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Flashcards in Quiz Questions Deck (218):
1

 

 

Which of the following is a skeletal adverse reaction that can occur when taking cromoglycates

 

 

Joint pain

2

 

 

oral corticosteroids are secreted via

 

 

urine

3

 

 

when using beta-2 receptor agonists, patient should undergo periodic measurement of

 

 

IOP

4

 

 

When prescribing an antibacterial agent for otitis externa, the healthcare practitioner must consider that certain agents have the potential for ototoxicity.  Which agent has the greatest potential for it

 

neomycin/polymyxin B

 

5

 

 

A patient presents with a red, painful right eye and purulent drainage. Culture shows neisseria gonorrhea. NKDA.  what opthalmic agent would be most effective

 

 

sulfacetamide opthalmic preparation

6

 

 

after 1 week of treatment for otitis externa with topical antibacterial there is no improvement, whats next

 

 

suspect overgrowth of nonsuceptible organism and obtain culture

7

 

 

Montelukast can be used to treat chronic asthma in which age group

 

 

1 and older

8

 

 

SABAs are metabolized via

 

 

liver

9

 

 

12 yo presents w/ mod left ear pain and serosanguineos drainage.  tympanic membrane is perforated.  Why should you NOT prescribe benzocaine

 

 

contraindicated with perforated eardrum

10

 

 

what decreases absorption of antihistamines

 

 

antacids

11

 

 

proper method for ear drop instillation in a child

 

 

down and back

12

 

 

when choosing a topical anti-infective, ointments are usually considered more potent, why?

 

 

they are more occlusive

13

 

 

patients should NOT take albuterol/ipratropium (Combivent) if they are allergic to

 

 

soy (peanuts)

14

 

 

What is the appropriate dose of spiriva when treating COPD

 

 

18mcg once daily

15

 

 

when using oral corticosteroids to treat asthma, which electrolyte should be monitores

 

 

potassium

16

 

 

what healthcare education should be given to a geriatric patient who is using sulfacetamide solution for his left eye that was prescribed 2 months ago

 

 

discard when it turns dark

17

 

 

LABA mechanism of action

 

 

stimulation of beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the lungs, resulting in the relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

18

 

 

mechanism of action of an opthalmic topical anesthetic

 

 

acting locally, they block initiation and conduction of nerve impulses by decreasing the neuronal membrane's sensitivity to sodium ions, thereby decreasing the sensation of pain

19

 

 

half-life of prednisone

 

 

2.5-3.5 hours

20

 

 

when salmeterol (Serevent) is used to treat exercise-induced asthma, how should it be dosed

 

 

1 inhalation 30 min prior to exercise

21

 

 

mechanism of action for demulcents

 

 

form a protective film on the ocular surface, allowing for epithelial repair

22

 

 

mechanism of action for polymers

 

 

bind to natural tears and the mucosal surface of the eye to form a protective, lubricant film

23

 

 

mechanism of action for hygroscopic agents

 

 

draw water into corneal cells to protect against hyperosmotic stress

24

 

 

mechanism of action for hypertonicity agents

 

 

placed in ocular lubricants to draw excess fluid from cornea into tears

25

 

 

LABAs interact with

 

 

beta blockers

26

 

 

anti-infective otic agent with a steroid preparation

 

 

ciprofloxacin with hydrocortisone

27

 

 

duration of action for all LABAs

 

 

12 hours

28

 

 

possible adverse effect of an anticholinergic

 

 

worsening glaucoma

29

 

A patient with dry eye was prescribed refresh lacri-lube ointment 3 weeks ago with no improvement.  If there is no underlying cause, what is likely the problem

 

 

she puts it on in the morning before work

30

 

 

contact lense wearers are at greater risk for what type of infection

 

 

fungal

31

 

 

contraindicated for use of anticholinergics

 

 

prostate enlargement

32

 

 

what other med may need to be adjusted when a patient is taking oral corticosteroids

 

 

insulin

33

 

 

a patient has used Debrox for 7 days and now complains of hearing loss.  Why

 

 

damage to tympanic membrane for use longer than 4 days

34

 

 

what interacts with opthalmic vasoconstrictors causing increased IOP

 

 

MAOIs

35

 

