📝 Respiratory Assessment Flashcards
(206 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is NOT a component of a comprehensive respiratory assessment?
A) Palpation
B) Percussion
C) Olfaction
D) Auscultation
A
C) Olfaction
2
Q
What does nasal flaring indicate during a respiratory assessment?
A) Respiratory distress
B) Nasal congestion
C) Normal breathing
D) Allergic reaction
A
A) Respiratory distress
3
Q
Which position facilitates chest expansion during respiratory distress?
A) Supine position
B) Prone position
C) Fowler’s position
D) Tripod position
A
D) Tripod position
4
Q
What does percussion assess during a respiratory examination?
A) Lung tissue density
B) Blood oxygen levels
C) Heart rate
D) Temperature
A
A) Lung tissue density
5
Q
What does spirometry help diagnose?
A) Cardiovascular diseases
B) Respiratory infections
C) Liver disorders
D) Respiratory conditions like asthma and COPD
A
D) Respiratory conditions like asthma and COPD
6
Q
Which of the following is NOT part of health history questions in a respiratory assessment?
A) Cough duration
B) Family history of diabetes
C) Shortness of breath duration
D) Smoking his
A
B) Family history of diabetes
7
Q
What is the purpose of evaluating accessory muscle use during inspection?
A) To assess cardiac function
B) To identify early signs of airway obstruction
C) To check for nasal flaring
D) To evaluate lung expansion
A
B) To identify early signs of airway obstruction
8
Q
What does a barrel chest indicate?
A) Restricted breathing
B) Hyperinflation of lungs
C) Lung collapse
D) Pneumothorax
A
B) Hyperinflation of lungs
9
Q
Which investigation is used to monitor respiratory status continuously?
A) Spirometry
B) Chest X-ray
C) Oxygen saturation
D) ECG
A
C) Oxygen saturation
10
Q
What is the purpose of a sputum culture test?
A) To evaluate lung expansion
B) To monitor cardiac function
C) To confirm infection and guide antibiotic therapy
D) To assess blood oxygen levels
A
C) To confirm infection and guide antibiotic therapy
11
Q
True or False: Nasal flaring is a common sign of respiratory distress.
A
True
12
Q
True or False: Palpation assesses lung tissue density through producing sounds.
A
False
13
Q
True or False: Chest X-ray is not typically used in respiratory assessment.
A
False
14
Q
True or False: Spirometry is used to diagnose respiratory conditions such as asthma and COPD.
A
True
15
Q
True or False: Sputum culture tests are used to evaluate cardiac function.
A
False
16
Q
____________ is a technique to aid in efficient breathing, commonly seen in COPD.
A
Pursed lip breathing
17
Q
____________ is leaning forward to support the upper body during respiratory distress.
A
Tripod positioning
18
Q
____________ is used to assess underlying tissue density during a respiratory examination.
A
Percussion
19
Q
____________ helps diagnose respiratory conditions like asthma, COPD, cystic fibrosis, or pulmonary fibrosis.
A
Spirometry
20
Q
A ____________ is considered for further evaluation during sputum examination.
A
Culture
21
Q
What are the four components of a comprehensive respiratory assessment?
A
Answer: Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
22
Q
Why is evaluating accessory muscle use important during a respiratory assessment?
A
Answer: It helps identify early signs of airway obstruction.
23
Q
Describe the tripod position and its significance in respiratory assessment.
A
Answer: The tripod position involves leaning forward to support the upper body, facilitating chest expansion during respiratory distress.
24
Q
What does a barrel chest indicate during a respiratory examination?
A
Answer: Barrel chest indicates hyperinflation of the lungs.
25
How does spirometry assist in diagnosing respiratory conditions?
Answer: Spirometry measures lung function parameters to diagnose conditions like asthma and COPD.
26
What are the health history questions typically asked during a respiratory assessment?
Answer: Questions about cough duration, shortness of breath duration, chest pain with respiration, history of respiratory infections, environmental exposures, self-care behaviors, smoking history, exposure to secondhand smoke, and medication history.
