)
It is recommended that her should be checked for all Non urgent patients
79
In image reporting what defines sensitivity?
Sensitivity = true positive/(true positive + false negative)
80
Receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve
The closer the area under the curve tends to 1, the more accurate the imaging procedure is
81
Cation
An element that has lost an electron and has a net positive charge
82
Photon
Smallest discrete quantum of electromagnetic radiation
83
Most appropriate to detect radiation spill of an unsealed source
Gieger counter
84
Characteristic radiation
A fast moving electron collides with an inner orbital electron of an atom providing energy to overcome the binding energy of the orbital electron. The orbital electron is ejected leaving a vacancy.
85
Types of ionising radiation
Cosmic particles, Positrons Gamma rays, Alpha particles Beta particles Neutrons X-rays And higher energy ultraviolet
86
Local rules
Identify the main working instructions that are intended to restrict any exposure within a controlled or supervised area. Local rules include information on the range of imaging procedure procedures carried out in the area
87
Non-medical exposure
Where a person has an ionising radiation imaging exam that does not benefit their health, it requires ethical approvals and informed consent
88
What design feature would reduce the quantum detection efficiency of an image receptor?
Having a thinner Phospho layer within the receptor
89
What molecular family is typically found in photos stimulable screens used for CR?
Barium fluorohalides
90
Advantage of direct digital conversion over indirect in digital radiography
Fewer number of conversion stages make it possible to have a higher conversion efficiency
91
Which exposure factor is being described? Influences radiographic density, influences the quantity of x-rays produced, and controlled by adjusting only the timer within the x-ray circuit.
Exposure time (seconds)
92
Techniques that would best contribute to reduction impatient dose and optimisation of image quality
Restriction of coverage of the x-ray beam (collimation)
93
CR process
1. Finally focused red laserbeam reads the image receptor line by line. 2. Energy of the laserbeam provides trapped electrons with enough energy to become free. 3. Electrons move from a higher to a lower energy state and emit their energy as blue fluorescent light. 4. The amount of omitted light is proportional to the number of x-rays incident on the image receptor.
94
When when could Moire affect be seen on a digital image?
When there is spatial interference between the periodic structure of a flat panel detector and a stationary grid
95
What is trendelenburg and anti or reverse trendelenburg?
Trendelenburg- patient supine with head tilted downwards Anti trendelenburg - patient supine with feet tilted downwards (head up)
96
What remove scatter is designed to be in a particular orientation at a specific source to image distance?
A focused grid
97
With regards to room design, what is generally used to provide radiation protection for adjacent areas?
The use of lead plaster and concrete block walls
98
Optimal features for an x-ray table
Made a strong, light material combined with minimal attenuation and absorption properties
99
Part of the x-ray equipment that converts low-voltage AC to high voltage DC
X-ray generator
100
You have set an exposure factor of 70 KVP and 10 MAS, your equipment uses a high frequency generator, what is the impact of the high frequency generator on the average photo on energies during exposure?
The average vote energies would be higher
101
With reference to a parallel grid, how are the grid ratio and grid frequency calculated?
Grid ratio equals height divided by depth Grid frequency equals one divided by thickness plus depth
102
What action would NOT be taken if a quality control test indicated a piece of equipment is at the suspension level?
You would not continue to use the equipment
103
The organisation that produces guidance on appropriate quality of control test for x-ray equipment
The Institute for physics and engineering in medicine (IPEM)
104
What is the purpose of a repeatability test and why are they important?
They can be used to measure whether an x-ray tube output is consistent when the same exposure is used again. They are important for the radiographer in terms of knowing that selecting particular exposure factors will have a predictable impact on patient dose and image quality
105
A name given to the structural unit of compact or cortical bone?
Haversian system?
106
Name of the bone within the neck which provides attachments for the anterior neck muscle
Hyoid bone
107
What structures separate the lobes of the lungs from each
Fissures
108
109
What vertical level is the sternal angle?
4th/5th thoracic vertebrae
110
What is the name of the structure in the brain that is situated within the? Sella turcica?
Pituitary gland
111
Correct order of the meninges from superficial to deep of the skull
1. Dura mater 2. Arachnoid matter. 3. Pia matter
112
Which cranial nerve has two portions and independent sensory functions?