 

mechanism of action for bacitacin

 

 

inhibits the incorporation of amino acids and nucleotides into the bacterial cell wall

36

 

 

mechanism of action for sulfacetamide

 

 

inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate

37

 

 

mechanism of action for fluoroquinolones

 

 

inhibits DNA synthesis in invading bacteria

38

 

 

mechanism of action for sulfa drugs

 

 

blocks synthesis of folic acid in susceptible bacteria

39

 

 

mechanism of action for erythromycin

 

 

prevents protein synthesis in bacteria

40

 

 

common dermatological side effect of long term use of oral prednisone

 

 

acne

41

 

 

why are CCBs effective for treating HTN

 

 

generally produce no significant CNS side effects and can treat co=existing conditions like angina

42

 

 

one advantage of treating a patient with irbesartan (avapro) instead of enalapril (vasotec)

 

 

does not produce dry cough

43

 

 

HTN patients with migraines, ischemic heart disease, or CHF would benefit most form which medication

 

 

beta blockers

44

 

 

what drug causes hypotension, dizziness, and death when mixed with nitrates

 

 

sildenafil (Viagra)

45

 

 

mechanism of action of which drug reduces preload (through vasodilation) and afterload (through arterial dilation) thus helping to treat both HTN and CHF

 

 

captopril

(ACE inhibitor)

46

 

patient c/o syncope, postural hypotension, tachycardia, throbbing headaches, and hot flushes.  These are common side effects of which medication

 

 

nitro patch

47

 

 

a lupus like syndrome occurs with high dosages of which drug

 

 

hydralazine

48

 

a patient with digoxin toxicity will most likely report what symptom

 

 

blurry vision

49

 

 

what is the drug type of choice for prinzmental angina as well as for patients with stable angina, HTN, and supraventricular arrythmias

 

 

CCBs

50

 

 

what should NOT be used in a HTN patient who has gout

 

 

diuretic

51

 

 

ACE inhibitors increase circulating levels of what

 

 

bradykinin

52

 

 

most common side effect of thiazide diuretics

 

 

potassium depletion

53

 

 

in addition to nausea, dizziness, and fatigue, what is another possible side effect of CCBs

 

 

apoplexy

54

 

 

which drug is best for a black woman with HTN who becomes pregnant

 

 

HCTZ

55

 

 

quinidine is an example of which type of antiarrhythmic

 

 

sodium channel blocker

56

 

 

black oatient with HTN tend to respond better to 

 

 

CCBs

57

 

 

80 yo patient with hx of glaucoma presents with hypertensive emergency.  Which drug is contraindicated

 

 

losartan/HCTS (Hyzaar)

58

 

 

what is a class 1C medication that stabilizes membranes and depresses the action potential phase

 

 

flecainide (Tambocor)

59

 

 

what drug is a potassium sparing diuretic

 

 

spironolactone

60

 

 

potassium channel blockers are in which class of antiarrhythmic drugs

 

 

3

61

 

 

what should NOT be used to treat HTN in pregnant female

 

 

losartan

62

 

 

rebound HTN can occur with abrupt withdrawal of

 

 

clonidine

63

 

 

because CCBs undergo extensive first pas metabolism what would you expect to see in a patient with cirrhosis

 

 

the drug's half-life is altered

64

 

 

patient is on a BP med but can't remember the name.  c/o skin rash and cough.  What is she likely taking

 

captopril

(ACE inhibitor)

65

 

 

what drug should be avoided when treating a patient with HTN and asthma

 

 

metoprolol

66

 

 

what food increases depletion of potassium, thereby increasing risk for digoxin toxicity

 

 

licorice

67

 

 

thiazide diuretics act on the distal convoluted tubule where they block transport of what

 

 

sodium and chloride

68

 

 

what is the mechanism of action of thiazide diuretics that causes reduced BP

 

 

 

 

decrease in sodium and water retention which decreases blood volume which decreases cardiac output

69

 

 

what is both an alpha and beta adrenergic blocker

 

 

carvedilol

70

 

 

what is the most common side effect of thiazide diuretics

 

 

potsddium depletion

71

 

 

a patient experiencing supraventricular arrhythmia has no success with valsalvas maneuver.  she has 90% bilat carotid stenosis.  What do you do