27
Explain the purpose of assessing nasal flaring during inspection in a respiratory examination.
Answer: Nasal flaring is indicative of respiratory distress and helps assess the severity of the patient's condition.
28
What investigations are commonly performed during a comprehensive respiratory assessment?
Answer: Investigations may include oxygen saturation monitoring, spirometry, chest X-ray, sputum culture, cardiovascular examination, ECG, and blood tests.
29
Why is percussion used during a respiratory examination?
Answer: Percussion helps assess lung tissue density and the presence of abnormal tissue such as fluid or air in the lungs.
30
What is the significance of evaluating chest expansion during palpation in a respiratory assessment?
Answer: Chest expansion indicates the ability of the lungs to inflate properly and is important in assessing respiratory function.
31
Where is auscultation ideally performed for optimal accuracy?
a) Standing position
b) Lying down
c) Sitting position
d) Kneeling position
c) Sitting position
32
What is the recommended breathing pattern for patients during auscultation?
a) Shallow breathing through the nose
b) Slow and deep breathing through the mouth
c) Rapid breathing through the nose
d) Irregular breathing through the mouth
b) Slow and deep breathing through the mouth
33
Which part of the stethoscope is typically used for respiratory auscultation?
a) Earpieces
b) Tubing
c) Bell
d) Diaphragm
d) Diaphragm
34
What is the starting point for auscultating breath sounds?
a) Base of each lung
b) Middle of the lung
c) Apex of each lung
d) Center of the chest
c) Apex of each lung
35
What type of breath sounds are assessed to establish a baseline?
a) Abnormal sounds
b) Vesicular sounds
c) Bronchial sounds
d) Crackles
b) Vesicular sounds
36
Which of the following may indicate underlying respiratory conditions during auscultation?
a) Normal breath sounds
b) Wheezes
c) Bronchial breath sounds
d) Clear breath sounds
b) Wheezes
37
True or False: Auscultation is a technique used to listen to internal body sounds utilizing a thermometer.
False
38
True or False: When auscultating the chest for breath sounds, it is ideally performed with the patient lying down.
False
39
True or False: Auscultation should be conducted asymmetrically, focusing only on one side of the chest.
False
40
True or False: Abnormal breath sounds during auscultation may indicate underlying respiratory conditions.
True
41
__________ is a crucial medical technique used to listen to internal body sounds utilizing a stethoscope.
Auscultation
42
Auscultation of breath sounds involves locating specific __________ on the chest.
landmarks
43
Utilizing the __________ portion of the stethoscope ensures clear and accurate transmission of breath sounds.
diaphragm
44
Normal breath sounds, such as __________, are assessed to establish a baseline.
vesicular
45
What is auscultation, and how is it performed?
Answer: Auscultation is a medical technique used to listen to internal body sounds utilizing a stethoscope. It is performed by placing the stethoscope on specific areas of the body and listening for sounds such as breath sounds, heart sounds, or bowel sounds.
46
Why is it important to perform auscultation symmetrically?
Answer: Performing auscultation symmetrically ensures that both sides of the body are examined thoroughly, allowing for accurate comparison and detection of abnormalities.
47
What are some examples of normal breath sounds, and why are they assessed?
Answer: Examples of normal breath sounds include vesicular, bronchial, or broncho-vesicular sounds. They are assessed to establish a baseline for the patient's respiratory function.
48
How can abnormal breath sounds during auscultation help in diagnosis?
Answer: Abnormal breath sounds such as crackles, wheezes, or bronchial breath sounds may indicate underlying respiratory conditions, helping in the diagnosis of respiratory disorders.
49
Describe the recommended technique for auscultating breath sounds.
Answer: Auscultation of breath sounds begins at the apex of each lung and involves a zigzag pattern downward between intercostal spaces. It is ideally performed with the patient in a sitting position, and the diaphragm portion of the stethoscope is used for optimal sound transmission.
