Psych IV Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

Describe the acute and chronic pharmacodynamic effects of alcohol exposure [+]

A

Acute exposure
* Dopamine release
* Mesolimbic pathway = reward pathway
* Acetaldehyde activates also

Chronic exposure
* Downregulation of dopaminergic neurons
* Promotes increased alcohol consumption to achieve reward

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1
Q
A
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2
Q

Wernicke-Korsakoffs can present with lesions in which part of the brain ? [1]

A

Symmetrical lesions around 3rd ventricle (mammillary bodies)

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3
Q

Key features of Korsakoffs? [2]

A

Anterograde amnesia, Confabulation

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4
Q

Describe the pathophysiologial changes to brain seen in Korskoffs [2]

A

Wernicke’s plus
Marked widening in frontal intratemporal fissure
Reduced blood flow to frontal lobes (fMRI)

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5
Q

State and describe the MoAs of the preventative medications for alcohol dependency [3]

A

Acamprosate
* stimulates GABAergic inhibitory neurotransmission and antagonisis excitatory amino-acids, particularly glutamate.

Disulfiram (Antabuse)
* Blocking liver enzyme aldehyde dehydrogenase, which leads to an accumulation of acetaldehyde

Naltrexone
* Blocking opioid receptor leads to lower levels of dopamine

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6
Q

Describe the treatment for alcohol withdrawal [+]

A

Patient either needs to continue drinking or be offered a detox.

Management is generally done as an inpatient, particularly if severe or history of seizures.

Monitor withdrawal with CIWA score.

Management is primarily with Benzodiazepines (usually chlordiazepoxide)
- This can be a fixed reducing withdrawal regimen (5 7 days)

IM/IV pabrinex or oral thiamine is given alongside this

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7
Q

Describe how you manage opioid dependence [+]

A

Stabilisation on Methadone
* Long half life opioid
* Risk of diversion
* Titration of dose
* Gradual reduction

Treatment with Buprenorphine
* Partial agonist with strong affinity
* Lower risk of diversion
* Must be in withdrawal before using

Treatment with Naltrexone
* Opioid receptor antagonist
* Long term prevention

Generally Opiate withdrawal would be managed with harm reduction methods
* This might include opiate substitution e.g. with methadone and buprenorphine
* Controlled detox over a period of time.
* Withdrawal can be monitored with a COWS score (Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale)

Overdose
* Overdose is a significant risk with opiates particularly those new or changing dose of opiates and IV drug users.
* Naloxone would generally be issued to those at risk

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8
Q

Describe how methadone can be used to treat opioid dependence [+]
What are possible side effects? [3]

A

Methadone:
- SLIGHT Increased risk of mortality in the first 4 weeks of treatment.
- Gradual titration
- Normally tapered down over months.
- Can be used in long term treatment.
- Longer withdrawal syndrome.

Interactions:
* QTc prolongation at high dose > 100mg, and in combination with other medications.
* Medication interactions (CYP3A4).

NB: Methadone = full agonist

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9
Q

Describe how buprenorphine can be used to treat opioid dependence [+]
What are possible side effects? [3]

A
  • Not associated with increased mortality during titration.
  • Client needs to be in mild to moderate withdrawals to prevent precipitated withdrawals from opiates.
  • Rapid titration.
  • Less sedative.
  • Client needs to be in mild to moderate withdrawals to prevent precipitated withdrawals from opiates.
  • Rapid titration.
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10
Q

How do you manage cocaine toxicity? [2]

A

chest pain:
* benzodiazepines + glyceryl trinitrate
* if myocardial infarction develops then primary percutaneous coronary intervention

hypertension:
- benzodiazepines + sodium nitroprusside

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11
Q

How do you mx MDMA toxicity? [2]

A

Management
* supportive
* dantrolene may be used for hyperthermia if simple measures fail

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12
Q

State which drugs you would use to reverse the following causes of an overdose:
* Paracetamol
* Opioids
* Benzos
* Betablockers [2]

A

Paracetamol:
- Acetylcysteine
Opioids:
- Naloxone

Benzos
- Flumazenil

Betablockers:
* Glucagon for heart failure or cardiogenic shock
* Atropine for symptomatic bradycardia

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13
Q

State which drugs you would use to reverse the following causes of an overdose:
* CCBs
* Cocaine
* Cyanide [2]
* Methanol
* CO

A

CCBs: Calcium Chloride
Cocaine: Diazepam
Methanol: Fomepizol or ethanol
Cyanide: Dicobalt edetate
CO: 100% oxygen

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14
Q

Describe the presentation of opiate withdrawal [+]

A

Opiate withdrawal presents with diarrhoea, mydriasis, muscular aches, yawning, a runny nose and insomnia.

