Paeds VII Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

A baby is born at full term following a vaginal delivery complicated by a shoulder dystocia. The baby is born in very poor condition and accordingly, the neonatal team resuscitate and intubate the baby. The baby is profoundly acidotic and demonstrates global hypotonia with abnormal neonatal reflexes; the neonatal team decide on the most appropriate step in management as they are concerned about hypoxic brain injury.

Which intervention is most important for this baby?

A

Therapeutic cooling at 33-35 degrees attempts to reduce the chances of severe brain damage in neonates with hypoxic injury

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1
Q

What are intrinsic [2] and systemic [3] diseases that cause nephrotic syndrome

A

Most common cause: MCD

It can be secondary to intrinsic kidney disease:
* Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
* Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

It can also be secondary to an underlying systemic illness:
* Henoch schonlein purpura (HSP)
* Diabetes
* Infection, such as HIV, hepatitis and malaria

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2
Q

Vulvovaginitis is a common presentation in young girls before puberty. It presents with: [6]

A
  • Soreness
  • Itching
  • Erythema around the labia
  • Vaginal discharge
  • Dysuria (burning or stinging on urination)
  • Constipation
  • A urine dipstick may show leukocytes but no nitrites. This will often result in misdiagnosis as a urinary tract infection.
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3
Q

How do you dx UTIs in children? [4]

A
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4
Q

Describe the mx of UTIs in:
- infants
- children with upper UTI [2]
- children with lower UTI [2]

A

infants less than 3 months old
- should be referred immediately to a paediatrician

children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI
- should be considered for admission to hospital.
- If not admitted oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days

children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI
- should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin or amoxicillin.
- Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours

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5
Q

How do you further investigate all children under 6 months [1] recurrent UTIs [1] or atypical UTIs [1]?

A

Ultrasound Scans:

All children under 6 months with their first UTI should have an abdominal ultrasound within 6 weeks, or during the illness if there are recurrent UTIs or atypical bacteria

Children with recurrent UTIs should have an abdominal ultrasound within 6 weeks

Children with atypical UTIs should have an abdominal ultrasound during the illness

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6
Q

A child has an atypical / recurrent UTI.

Which mode of investigation should be given after 4-6 months? [1]

A

DMSA (Dimercaptosuccinic Acid) Scan
* DMSA scans should be used 4 – 6 months after the illness to assess for damage from recurrent or atypical UTIs.
* This involves injecting a radioactive material (DMSA) and using a gamma camera to assess how well the material is taken up by the kidneys.
* Where there are patches of kidney that have not taken up the material, this indicates scarring that may be the result of previous infection.

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7
Q

What is the Vesico-Ureteric Reflux (VUR)? [1]
Why is this significant with regards to UTIs? [1]
How is it diagnosed? [1]

A

Vesico-ureteric reflux (VUR) is where urine has a tendency to flow from the bladder back into the ureters when the bladder contracts
- This predisposes patients to developing upper urinary tract infections and subsequent renal scarring
- Means that have urine sitting in bladder and back pressure in kidneys
- This is diagnosed using a micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG).

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8
Q

A child has a UTI that is found to be caused by Klebsiella.

Why is this clinically significant? [1]

A

Atypical causes of infection point towards a structural cause of UTIs (as opposed to typical)

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9
Q

Lecture:

What are the investigations for UTIs for < 6 months, 6months-3yrs and > 3 years [+]

A
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10
Q

What is the simplified pathophysiology of rickets? [3]

Which populations are at higher risks of rickets? [4]

A

Vitamin D is a hormone (not technically a vitamin) created from cholesterol by the skin in response to UV radiation.

Inadequate vitamin D leads to a lack of calcium and phosphate in the blood
- Since calcium and phosphate are required for the construction of bone, low levels result in defective bone mineralisation

Low calcium causes a secondary hyperparathyroidism as the parathyroid gland tries to raise the calcium level by secreting parathyroid hormone. Parathyroid hormone stimulates increased reabsorption of calcium from the bones. This causes further problems with bone mineralisation.