50
How can auscultation aid in the management of respiratory conditions such as asthma or COPD?
Answer: Auscultation helps in monitoring the progression of respiratory disorders like asthma or COPD by detecting changes in breath sounds and identifying abnormalities such as fluid in the lungs. This aids in adjusting treatment plans and managing the conditions effectively.
51
What are some common abnormalities detected during auscultation, and what do they indicate?
Answer: Common abnormalities detected during auscultation include crackles, wheezes, and bronchial breath sounds. Crackles may indicate fluid in the lungs, wheezes suggest narrowed airways, and bronchial breath sounds may indicate consolidation or compression of lung tissue.
52
Why is it essential to instruct patients to breathe slowly and deeply during auscultation?
Answer: Instructing patients to breathe slowly and deeply during auscultation facilitates the assessment of breath sounds by ensuring adequate air movement through the respiratory system, making it easier to detect abnormalities.
53
How does auscultation contribute to patient care and treatment planning?
Answer: Auscultation contributes to patient care by providing valuable information about the health of the respiratory system, aiding in diagnosis, monitoring treatment effectiveness, and guiding treatment planning for respiratory conditions.
54
Which of the following is a characteristic of bronchial breath sounds?
a) Low-pitched, long inspiration, short expiration
b) High-pitched short inspiration, long expiration
c) Moderate pitch, same inspiration and expiration
d) Normal tracheal breath sounds
b) High-pitched short inspiration, long expiration
55
Where are bronchial breath sounds primarily heard?
a) Over the trachea and larynx
b) Over major bronchi in each lung
c) Over the rest of the lung fields
d) In the lower respiratory system
a) Over the trachea and larynx
56
Which abnormal breath sound is characterized by a high-pitched whistling sound during expiration?
a) Wheezes
b) Rhonchi
c) Rales
d) Stridor
a) Wheezes
57
What do rales (crackles) indicate?
a) Fluid in the lungs
b) Upper airway blockage
c) Excessive mucus production
d) Normal lung function
a) Fluid in the lungs
58
Which area of the respiratory system produces tracheal breath sounds?
a) Alveoli
b) Bronchioles
c) Trachea
d) Lungs
c) Trachea
59
6. True or False: Bronchovesicular breath sounds have the same pitch for inspiration and expiration.
True
60
True or False: Stridor is a normal breath sound heard during inspiration
False
61
True or False: Vesicular breath sounds are primarily heard over major bronchi in each lung
False
62
True or False: Rhonchi are characterized by crackling, bubbling, or rattling noises.
False
63
True or False: Abnormal breath sounds always indicate underlying respiratory conditions.
True
64
11. ________ breath sounds are produced by air moving through the large, relatively rigid trachea.
Tracheal
65
12. Bronchovesicular breath sounds are heard over major ________ in each lung.
bronchi
66
13. Abnormal breath sounds such as rales may indicate fluid in the ________.
lungs
67
14. Stridor is an abnormal breath sound due to upper airway blockage, typically in the ________ or trachea.
larynx
68
15. Vesicular breath sounds are characterized by ________ inspiration and short expiration.
long
69
16. Explain the difference between bronchial, bronchovesicular, and vesicular breath sounds.
**Answer: Bronchial breath sounds are high-pitched with short inspiration and long expiration, heard over the trachea and larynx. Bronchovesicular breath sounds have a moderate pitch with the same duration for inspiration and expiration, heard over major bronchi in each lung. Vesicular breath sounds are low-pitched with long inspiration and short expiration, heard over the rest of the lung fields.**
70
17. How are abnormal breath sounds such as wheezes and rales clinically significant?
**Answer: Abnormal breath sounds like wheezes and rales can indicate underlying respiratory conditions such as asthma, pneumonia, or pulmonary edema. Recognizing these sounds is crucial for early detection, diagnosis, and appropriate intervention.**