 

 

administer adenosine

72

 

 

what is the drug of choice for pregnancy induced HTN

 

 

methyldopa (Aldomet)

73

 

 

why should high doses of short acting CCBs be avoided

 

 

increased risk of MI

74

 

 

beta blockers are used in the treatment of CHF because theyr educe heart muscle oxygen demand by

 

 

reducing the force of heart muscle contractions

75

 

 

which medication has a side effect profile of dry cough, hyperkalemia, dizziness

 

 

captopril

(ACE inhibitor)

76

 

 

absorption of fibric acid deriviatives is reduced by the presence of

 

 

 

77

 

 

levothyroxine is contraindicated in which scenario

 

 

patient with recent MI

78

 

 

what is the half-life of PTU

 

 

1.5-5 hours

79

 

 

which patient newly diagnosed with T2DM would respond best to sulfonylureas

 

 

mild to moderate fasting hyperglycemia

80

 

 

which sulfonylurea causes the most side effects

 

 

chlorpropamide (Diabinese)

81

 

 

what is the mechanism of action for sulfonylureas

 

 

increasing insulin secretion from pancreatic B cells

82

 

 

contraindication for the use of PTU

 

 

pregnancy

83

 

 

levothyroxine is secreted in what

 

 

feces

84

 

 

patients taking methimazole (Tapazole) should avoid what

 

 

shellfish (iodine)

85

 

 

reversible side effect in children started on T3/T4 combo (liothyronine/levothyroxine)

 

 

hair loss

86

 

 

55 y.o man who is 5'9 and 225lbs with T2DM

no comorbidities or medication

recent A1C 6.7%

 

 

begin oral hypoglycemic metformin

87

 

 

hold levothyroxine for HR>?

 

 

100

88

 

 

vasopressin is used to treat what

 

 

diabetes insipidus

89

 

 

prolonged infusion of oxytocin can cause what

 

 

seizures (water intoxication)

90

 

 

50-80% of synthroid is absorbed by the

 

 

GI tract

91

 

 

what can impair the absorption of liothyronine

 

 

cholestryramine (bile acid sequestrant)

92

 

 

what is the main reason that metformin does NOT usually cause hypoglycemia

 

 

decreases glucose production in the liver

93

 

 

hematologic side effect of PTU

 

 

agranulocytosis

94

 

 

teaching for:

35y/o female with T2DM on oral contraceptives and taking pioglitazone (Actos) and does not want to become pregnant

 

 

increase oral contraceptive dose

95

 

 

what can increase absorption of liothyronine

 

 

fasting

96

 

 

what drug interferes with parathyroid hormone secretion

 

 

cinacalcet

97

 

 

typical starting dose of levothyroxine

 

 

50mcg

98

 

 

common side effect of sulfonylureas

 

 

weight gain

99

 

 

primary mechanism of action for alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

 

 

decreased absorption of carbs in GI tract

100

 

 

most common adverse effect of thiazolidinediones (TZDs) are weight gain and

 

 

fluid retention

101

 

 

what is considered glycemic control for a 55y/o male diagnosed with DM 9 months ago

 

 

6%

102

 

 

ADA algorhythm for insulin in T2DM

A1C is not around 7% at the end of 3 months of therapy

 

 

continue insulin dose and recheck in 3 months

103

 

 

why is it important to titrate up dosage of acarbose (Precose)

 

 

to minimize GI side effects

104

 

 

59y/0 female previously controlled on repaglinide (Prandin) with recent A1C of 9%

what do you do

 

 

increase dose to 3mg daily in divided doses

105

 

 

primary difference between sulfonylureas and meglitinides

 

 

meglitinides are shorter acting than sulfonylureas

106

 

 

advice for patient regarding her repaglinide (Prandin) who will have to skip lunch

 

 

do not take lunch dose and continue therapy at dinner

107

 

 

when is Novolog, Apidra, or Humalog recommended for a diabetic patient

 

 

when patient eats at the same time insulin is given

108

 

 

advice to a newly diagnosed diabetic started on insulin

 

 

BG BID and report back weekly

109

 

 

short acting steroid

 

 

cortisone

110

 