Those at higher risk:
- Patients with darker skin require a longer period of sun exposure to generate the same quantity of vitamin D
- Patients with malabsorption disorders (such as inflammatory bowel disease) are more likely to have vitamin D deficiency.
- CKD: The kidneys are essential in metabolising vitamin D to its active form, therefore vitamin D deficiency is common in chronic kidney disease.
- Limited exposure to sunlight
- Low Ca & P diets
- Medications like glucocorticoids and ARVs

TOM TIP: Think about the risk factors for vitamin D deficiency in your exams and clinical practice. Patients with rickets are likely to have risk factors such as darker skin, low exposure to sunlight, live in colder climates and spend the majority of their time indoors.

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11
Q

Patients with vitamin D deficiency and rickets may not have any symptoms. Potential symptoms are [6]

Bone deformities that can occur in rickets include: [4]

A

Patients with vitamin D deficiency and rickets may not have any symptoms. Potential symptoms are:
* Lethargy
* Bone pain
* Swollen wrists
* Bone deformity
* Poor growth
* Dental problems
* Muscle weakness
* Pathological or abnormal fractures

Bone deformities that can occur in rickets include:
* Bowing of the legs, where the legs curve outwards
* Knock knees, where the legs curve inwards
* Rachitic rosary, where the ends of the ribs expand at the costochondral junctions, causing lumps along the chest
* Craniotabes, which is a soft skull, with delayed closure of the sutures and frontal bossing
* Delayed teeth with under-development of the enamel

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12
Q

Investigations for Rickets?

A

Serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D is the laboratory investigation for vitamin D.
- A result of less than 25 nmol/L establishes a diagnosis vitamin D deficiency, which can lead to rickets.

Xray is required to diagnose rickets.
- X-rays may also show osteopenia (more radiolucent bones).

Bone profile
* Serum calcium may be low
* Serum phosphate may be low
* Serum alkaline phosphatase may be high
* Parathyroid hormone may be high

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13
Q

Why are breastfed babies more at risk of rickets? [1]

How do you avoid this? [1]

A

Prevention is the best management for rickets. Breastfed babies are at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency compared with formula fed babies, as formula feed is fortified with vitamin D.
- Breastfeeding women and all children should take a vitamin D supplement. NICE clinical knowledge summaries recommend supplements containing 400 IU (10 micrograms) per day for children and young people.

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14
Q

How do you treat vitamin D deficiency in children? [1]

How do you treat rickets? [2]

A

Children with vitamin D deficiency can be treated with vitamin D (ergocalciferol). The doses for treatment of vitamin D deficiency depend on the age (see the BNF).
- The dose for children between 6 months and 12 years is 6,000 IU per day for 8 – 12 weeks.

Children with features of rickets should be referred to a paediatrician.
- Vitamin D and calcium supplementation is used to treat rickets.
- Surgical Intervention: In severe cases where there are bone deformities, surgical correction might be necessary. This includes procedures like osteotomies and epiphysiodesis.

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15
Q

The most common cause of hypothyroidism in children [1]

A

The most common cause of hypothyroidism in children (juvenile hypothyroidism) is autoimmune thyroiditis.

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16
Q

What is meant by congenital hypothyroidism? [1]

How is it detected? [1]

A

Congenital hypothyroidism is where the child is born with an underactive thyroid gland.
- This occurs in around 1 in 3000 newborns. It can be the result of an underdeveloped thyroid gland (dysgenesis) or a fully developed gland that does not produce enough hormone (dyshormonogenesis).
- Very rarely it can be the result of a problem with the pituitary or hypothalamus. This usually occurs without any other problems and the cause is not clear.