71
18. Why is it important for nurses to perform auscultation of breath sounds?
**Answer: Auscultation of breath sounds is essential for nurses to assess the respiratory function of patients. It helps in detecting abnormalities such as wheezes, rales, or stridor, which can indicate various respiratory conditions. Early identification of these abnormalities allows for prompt intervention and management.**
72
19. Describe the characteristics of tracheal breath sounds.
**Answer: Tracheal breath sounds are produced by air moving through the large, relatively rigid trachea. They are typically louder during inspiration than expiration and are considered normal if heard over the trachea.**
73
20. How do clinicians differentiate between normal and abnormal breath sounds during auscultation?
**Answer: Clinicians differentiate between normal and abnormal breath sounds based on their characteristics such as pitch, duration, and location. Normal breath sounds vary in pitch and duration depending on the location within the respiratory system, while abnormal sounds like wheezes, rales, or stridor deviate from the expected patterns and may indicate underlying respiratory issues.**
74
Which of the following is a characteristic of vesicular breath sounds?
a) High-pitched short inspiration, long expiration
b) Moderate pitch, same inspiration and expiration
c) Low-pitched, long inspiration, short expiration
d) Normal tracheal breath sounds
Answer: c) Low-pitched, long inspiration, short expiration
75
Where are bronchovesicular breath sounds primarily heard?
a) Over the trachea and larynx
b) Over major bronchi in each lung
c) Over the rest of the lung fields
d) In the lower respiratory system
Answer: b) Over major bronchi in each lung
76
What do rhonchi indicate?
a) Fluid in the lungs
b) Upper airway blockage
c) Excessive mucus production
d) Normal lung function
Answer: c) Excessive mucus production
77
Which area of the respiratory system primarily produces bronchial breath sounds?
a) Alveoli
b) Bronchioles
c) Trachea
d) Lungs
Answer: c) Trachea
78
What is the primary characteristic of abnormal breath sounds like stridor?
a) Low-pitched, continuous, snoring, or rattling sound
b) High-pitched whistling sound during expiration
c) Crackling, bubbling, or rattling noises
d) Long inspiration and short expiration
Answer: b) High-pitched whistling sound during expiration
79
27. Discuss the clinical significance of stridor in pediatric patients.
Answer: Stridor in pediatric patients can indicate upper airway obstruction, often due to conditions such as croup, epiglottitis, or foreign body aspiration. It requires immediate attention as it can lead to respiratory distress and compromise the airway.
80
How do healthcare providers differentiate between wheezes and rhonchi during auscultation?
Answer: Wheezes are high-pitched musical sounds typically heard during expiration and are associated with conditions like asthma or COPD. Rhonchi, on the other hand, are low-pitched, continuous, snoring, or rattling sounds heard during both inspiration and expiration, often due to excessive mucus production in the airways.
81
Name that breath sound!
Normal - Vesicular breath sounds
82
Name that breath sound!
Crackles - Fine rales
83
Name that breath sound!
Crackles - Course rales
84
Name that breath sound!
Wheeze
85
Name that breath sound!
Rhonchi - Low-pitched wheeze
86
Name that breath sound!
Normal - Bronchial
87
Name that breath sound!
Pleural rubs
88
Name that breath sound!
Normal - Bronchovesicular
89
What are obstructive pulmonary disorders, and how do they affect airflow?
Obstructive pulmonary disorders hinder the flow of air out of the lungs, primarily impacting the exhalation phase of breathing.
90
What is the key feature of obstructive lung diseases?
The lung tissue loses its recoiling capabilities, making it difficult to push air out during exhalation.
91
What is the result of "air trapping" in obstructive pulmonary disorders?
"Air trapping" leads to the lungs appearing like over-inflated balloons.
92
Can you name some examples of obstructive pulmonary disorders?
Examples include asthma, emphysema, and chronic bronchitis.
93
How does asthma differ from chronic bronchitis and emphysema?
Asthma is characterized by airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction, while chronic bronchitis involves inflammation and narrowing of the bronchial tubes with excessive mucus production, and emphysema involves the destruction of lung tissue, particularly the alveoli.