The 8th, vestibulocochlear, cranial nerve
113
Which bone cells break up bone, releasing calcium and phosphate?
Osteoclasts
114
What is the function of the central (Haversian) canals?
Provide passage for blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerves
115
Name given to the process whereby blood is filtered across the capability capillaries at the Bowmans capsule of the kidney
Glomerular filtration
116
Primary function of ADH (antidiuretic hormone)?
Decrease the amount of water excreted by the kidneys
117
Name of Feature of the wall of the right atrium there’s a small mass of specialised cells that generate regular spontaneous action potential
Sinoatrial Node (SA)
118
Description of peristalsis
Peristalsis comprises of coordinated contractions of the smooth muscle, which is arranged both longitude and circular within the bowel wall
119
A vascular layer of the meningitis which has connective tissue projections known as trivially that bind to the underlying layer
Arachnoid matter
120
121
If a cell is damaged by ionising radiation, which of the following might take place
The sale may repair incorrectly prior to reproduction
122
What is meant by a stochastic effect?
The probability of the ionising radiation affecting the body is governed by the laws of chance, all doses carry some risk, there is no safe dose limit
123
What is an employer’s responsibility if an employee tells them they are pregnant?
The employer must ensure the equivalent dose of the fetus is kept as low as reasonably practical at level levels unlikely to exceed 1mSv during the remainder of the pregnancy
124
What is being described here? Identifies the main working instructions intended to restrict any exposure in that controlled or supervised area.
Local rules
125
The equivalent dose accounts for the type of radiation particle and is defined
Equivalent dose (sv) = absorbed dose (Gy) x radiation waiting factor (Wr)
126
What are the obligations and under irmer for holding an authorisation with regard to radio pharmaceutical administration
The employer and a named practitioner must be licensed. The administration is authorised by the practitioner
127
Who can act as an operator under (irmer)
Anyone who is adequately trained for the scope of practice including assistant practitioners as well as registered radiographers
128
But how many weeks postconception would be the highest risk to a developing fetus of development abnormalities due to exposure to iron radiation?
2 to 7 weeks (during organogenesis)
129
What is being described here? The ability of the digital system to display subtle changes in the greyscale scale.
Contrast resolution
130
Best description of the Nyquist theorem
When sampling a signal, the sampling frequency must be greater than twice the frequency of the input signal
131
Name given to the process where buying an image is automatically adjusted to provide optimum brightness and contrast
Automatic rescaling
132
Correct statement with respect to the Gray scale of an ultrasound image
Greyscale is determined by the amplitude of the echoes returning to the transducer
133
CT scanning what causes the hounsfield units to be lower than they should in the part of the image corresponding to centre of the patient
Beam hardening
134
What property determines how much of the ultrasound beam is reflected or transmitted at a boundary between two tissues?
The acoustic impedance of the two ti
135
In MRI, which of the following sequences would completely eliminate fat signal from the resultant image?
Stir (short tau inversion recovery)
136
 effective energies typically used within a DEXA scan
Effective proton energies are typically around 40 to 70 KEV
137
Why is a sea arm system generally using Flusco P over a fixed couch with a stationary image intensify a complex procedure such as angiography?
C-arm Systems allow isocentric movement of the x-ray tube and detector without moving the patient which is critical for procedural safety
138
mammography energy level levels used
15 to 20 KEvie
139
Recommended daily quality control test for an ultrasound scanner
Transducer dropout test
140
What best describes quality assurance?
The overarching management process to do with quality and includes quality control tests
141
Quality assurance in MRI, what is detectable through regular quality control test testing?
Signal and noise ratio fluctuation
142
CT uniformity test what is the maximum tolerance level?
+/- 5HU
143
Following conditions is caused by necrotic area of pulmonary parenchyma containing purulent material
Lung abscess
144
Major causes of bowel obstruction in children
Intussusception
145
The deficiency in which vitamin is associated with rickets
Vitamin D
146
A condition begins as an inflammation of the synovial membrane that lines of synovial joints
Rheumatoid arthritis
147
Most common sight of ischaemic necrosis
Femoral head
148
Difference between spondylosis and spondylolisthesis?