Congenital hypothyroidism is screened for on the newborn blood spot screening test. Where it is not picked up a birth, patients can present with:

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17
Q

What is the most common cause of acquired hypothyroidism in children? [1]

How would you detect? [1]

A

The most common cause of acquired hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
- It is associated with antithyroid peroxidase (anti-TPO) antibodies and antithyroglobulin antibodies

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18
Q

Describe the basic physiology of the release of GH [2]

A

Growth hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland
- It is responsible for stimulating cell reproduction and the growth of organs, muscles, bones and height.
- It stimulates the release of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) by the liver, which is also important in promoting growth in children and adolescents.

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19
Q

Describe the differences in causes between congenital and acquired growth hormone deficiency [2]

A

Congenital growth hormone deficiency
- results from a disruption to the growth hormone axis at the hypothalamus or pituitary gland.
- It can be due to a known genetic mutation such as the GH1 (growth hormone 1) or GHRHR (growth hormone releasing hormone receptor) genes
- or due to another condition such as empty sella syndrome where the pituitary gland is under-developed or damaged.

Acquired growth hormone deficiency:
- can be secondary to infection, trauma or interventions such as surgery.

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20
Q

How may GHD present at birth? [3]
How many GHD present later in childhood? [4]

A

Growth hormone deficiency may present at birth or in neonates with:
* Micropenis (in males)
* Hypoglycaemia
* Severe jaundice

Older infants and children can present with:
* Poor growth, usually stopping or severely slowing from age 2-3
* Short stature
* Slow development of movement and strength
* Delayed puberty
* Obesity

21
Q

Investigation, diagnosis and management will be made by specialists in paediatric endocrinology using which tests? [1]

Describe this test [1]

A

Growth hormone stimulation test:
- glucagon, insulin, arginine and clonidine can be used to stimulate release of growth hormone
- Growth hormone levels are monitored regularly for 2-4 hours
- In growth hormone deficiency there will be a poor response to stimulation.

22
Q

Growth hormone deficiency is related to numerous other conditions. Which tests would you conduct to assess for these? [4]

A

Test for other associated hormone deficiencies, for example thyroid and adrenal deficiency
MRI brain for structural pituitary or hypothalamus abnormalities

Genetic testing for associated genetic conditions such as Turner syndrome and Prader–Willi syndrome

Xray (usually of the wrist) or a DEXA scan can determine bone age and help predict final height

23
Q

Mx of Growth Hormone Deficiency? [3]

A

Daily subcutaneous injections of growth hormone (somatropin)
Treatment of other associated hormone deficiencies
Close monitoring of height and development