94
What are restrictive pulmonary disorders, and how do they affect airflow?
Restrictive pulmonary disorders impede the flow of air into the lungs, primarily affecting the inhalation phase of breathing.
95
What is the primary issue in restrictive lung diseases?
The primary issue lies within the inhalation phase of the breathing cycle.
96
How does the mechanism of restrictive lung diseases differ from obstructive disorders?
In restrictive lung diseases, lung tissue develops scars, rendering the lung unyielding to incoming air, unlike obstructive disorders where lung tissue loses its recoiling capabilities.
97
What happens to the total lung capacity in restrictive pulmonary disorders?
Total lung capacity diminishes, and the lungs appear as rigid, under-inflated balloons.
98
Can you provide examples of restrictive pulmonary disorders?
Examples include tuberculosis, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), and pneumonitis.
99
What causes tuberculosis, and how does it contribute to restrictive pulmonary disorders?
Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and leads to the formation of scar tissue in the lungs, contributing to restrictive pulmonary disorders.
100
What are the characteristics of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
ARDS is characterized by widespread inflammation in the lungs, resulting in fluid accumulation and impaired gas exchange.
101
How is pneumonitis caused, and what does it result in?
Pneumonitis is caused by inflammation of lung tissue due to various causes such as exposure to irritants or radiation, resulting in restrictive pulmonary disorders.
102
What nursing interventions are recommended for patients with obstructive pulmonary disorders?
Nursing interventions may include monitoring respiratory status, administering bronchodilators, providing education on inhaler technique and smoking cessation, and assessing for exacerbation triggers.
103
How can nurses assist patients with restrictive pulmonary disorders?
Nurses can assist by monitoring oxygen saturation and respiratory effort, optimizing lung expansion and gas exchange through positioning, educating patients on energy conservation techniques, and pulmonary rehabilitation programs.
104
What is the importance of understanding the distinctions between obstructive and restrictive pulmonary disorders in nursing practice?
Understanding these distinctions helps nurses provide tailored care and support to patients, promoting optimal respiratory function and quality of life.
105
Why is monitoring respiratory status crucial for patients with obstructive pulmonary disorders?
Monitoring respiratory status helps in assessing the effectiveness of treatments and identifying exacerbations early.
106
How does smoking cessation benefit patients with obstructive pulmonary disorders?
Smoking cessation reduces airway inflammation and improves overall lung function, thus alleviating symptoms and slowing disease progression.
107
What role does inflammation play in both obstructive and restrictive pulmonary disorders?
Inflammation is a common feature in both types of disorders, contributing to airway narrowing and tissue damage, thereby impairing respiratory function.
108
What education should be provided to patients with restrictive pulmonary disorders regarding energy conservation techniques?
Patients should be educated on pacing activities, using assistive devices to conserve energy, and planning activities during times of the day when they feel most rested and have the most energy.
109
Which phase of the breathing cycle primarily affected by obstructive pulmonary disorders?
a) Inhalation
b) Exhalation
c) Both inhalation and exhalation
d) None of the above
b) Exhalation
110
What is the key feature of obstructive lung diseases?
a) Increased lung compliance
b) Reduced lung elasticity
c) Enhanced airway diameter
d) Improved recoil capabilities
b) Reduced lung elasticity
111
Which of the following is not an example of obstructive pulmonary disorder?
a) Asthma
b) Emphysema
c) Tuberculosis
d) Chronic bronchitis
c) Tuberculosis
112
What is the primary issue in restrictive lung diseases?
a) Inhalation phase
b) Exhalation phase
c) Oxygen diffusion
d) Total lung capacity
a) Inhalation phase
113
Which of the following is an example of a restrictive pulmonary disorder?
a) Asthma
b) Emphysema
c) Tuberculosis
d) Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
d) Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
114
True or False: Restrictive pulmonary disorders primarily affect the exhalation phase of the breathing cycle
False
115
True or False: Asthma is characterized by airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction
True
116
True or False: Chronic bronchitis involves the destruction of lung tissue, particularly the alveoli
False
117
True or False: Tuberculosis is a restrictive pulmonary disorder caused by inflammation of lung tissue
True
118
True or False: Nursing interventions for obstructive pulmonary disorders may include administering bronchodilators as prescribed.