Patients show features of sympathetic stimulation with tachycardia, hypertension and piloerection (goosebumps).

Likely that there is difficult venous access; therefore, it is likely that this man injects IV heroin and thus has damaged his veins.

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15
Q

Opiate relapse can be prevented using [] once detox is complete.
Overdose can be managed with []

A

Relapse can be prevented using neltrexone once detox is complete.

Overdose can be managed with naloxone

16
Q

NICE suggest a step-wise approach for treating GAD. What are the steps? [4]

A

step 1:
- education about GAD + active monitoring

step 2:
- low-intensity psychological interventions (individual non-facilitated self-help or individual guided self-help or psychoeducational groups)

step 3:
- high-intensity psychological interventions (cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation) or drug treatment. See drug treatment below for more information

step 4:
- highly specialist input e.g. Multi agency teams

Lecture:
* 50% of people with GAD start their treatment with antidepressants such as SSRIs or SNRIs (comorbidity with depression)
* 35% are treated with benzodiazepines (anxiolytics)
* Stimulus control treatment: behavioural intervention to limit the contexts in which worrying occurs: limited amount of time; specific location

CBT: self-monitoring, relaxation training, cognitive restructuring, behavioural rehearsal

17
Q

What is the drug tx for GAD? [+]

A

NICE suggest sertraline should be considered the first-line SSRI
- if sertraline is ineffective, offer an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)
- examples of SNRIs include duloxetine and venlafaxine

If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs
- consider offering pregabalin
- interestingly for patients under the age of 30 years NICE recommend you warn patients of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm.
- Weekly follow-up is recommended for the first month

18
Q

Describe the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for GAD [5+]

A

A Excessive anxiety and worry, occurring more days than not for at least 6 months, about a number of events or activities

B The individual finds it difficult to control the worry

C The anxiety and worry are associated with at least three of the following symptoms:
* Restlessness
* Being easily fatigued
* Difficulty concentrating or mind going blank
* Irritability
* Muscle tension
* Sleep disturbance

D The anxiety/worry or physical symptoms cause clinically significant distress or impairment in important areas of functioning

E The disturbance is not better explained by physiological effects of a substance, or by another medical condition

19
Q

The Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7) can help assess the severity. It involves seven questions, each scored depending on how often the symptoms are experienced. The total score indicates the severity:

[] indicates mild anxiety
[] indicates moderate anxiety
[] indicates severe anxiety

A

5-9 indicates mild anxiety
10-14 indicates moderate anxiety
15-21 indicates severe anxiety

20
Q

Describe the management of mild, moderate and severe OCD [+]

A

PM:
If functional impairment is mild
low-intensity psychological treatments:

* cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP)
* If this is insufficient or can’t engage in psychological therapy, then offer choice of either a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP)

If moderate functional impairment
* offer a choice of either a course of an SSRI (any SSRI for OCD but fluoxetine specifically for body dysmorphic disorder) or more intensive CBT (including ERP)

If severe functional impairment
* offer combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT (including ERP)

ZtF:
- Mild OCD may be managed with education and self-help resources.

More significant OCD may require:
* Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) with exposure and response prevention (ERP)
* SSRIs
* Clomipramine (a tricyclic antidepressant)

21
Q

How long is the tx for OCD for if effective? [1]

A

if treatment with SSRI is effective then continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement
- If SSRI ineffective or not tolerated try either another SSRI

22
Q

NICE recommend classifying impairment into mild, moderate or severe
they recommend the use of the [] scale

Describe what an example of severe OCD would look like

A

they recommend the use of the Y-BOCS scale
an example of ‘severe’ OCD would be someone who spends > 3 hours a day on their obsessions/compulsions, has severe interference/distress and has very little control/resistance

23
Q

Describe what is meant by social anxiety disorder [1]

A

Marked and XS fear or anxiety that occurs in more or more social situations - can be interactions, perfomance or feeling observed.
- Fear that will act in a way or show anxiety symptomns that be will negatively evaluated by others
- Significant distress or impairment
- Prolonged