24
How would you determine what delayed puberty is in boys [1] and girls [1]
**No testicular enlargement** by **14 years of age**, **Whereas in girls**, it's often determined by the **lack of breast** **development by 13 years.**
25
What are three common causes of delayed puberty? [3]
This condition can be caused by various factors including **constitutional delay, hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and hypergonadotropic hypogonadism**
26
The investigation of delayed puberty involves a structured approach to identify underlying causes and guide appropriate management. Initial investigations should focus on first-line tests, followed by more specific assessments if necessary. What are the first line tests and what do they show? [5]
**Bone Age Assessment**: - A **radiograph of the left hand and wrist is typically performed to evaluate skeletal maturity.** - **Bone age significantly behind chronological age** may indicate **constitutional delay of growth and puberty (CDGP).** **Serum Gonadotropins:** - Measurement of **luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)** levels can distinguish between **hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (low or normal LH/FSH) and hypergonadotropic hypogonadism (elevated LH/FSH).** **Sex Steroid Levels**: - Serum testosterone in males or estradiol in females helps assess **gonadal function**. - **Low levels** are **indicative of delayed puberty.** **Thyroid Function Tests**: - **Evaluate thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free thyroxine (T4)** to rule out **hypothyroidism**, which can contribute to delayed puberty. **Karyotype Analysis:** - Particularly indicated in females with **primary amenorrhoea**, to diagnose conditions such as **Turner syndrome**
27
How do you treat delayed puberty in the cases of permanent hypogondatropic hypogonadism due to structural hypothalamic/pituitary disease or genetic defects? How do you treat delayed puberty in the cases of primary gonadal failure (hypergonadotropic hypogonadism)? [1]
**permanent hypogondatropic hypogonadism due to structural hypothalamic/pituitary disease or genetic defects** - **long-term sex steroid replacement** - In **males**, **testosterone** can be used; in **females**, a combination of **oestrogen and progesterone.** **primary gonadal failure (hypergonadotropic hypogonadism)** - **lifelong sex steroid replacement therapy** is required for **induction** of **puberty** and **maintenance of secondary sexual characteristics**
28
What are the clinical features of Fragile X syndrome [+]
**Fragile X syndrome** usually presents with a **delay in speech and language development**. Other features are: * Intellectual disability * Long, narrow face * Large ears * Large testicles after puberty * Hypermobile joints (particularly in the hands) * Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) * Autism * Seizures
29
**TOM TIP:** The key feature everyone remembers for Prader-Willi syndrome is the the **[]**.
TOM TIP: The key feature everyone remembers for Prader-Willi syndrome is the the i**nsatiable hunger**
30
What are the clinical features of Prader-Willi syndrome? [+]
* **Constant insatiable hunger that leads to obesity** * Poor muscle tone as an infant (**hypotonia**) * **Mild-moderate learning disability** * **Hypogonadism** * Fairer, soft skin that is prone to bruising * **Mental health problems**, particularly anxiety * **Dysmorphic** features * **Narrow** **forehead** * **Almond shaped eyes** * **Strabismus** * Thin upper lip * **Downturned mouth**
31
**[]** is indicated by NICE as a treatment for Prader-Willi Syndrome, aimed at improving muscle development and body composition.
**Growth hormone** is indicated by NICE as a treatment for Prader-Willi Syndrome, aimed at improving muscle development and body composition.
32
Describe the difference in pathophysiology between Prader-Willi and Angelman syndrome [2]
**Prader-Willi syndrome** if gene **deleted from father** - from chromosome 15 **Angelman syndrome** if gene **deleted from mother** - UBE3A gene from chr 15
33
Features of Angelman Syndrome? [+] TOMTIP features? [3]
Delayed development and learning disability Severe delay or absence of speech development Coordination and balance problems (ataxia) **Fascination with water** **Happy demeanour** Inappropriate laughter Hand flapping Abnormal sleep patterns Epilepsy Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder Dysmorphic features Microcephaly Fair skin, light hair and blue eyes Wide mouth with widely spaced teeth **TOM TIP:** The novel features to remember and link with Angelman syndrome so you can spot it in your exams is the unusual fascination with water, happy demeanour and widely spaced teeth.
34
Describe the clinical features of William syndrome [+] Include TT [5]