True
119
_______________ involves the destruction of lung tissue, particularly the alveoli, leading to reduced surface area for gas exchange.
Emphysema
120
_______________ is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, leading to the formation of scar tissue in the lungs.
Tuberculosis
121
In restrictive pulmonary disorders, lung tissue develops _______________, rendering the lung unyielding to incoming air.
scars
122
Monitoring oxygen saturation and respiratory effort is important in nursing care for patients with _______________.
restrictive disorders
123
Nurses can assist patients with restrictive pulmonary disorders by optimizing lung expansion and gas exchange through _______________.
positioning
124
What is the definition of tachypnea?
Answer: Tachypnea is a rapid breathing rate over 20 breaths per minute in adults and higher in children.
125
What are the clinical implications of tachypnea?
Answer: Tachypnea may indicate various conditions such as respiratory distress, fever, anxiety, or metabolic acidosis.
126
Define bradypnea.
Answer: Bradypnea refers to an abnormally slow breathing rate.
127
What are the clinical implications of bradypnea?
Answer: Bradypnea can be a sign of respiratory depression, neurological impairment, or metabolic alkalosis.
128
Explain orthopnea.
Answer: Orthopnea is discomfort in breathing while lying flat.
129
What are the clinical implications of orthopnea?
Answer: Orthopnea is common in individuals with heart failure, pulmonary edema, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It often necessitates sleeping in a propped-up position to alleviate symptoms.
130
Define dyspnea.
Answer: Dyspnea is difficulty or labored breathing; shortness of breath.
131
What are the clinical implications of dyspnea?
Answer: Dyspnea is a hallmark symptom of various respiratory and cardiac conditions, including asthma, pneumonia, congestive heart failure, and pulmonary embolism.
132
Describe central cyanosis.
Answer: Central cyanosis is bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in arterial blood.
133
What are the clinical implications of central cyanosis?
Answer: Central cyanosis indicates severe hypoxemia and warrants urgent medical attention.
134
Explain peripheral cyanosis.
Answer: Peripheral cyanosis is bluish discoloration of the extremities (hands, fingertips, or feet) due to reduced peripheral circulation and oxygen saturation.
135
What are the clinical implications of peripheral cyanosis?
Answer: Peripheral cyanosis can be caused by cold exposure, peripheral vascular disease, or decreased cardiac output.
136
Define hypoxia.
Answer: Hypoxia is inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues resulting in cellular oxygen deficiency.
137
What are the clinical implications of hypoxia?
Answer: Hypoxia can lead to tissue dysfunction and organ failure if left untreated. Causes include respiratory disorders, cardiovascular conditions, anemia, and environmental factors.
138
Explain hypoxemia.
Answer: Hypoxemia is low arterial oxygen tension in the blood.
139
What are the clinical implications of hypoxemia?
Answer: Hypoxemia often precedes hypoxia and is assessed through arterial blood gas analysis. Monitoring oxygen saturation (SpO2) using pulse oximetry provides a non-invasive measure of hypoxemia in clinical settings.
140
What is tachypnea?
A) Abnormally slow breathing rate
B) Difficulty in breathing while lying flat
C) Rapid breathing rate exceeding the normal range
D) Bluish discoloration of the skin due to low oxygen levels
Answer: C) Rapid breathing rate exceeding the normal range
141
Which condition is orthopnea commonly associated with?
A) Heart failure
B) Pneumonia
C) Anxiety
D) Hypertension
Answer: A) Heart failure
142
What is dyspnea?
A) Inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues
B) Difficulty or labored breathing
C) Bluish discoloration of the extremities
D) Rapid breathing rate
Answer: B) Difficulty or labored breathing
143
What does central cyanosis indicate?