 

what does growth hormone do

 

 

affects cartilaginous areas of long bones

111

 

 

most important therapeutic intervention for a patient with diabetes

 

 

lifestyle modification

112

 

 

which medication class produces GI discomfort to the point that patient's may discontinue therapy

 

 

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

113

 

 

45y/o female with T2DM who has achieved glycemic control with diet/exercise after 2 months

114

 

 

patients with a lack of serotonin can suffer from what

 

 

depression

115

 

Of these drugs, which is not pregnancy category D:

Ergot w/ caffeine (Cafergor)

phenytoin (Dilantin)

fosphenytoin (Cerebyx)

oxcarbazepine (Trileptil)

 

 

Ergot w/ caffeine

116

 

 

Schedule of benzos

 

 

IV

117

 

Triptans should NOT be administered with which:

SSRIs

PPIs

PCN

NSAIDs

 

 

SSRIs

118

which is a tricyclic antidepressant used for treatment in severely depressed patients specifically for sedating effect

Effexor

Nardil

Sertraline

silenor

 

 

silenor

119

 

 

prescription slep aides should be used no longer than

 

 

10 days

120

 

 

what canacer has been associated with levodopa/carbidopa

 

 

malignant melanoma

121

 

 

peak effect of diazepam

 

 

0.5-2 hours

122

which should be adminisgtered immediately when treating status epilepticus:

Trileptal

Tegretol

Ativan

Dilatin

 

Ativan because it is a benzo

123

 

which anti-parkinson medication class relaxes smooth muscle both directly and indirectly

 

 

anticholinergics

124

 

 

Max amount of immetrex in one day

 

 

300mg

125

 

 

which Parkinson medication requires monitoring of IOP

 

 

benztropine (Cogentin)

126

 

 

common side effect of MAOIs, TCAs, and SSRIs

 

 

weight gain

127

which is a selective MAO-B inhibitor:

pramipexole (Mirapex)

benztropine (Cogentin)

entacapone (Comtan)

selegiline (Eldypryl, Carbex)

 

 

selegiline

128

 

 

which triptan can be given PO, SQ, and nasally

 

 

imitrex (sumatriptan)

129

 

 

how how prescription sleeo aides excreted

 

 

kidney

130

 

 

atypical antipsychotics are associated with

 

 

weight gain

131

patients taking nortriptyline and amitriptyline should be monitored for all of the following except:

mental status change

cardiac disturbances

confusion

weight loss

 

 

weight loss

132

 

 

alprazolam is contraindicated with which medication

 

 

ketoconazole

133

 

 

how long does it take to  see the effects of TCAs

 

 

up to 8 weeks

134

which benzo is metabolized in the liver and contraindicated in liver disease:

temazepam

oxazepam

midazolam

lorazepam

 

 

Midazolam

135

 

 

which disease is charachterized by a dopamine deficiency

 

 

Parkinsons

136

 

 

which Parkinson medication is used to treat restless leg stndrome

 

 

ropinirole

137

 

 

drugs that affect acetylcholine are useful in treating what

 

 

Alzheimers

138

 

 

pregnancy category of ergotamines

 

 

X

139

 

 

black box warning on all antipsychotics

 

 

may cause increased mortality in elderly with Alzheimers induced psychosis

140

 

 

which antidepressant helps with smoking cessation

 

 

wellbutrin

141

which drug can cause EPS:

 

amitriptyline

fluphenazine

bupropion

fluoxetine

 

 

fluphenazine

142

 

 

what is lithium

 

 

light alkaline metal

143

 

 

prescription sleep aides act on which receptors

 

 

GABA

144

 

 

when taking MAOIs, patients should avoid foods high in 

 

 

tyramine

145

 

5% of patients taking lithium for over a year develop symptoms of what

 

 

hypothyroidism

146

which is an act of endorphins:

 

slowed HR

elevated BP

increased respiration

increased pain

 

 

slowed HR

147

 

 

what is the most abundant major inhibitory neuron in the CNS

 

 

GABA

148

 

 

what are adverse effect of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

 

 

bradycardia

abnormal dreams

HTN

149

 

 

which medication requires CBC monitoring to check for aplastic anemia

150

 

 