* Broad forehead * **Starburst eyes** (a star-like pattern on the iris) * Flattened nasal bridge * Long philtrum * Wide mouth with widely spaced teeth * Small chin * Very sociable trusting personality * Mild learning disability **TOM TIP:** - The distinctive features to remember with William syndrome are the **very sociable personality, the starburst eyes and the wide mouth with a big smile.** It is worth remembering the **association with supravalvular aortic stenosis and hypercalcaemia**, as these are unique features that are easy to test in exams.
35
What are the associated conditions of William syndrome/ [4]
**Supravalvular aortic stenosis** (narrowing just above the aortic valve) Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder Hypertension **Hypercalcaemia**
36
Describe the presentation of ITP in children [+]
**Cutaneous rash** * ITP most frequently manifests as the sudden appearance of a **petechial** **rash** (small, purpuric lesions up to 2mm diameter), **however larger purpura or bruising can also be present** * This cutaneous rash is present in approximately 86% of children with diagnosed ITP * In greater than 50% of children with ITP, a cutaneous rash is the only clinical symptom **Mucocutaneous bleeding** * **Bleeding from mucosal surfaces occurs in approximately 40% of children with ITP** * The location of the bleeding can vary: * Epistaxis (20%) * Oral bleeding, for example buccal and gingival surfaces (20%) * Very infrequently, bleeding can occur from the gastrointestinal, menstrual or urinary tract (< 5%) **Severe haemorrhage** * A very rare clinical symptom of ITP is severe haemorrhage (< 3%) * Intracranial haemorrhage (< 1%) may present with signs and symptoms such as: * Headache * Persistent vomiting * Altered mental state e.g. confusion, drowsiness * Seizures ## Footnote **NB**: **TOM TIP:** Petechiae are pin-prick spots (around 1mm) of bleeding under the skin. Purpura are larger (3 – 10mm) spots of bleeding under the skin. When a large area of blood is collected (more than 10 mm), this is called ecchymoses. These are all non-blanching lesions.
37
Describe the pathophysiology of ITP [3]
**ITP** is caused by a **type II hypersensitivity reaction**. It is caused by the **production of antibodies that target and destroy platelets**. This can happen spontaneously, or it can be triggered by something, such as a viral infection.
38
Ix for ITP? [3]
**Full blood count** - **Platelets: An isolated thrombocytopenia** with a platelet count of < 100x109/L is usually the only blood abnormality - **White blood cells** - Should be within normal limits **Haemoglobin** - Usually within normal limits **Peripheral blood smear**: - Platelets will appear reduced in number Red and white blood cells will be of normal count and morphology **Bone marrow biopsy** - BMJ recommend performing this test only if there is an atypical blood film. Should appear normal
39
What are they key ddx for ITP? [5]
Henoch Schonlein purpura Haematological malignancy Meningococcal disease Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) Congenital thrombocytopenic syndromes
40
The management of ITP is different in children compared to adults. How is it managed? *non severe* [+]
**Conservative management** * **ITP** in **children** will **resolve spontaneously within 3 weeks in 30-70% of children, according to BMJ** **Active management** - This is restricted to **children with major bleeding symptoms** (e.g. ongoing epistaxis, mucosal bleeding) or a severely low platelet count - **Prednisolone** 1-2mg/kg/day orally, with tapering as soon as symptoms begin to clear - **IVIg and anti-D immunoglobulin** - - Reserved for if corticosteroids are contraindicated or ineffective - **chronic ITP:** medications such as m**ycophenolate, rituximab and thrombopoietin receptor agonists** can be considered (with specialist input)
41
Tx for severe life-threatening ITP ? [+]
The **first line management** is with: **IVIg, corticosteroids, plus platelet transfusions** - IVIg 1g/kg intravenously as a single dose - Prednisolone 1-2mg/kg/day orally - Alternatively, UptoDate suggest methylprednisolone 30 mg/kg per day (up to 1 g) intravenously for 3-4 days **Platelet transfusions** - UptoDate recommend platelet transfusions of a **bolus dose of 10-30 mL/kg, then followed by a continuous infusion** - The role of these platelet transfusions is to ensure that the child maintains a haemostatic platelet count and to guide further treatment
42
Describe the chronic complications of ITP [3]
**Severe bleeding** Those at higher risk of severe bleeding include: * Those with platelet count < 10,000/microL * Traumatic event, e.g. head injury, falls * Concurrent use of blood thinning medications e.g. aspirin, NSAIDs, warfarin, heparin (rare in children) **Intracranial haemorrhage** **Chronic ITP** - Chronic ITP is defined as ITP which persists for >12 months since presentation
43