Spondylosis referred to a clash in the pars interarticularis, if there is a displacement due to the defect this is then called spondylolisthesis
149
What primary cancer is not associated with potential development of pulmonary metastases
Squamous cell skin carcinoma Associated cancers are prostate breast and colon cancers ?
150
Where in the lung does squamous cell carcinoma typically arise?
Major central bronchi
151
The difference between a monomer and a dimmer in relation to contrast media
A monomer is a single molecule formed of a ring, a diamond is two rings joined together by single molecule 
152
What is not a desirable property of a contrast agent?
Rapidly metabolised
153
What additional precautions need to be taken when administering a pharmaceutical compared to a contrast agent?
The person administering the radiator pharmaceutical is also exposed to organising radiation so they should apply the principles of time distance and shielding
154
Why does the effective half life of a radio pharmaceutical matter in terms of choice of agent?
If it is too short, it may be difficult to image the required physiology. If it is too long the patient will get an increased ionising radiation dose.
155
A secondary excretion root of an intravenous injected iodine contrast medium
Faeces
156
The intensity of sound therefore ultrasound is measured in decibels (dB), what is the difference in intensity between one and 10 dB?
The intensity of sound is increased by a factor of 10
157
With regards to artificial intelligence, how can AI use machine learning in medical imaging to interpret new digital images for the presence of pathology?
If the system is provided with large representative training sets of digital images of known pathology identified by radiographers and radiologists
158
Example of a technology that required radiographers to a car completely new knowledge base in order to obtain proficiency, making it a disruptive technology
MRI
159
Valid limitation of artificial intelligence in medical imaging
Accuracy of artificial intelligence is limited by the data sets on which the algorithm is trained
160
With reference to developments and trends in the science of medical imaging, which of the following ways might AI impact upon radiographic practice?
Assist with image interpretation, including providing preliminary or secondary reports and triaging urgent findings to improve workflow efficiency
161
What is the clear and quickly realised financial benefit of introducing advanced clinical practice within a radiology department?
The radiographer is generally taking on a task performed by a doctor there by freeing up the doctor to focus on even more complex complex tasks
162
What refers to the ability of an imaging system to distinguish small objects that are
Spatial resolution
163
You are specifying monitors for use across the imaging department which monitors would you make the lowest spec as a way of being cost-effective?
Admin monitors
164
What is the primary purpose of GDPR with respect to healthcare providers?
To give control to individuals over their personal data and your healthcare providers implement the data protection principles
165
What features of pacs are particularly useful for medical application
Eliminates the need for hardcopies of images, enables remote access, electronic integration, and workflow management
166
167
How does altering the spatial resolution impact the signal to noise ratio?
Spatial resolution is increased with pixel density, this reduces the area of each pixel, therefore less protons are collected per pixel decreasing the signal noise ratio
168
Why is a dimly lit room optimal viewing environment?
Use of light enables cones to be used and they have better brightness discrimination than rods. The little room ensures the effects of simultaneous contrast or optimise for reporting radiographer
169
Best description of ankylosing spondylitis?
Bilateral concentric narrowing of the hip joints. Complete fusion of the SI joints bilaterally Ischial enthesophytes
170
Definition of perceptual errors in relation to Imogen
A perceptual error is where the viewer does not see an abnormality which is readily visible on the image
171
Which hip fracture is extracapsular?
Intertrochanteric fracture
172
Salter harris type two fracture
Would be a fracture of the metaphysis (SALTER, 2nd letter A so above growth plate)
173
174
What group of patients should not be given contrast agents?
Patients with hyperthyroidism
175
The difference between a PGD and a PSD
PGD covers a group of patients whereas a PSD covers a named individual patient
176
Current guidance regarding the administration of gadolinium based contrast to pregnant patients
Current advice is that these agents should not be used in pregnancy unless the clinical condition of the patient is sufficiently severe us to make it absolutely necessary. No effects on the developing fetus would be anticipated if used
177
Which medications need to be stopped for a period of time after the administration of ID based contrast and why?
Metformin, because of the combination could you cause lactic acidosis?
178
Central tendency
Statistical measures that describe the centre or typical value of a data set commonly represented by the mean median and mode 
179
Equation which defines sensitivity
Sensitivity = true positive/(true positive + false negative)
180
Rock curve graph
Best performing goes up, steep then levels off