35 y/o female taking diflucan for yeast infection should be told to

 

 

dont drink alcohol

wear sunscreen

report rashes

151

 

 

adverse reaction associated with septra that can be fatal

 

 

stevens-johnson syndrome

152

 

 

which drug shortens flu duration by several days

 

 

tamiflu

153

 

 

when giving chloroquine you should know if the patient has

 

 

G6PD deficiency

154

 

 

which does not need to be avoided when taking doxycycline:

ASA, milk, antacids, sun exposure

 

 

ASA

155

 

 

which antiviral can be used to treat herpes simplex 1 & 2

 

 

famciclovir

156

 

 

first generation cephalosporins are best used against which organism

 

 

gram- cocci

157

 

 

S. pneumoniae is difficult to treat because of growing resistance to what

 

 

PCNs and cephalosporins

158

 

Which should patient taking doxyxyline be advised of:

stay out of direct sunlight,

watch for signs of blood dyscrasias,

check INR frequently if on digoxin,

drink 8-10 glasses of fluid daily

 

 

stay out of direct sunlight

159

 

 

Zanamivir (Relenza) is not indicated for children younger than

 

 

5

160

 

 

what antiparasitic drug is related to macrolide ABTs

 

 

ivermectin 

161

 

 

what drug is typically use to treat cryptococcal meningitis

 

 

amphotericin B

162

 

 

Organisms that produce beta-lactamase have increased resistance to

 

 

PCN

163

 

 

which macrolide has the longest half-life

 

 

azithromycin

164

 

 

drug of choice for post=exposure prophylaxis against anthrax

 

 

cipro

165

 

 

clinicians must remember that aminoglycosides have the potential to cause

 

 

ototoxicity

166

 

Which is a side effect of clindamycin:

pseudomembranous colitis, hyperglycemia, ototoxicity, crystalluria

 

 

pseudomembranous colitis

167

 

 

patients taking flagyl should be advised not to consume what

 

 

alcohol

168

which is associated with fluroquinolones:

 

prolonged QT interval

serum sickness

increase in potassium

transient decrease in liver enzymes

 

 

prolonged QT interval

169

 

 

which medication has serious interactions with digoxin that can cause death in the elderly

 

 

clarithromycin (Biaxin)

170

 

 

Levofloxacin is likely to cause what adverse reaction in patients over 60

 

 

spontaneous tendon rupture

171

 

 

which interferes with a viruses ability to synthesize its own DNA and finds great use in the treatment of recurrent genital herpes

 

 

acyclovir

172

 

 

which drug is used for prophylaxis of malaria in areas resistant to chloroquine

 

 

primaquine

173

 

 

antimalarials are contraindicated with which medication

 

 

beta-blockers

174

 

 

most commonly used malarial drug

 

 

chloroquine

175

 

 

what should be avoided when taking fluroquinolones because it can interfere with absorption

 

 

antacids

176

 

 

ketoconazole is metabolized by

 

 

the liver

177

 

 

which anti-depressant should be avoided with fluroquinolones

 

 

doxepine

178

 

which is NOT associated with antivirals:

 

toxic epidermal necrosis, anemia, anaphylaxis, stevens-johnson syndrome

 

 

anemia

179

 

 

antimalarials are excreted via

 

 

urine

180

 

 

what is typically given to treat rocky mountain spotted fever and lyme disease

 

 

tetracycline

181

 

who is NOT considered high risk for adverse reactions to bactrim:

6 month postpartum lactating mother, anyone over 65, anyone abusing alcohol, malnourished individuals

 

 

postpartum lactating mother

182

 

 

what has been a life saving treatment for MRSA

 

 

vancomycin

183

 

which should be used for a 21 y/o pregnant patient with pneumonia:

clindamycin, gentamycin, levofloxacin, doxycyxline

 

 

clindamycin

184

 

what organism are aminoglycosides INEFFECTIVE against

 

 

anaerobic bacteria

185

 

 

typical dosage of flagyl for bacterial vaginosis

 

 

500mg BID x 5 days

186

 

 

what are sulfonamides used for in HIV patients

 

 

prevention of pneumocystitis

187

 

 

which hepres medication is used topically ONLY

 