There are several conditions that predispose to a higher risk of developing leukaemia. What are they? [4]
**Down’s syndrome** **Kleinfelter syndrome** **Noonan syndrome** **Fanconi’s anaemia**
44
Describe the presentation of G6PD deficiency [+] Dx? [1]
G6PD often presents with **neonatal** **jaundice**. Other features of the condition are: * **Anaemia** * **Intermittent jaundice**, particularly in response to triggers * **Gallstones** * **Splenomegaly** * **Heinz bodies** may be seen on a on blood film. Heinz bodies are blobs of denatured haemoglobin (“inclusions”) seen within the red blood cells. Diagnosis can be made by doing a **G6PD enzyme assay.**
45
Describe the pathophysiology of Langerhans cell histiocytosis [2]
**Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH)** is a rare **idiopathic infiltrative condition** characterised by the excessive **proliferation of Langerhans cells of bone marrow** and their **subsequent deposition in organs.** - **Langerhans cells** are **myeloid** **dendritic cells**.
46
Describe the clinical features of Langerhans cell histiocytosis [+]
**Bone (75%)**: - Most commonly a **solitary lytic lesion of the cranial vault** found incidentally - **Long bones** are the second most common location which often presents as pain or a pathological fracture - femur in children, ribs in adults **Skin (40%).** * Can present as **vesicles and bullae** (most common in infancy) or as dermatitis, nodules or petechiae **Lymph nodes (20%).** * Cervical lymphadenopathy. **Liver/Spleen (15%).** * Jaundice in liver involvement. * Cystic lesions. * Organomegaly (NB denotes worse prognosis). **Lung (10%).** * Pneumothorax. * Cysts and cavitating nodules. **Central nervous system (5%).** * Diabetes insipidus - 5 times more likely to develop in multi-system disease. Higher risk if solitary bone lesion present within skull.
47
Ix for Langerhans cell histiocytosis? [3]
**Plain film radiographs** are an **appropriate initial imaging request.** - If a **lytic lesion** is found on a skeletal radiograph it may be appropriate to request a full skeletal surgery and chest radiograph. - **Likewise if a pulmonary nodule** is discovered on a chest radiograph it may be appropriate to request a skeletal survey. - **High resolution CT scan** is of benefit when pulmonary involvement is suspected and will show interstitial infiltrate in the mid and lower zones with costophrenic angle sparing. Mature disease may present with a honeycomb appearance in the same distribution. **FBC**: - Typical finding are **anaemia and hypercalcaemia** (due to skeletal involvement) - **Deranged liver enzymes, direct hyperbilirubinemia and hypoalbuminaemia** may be evident if there is hepatic involvement. **Biopsy** - is the g**old standard investigation for diagnosis of Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH)** with bone or skin biopsy preferred. - Langerhans cells have distinctive morphological features however to be diagnostic they must be identified via immunohistochemical staining of **CD1a or CD207 surface receptors.** - Alternatively, identification of '**Birbeck granules'** by electron microscopy enables LCH to be differentiated from other proliferative disorders. However his method is less cost-effective and more time consuming than staining.
48
Describe the tx for LCH for: * Bone disease [2] * Skin disease [2] * LNs [3] * Multisystem [43232233wq]
**Bone**: * Surgical curettage the mainstay of treatment for a solitary lesion. * Radiotherapy, bisphosphonates and chemotherapy can be considered if the site of the solitary lesion is inaccesable or multiple lesions are present. **Skin:** * Topical steroids. * PUVA therapy. **Lymph nodes:** * Surgical excision of a single node. * Systemic steroids for multiple nodes. * Chemotherapy for nodes resistant to treatment. **Multi-system disease:** * A combination of cytotoxic medications and systemic steroids are used in multi-system disease and refractory single organ disease. * **Children**: **prednisolone and vinblastine with 6-mercaptopurine** added after the first six weeks for a total duration of 6-12 months. * **Adults: cladribine or cytarabine** is recommended for 6-12 months.
49
Children with **severe hydrocephalus** also classically present with failure of [gaze direction] due to compression of the **superior colliculus** of the midbrain.
Children with severe hydrocephalus also classically present with **failure of upward gaze ('sunsetting' eyes) due to compression of the superior colliculus** of the midbrain.
50
**[]** preparations are first-line for hyperhidrosis
**Topical aluminium chloride** preparations are first-line for hyperhidrosis