24
Describe the features of PTSD [+]
**HARD** - features of PTSD * **H**yperarousal/hypervigiliance: poor sleep, irritability, difficulty concentrating * **A**voidance: avoiding people * **R**e-experiencing: flashbacks, nightmares, repetitive and distressing intrusive images * **D**ull/ emotional numbing - lack of ability to experience feelings, feeling detached **Features** * **re-experiencing:** flashbacks, nightmares, repetitive and distressing intrusive images * **avoidance**: avoiding people, situations or circumstances resembling or associated with the event * **hyperarousal**: hypervigilance for threat, exaggerated startle response, sleep problems, irritability and difficulty concentrating * **emotional numbing** - lack of ability to experience feelings, feeling detached ZtF: Key symptoms include: **Intrusive thoughts** relating to the event **Re-experiencing** (experiencing flashbacks, images, sensations and nightmares of the event) **Hyperarousal** (feeling on edge, irritable and easily startled) **Avoidance of triggers** that remind them of the event (e.g., people, places or talking about the event) **Negative emotions** (e.g., fear, anger, guilt or worthlessness) **Negative beliefs** (e.g., the world is dangerous) **Difficulty with sleep** **Depersonalisation** (feeling separated or detached) **Derealisation** (feeling the world around them is not real) **Emotional numbing** (unable to experience feelings) ## Footnote **NB**: One of the DSM-IV diagnostic criteria is that symptoms have been present for **more than one month.**
25
Describe the managment of PTSD [+]
following a traumatic event **single-session interventions** (often referred to as debriefing) are **not recommended** **watchful waiting** may be used for **mild symptoms lasting less than 4 weeks** military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces **trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)** or **eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (EMDR) therap**y may be used in **more severe cases** - **1st line** for those presenting **within 1-3 months = Trauma focused CBT** - **1st line for those presenting after 3 months = EMDR** **drug treatments for PTSD should NOT be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults.** - If **drug treatment** is used then **venlafaxine** or a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline** should be tried. - In **severe cases**, NICE recommends that **risperidone** may be used
26
Describe how this would present *temporal lobe seizure with secondary generalisation* [1]
This would present with a secondary tonic-clonic seizure following the localising features of a temporal lobe seizure.
27
What is section 136 of the MHA? [1]
Police officers can remove someone from public place if deemed at risk to selves of others
28
Describe the different sections (2-5) that need to know for MHA with regards to: - Where - Who - How long - Renewable - Compulsory treatment
29
What are the MHA 1983 Safeguards?
**Two doctors & AMHP** (independent) to detain **Right of appeal to First Tier Tribunal** * Completely independent panel * Burden of proof is on the detaining authority * Bound to order the patient's discharge if not found to be detainable **Hospital Managers' meetings** **Consent to treatment after 3/12** Second Opinion Approved Doctor (SOAD) CQC oversight NR discharge ## Footnote Tribunal (judge, independent pyschiatrist and lay person) is majority decision whereas hospital managers (3 lay people) is unaninmous
30
# MHA 1983 Safeguards When can you apply for hospital managers review or tribunal review? [2]
Any patient can apply for hospital managers review at any point during their stay Tribunal: have to appeal within first 14 days of stay ## Footnote Can apply to both
31
What do you absolutely need to know about the MCA? / what would you do if someone asked you to assess someones capacity? [+]
32
What does the MHA assessment involve and who needs to recommend this decision? [1]
A **Mental Health Act** assessment involves a **detailed evaluation** to determine whether to detain **someone under the Mental Health Act.** The decision needs to be recommended by two registered medical practitioners (doctors): * **A Section 12 doctor** * **Another doctor (e.g., their GP)**
33
A Mental Health Act assessment can result in compulsory admission under which sections? [2]
A Mental Health Act assessment can result in compulsory admission **under Section 2 or Section 3.**
34
Describe what section 2 and 3 involves? [2]
**Section 2** - Section 2 involves **compulsory admission for assessment following a Mental Health Act assessment**, with a **maximum period of 28 days.** - It **cannot be renewed**. It ends in either discharge or further detention under Section 3. **Section 3** - Section 3 involves **compulsory admission for treatment**. The **maximum** **period is six months,** after which the Responsible Clinician can arrange to renew it for further treatment. - Detention under **Section 3 requires a Mental Health Act assessment**. Patients that are well-known to mental health services may be detained under Section 3 straight from the community. Alternatively, patients may be detained under Section 3 following assessment under Section 2.
35
Describe what section 4, 5(2) and 5(4) ? [2]
**Section 4** - Section 4 is used to detain patients for up to **72 hours** in **urgent scenarios where other procedures cannot be arranged in time.** It requires an **AMHP** and **one doctor**. It is followed by a Mental Health Act assessment. **Section 5(2)** - Section 5(2) is used in **an emergency to detain patients** who are **already in hospital voluntarily**. - It lasts up to **72 hours and requires only one doctor**. It is followed by a Mental Health Act assessment. **Section 5(4)** - Section 5(4) is used in an **emergency to detain patients who are already in hospital voluntarily**. It lasts up to **6 hours and requires only one nurse**. It is followed by a Mental Health Act assessment.
36
Describe what the MHA and MCA are based on [2]
The **Mental Capacity Act** is based on a **functional test** - Can they function in this way? The **Mental Health Act** is inherently **status based** - On the basis of the person having a mental health dx