 

penciclovir

188

 

 

half-life of fluconazole

 

 

30 hours

189

 

 

which patient population is safest to prescribe oral contraceptives:

liver disease, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, clotting disorders, possible pregnancy, hypothyroidism

 

 

 

hypothyroidism

190

 

 

ED drug prescriptions should be limited to

 

 

4-10 tablets per month

191

 

which can be used to treat a 13y/o with the flue:

tamiflu, cleocin, famvir, zovirax

 

 

tamiflu

192

 

 

what is the duration of effect for cialis

 

 

36 hours

193

 

 

which medication for BPH is slow to show effect, taking up to 6 months

 

 

dutasteride (Avodart)

194

 

what can be used to treat a patient with mono who has markedly edematous tonsils and no obvious abscess

 

 

dexamethasone

195

 

which is an alpha-5 reductase inhibitor to treat BPH:

avodart, flomax, uroxatral, cardura

 

 

avodart

196

 

 

which is NOT a major side effect of cholinesterase inhibitors:

diarrhea, bradycardia, nausea, bullous rash, anorexia

 

 

bullous rash

197

 

 

possible adverse reaction of fluoroquinolones

 

 

adverse effects on the growth of immature cartilage, joints, and surrounding tissue

198

 

 

mechanism of action for 5-alpha reductase inhibitors

 

 

inhibit the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

199

 

 

when should asthma therapy be stepped up in an adolscent patient

 

 

when SABA is used more than 2 days a week

200

 

 

which drug carries a black box warning advising that its use in children under 2 can cause severe fatal respiratory depression

 

 

promethazine (Phenergan)

201

 

 

which drug is approved for all 3 stages of Alzheimers

 

 

Aricept

202

 

which is contraindicated in children under 8:

cephalexin, amoxicillin, tetracycline, penicillin

 

 

tetracyclines

203

 

 

what is conjugated estrogen (Premarin) approved to treat

 

 

hot flashes, all vaginal symptoms of menopause, and to treat and prevent osteoporosis

204

 

 

black box warning associated with the use of atypical antipsychotics in the elderly

 

 

increase the rate of MI, stroke, and vascular mortality

205

 

 

what drug is used to treat infectious conjunctivitis in the pediatric population

 

 

polymyxin B + trimethoprim (Polytrim)

206

 

 

what may occur if a patient is taking a CCB and is given a PDE5

 

 

small additive drop in BP

207

 

 

how should levonorgestrel (Plan B) be prescribed

 

 

one 0.75mg tablet within 72 hours of sex and again in 12 hours

208

 

 

what is the role of cGMP in erectile dysfunction

 

 

activates a specific protein kinase, leading to smooth muscle relaxation

209

 

 

mechanism of action for biphosphonates

 

 

adhere tightly to bone surfaces and inhibit osteoclactic activity, thereby inhibiting both normal and abnormal bone reabsorption

210

 

 

mechanism of action of racemic epinepherine

 

 

stimulates both alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors, resulting in both relaxation of smooth muscles in the bronchial tree as well as a decrease in local airway edema with resultant decrease in the work of breathing

211

which statement is false:

  1. absorption of orally adminitered meds is dramtically reduced in elderly patients
  2. water-soluble drugs have reduced distribution in elderly patients
  3. total body water and ECF decreases with age
  4. percentage of total body fat rises steadily with age, affecting lipid-soluble drugs

 

 

  1. Absorption of orally administered meds is dramatically reduced in elderly patients

212

 

 

what is the least appropriate form of testosterone replacement therapy

 

 

oral tablets

213

 

when is VitaminD contraindicated

parathyroidism, cushings syndrome, hyperthyroidism, skeletal cancer

 

 

parathyroidism

214

 

administration routes of

  1. Boniva
  2. Zometa
  3. Aredia
  4. Actonel

 

 

  1. Oral and IV
  2. IV
  3. IV
  4. oral once a week

215

 

 

how long should acute bacterial prostatitis be treated

 

 

30 days

216

 

 

what medication has a black box warning that it can cause pseudomembranous colitis

 

 

clindamycin

217

 

Which ED is the most selective PDE5:

Cialis, Muse, Viagra, Levitra

 

 

Cialis

218