A) Low arterial oxygen tension
B) Reduced peripheral circulation
C) Severe hypoxemia
D) Increased oxygen saturation
Answer: C) Severe hypoxemia
144
What is the primary method of assessing hypoxemia?
A) Pulse oximetry
B) Arterial blood gas analysis
C) Respiratory rate measurement
D) Blood pressure measurement
Answer: B) Arterial blood gas analysis
145
True or False: Peripheral cyanosis typically affects areas with high blood flow.
False
146
True or False: Dyspnea is a common symptom of both respiratory and cardiac conditions.
True
147
True or False: Orthopnea is characterized by discomfort in breathing while lying flat.
True
148
True or False: Hypoxemia refers to inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues.
False
149
True or False: Central cyanosis is often caused by cold exposure or peripheral vascular disease.
False
150
_______ is rapid breathing rate exceeding the normal range.
Tachypnea
151
_______ is bluish discoloration of the extremities due to reduced peripheral circulation and oxygen saturation.
Peripheral cyanosis
152
_______ is inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues resulting in cellular oxygen deficiency.
Hypoxia
153
_______ is low arterial oxygen tension in the blood.
Hypoxemia
154
_______ is difficulty or labored breathing.
Dyspnea
155
What is oxygen therapy, and why is it essential?
Oxygen therapy involves administering oxygen to individuals with low blood oxygen levels to support vital functions. Oxygen is crucial for cellular respiration and sustaining life.
156
What is the scope of practice for registered nurses/midwives regarding oxygen therapy?
Registered Nurses/Registered Midwives on a ward can typically initiate, control, and cease oxygen therapy without a medical order.
157
Under what circumstances can nursing students manipulate oxygen therapy?
Nursing students may manipulate oxygen therapy under direct supervision, including commencing, adjusting, and discontinuing therapy.
158
What are the primary indications for oxygen therapy?
Oxygen therapy is indicated for correcting low oxygen saturation levels (SpO2), maintaining SpO2 levels above 94%, and for conditions like carbon monoxide poisoning and palliative care.
159
What is the recommended SpO2 level to maintain during oxygen therapy?
Typically, aim for SpO2 levels above 94%, although policies may vary. Exceptions exist for patients with altered SpO2 ranges, such as COPD patients.
160
What delivery devices are commonly used for oxygen therapy?
Common delivery devices include nasal prongs, simple face masks, nebulizers, and non-rebreather masks.
161
What are the flow rate considerations for nasal prongs?
Nasal prongs can deliver oxygen at flow rates of up to 4LPM.
162
What are the primary indications for using a simple face mask?
Simple face masks are suitable for mild to moderate hypoxemia.
163
What are the potential risks associated with using a simple face mask?
Risks include CO2 rebreathing and pressure areas on the bridge of the nose and behind the ears.
164
What is the purpose of nebulizers in oxygen therapy?
Nebulizers are used to deliver aerosolized medications directly to the lungs, such as salbutamol and ipratropium.
165
How is the flow rate determined for nebulizers?
The flow rate is variable, with the aim of maintaining SpO2 levels while delivering medication effectively.
166
What is the recommended flow rate for a non-rebreather mask?
Non-rebreather masks typically require flow rates of more than 10LPM.
167
What are the risks associated with using a non-rebreather mask?
Risks include aspiration risk, pressure injuries, and the need for continuous monitoring.
168
How should oxygen therapy be managed regarding hydration?
Adequate hydration should be ensured where permitted, as oxygen therapy can dry out oral and nasal mucosa.
169
What should be assessed regularly regarding pressure areas in patients receiving oxygen therapy?
Pressure areas, especially around the nose, ears, and face, should be regularly assessed and managed.
170
Is oxygen therapy typically a permanent or temporary measure?
Oxygen therapy is typically a temporary measure aimed at correcting hypoxemia while addressing the underlying condition.
171
How is oxygen titrated during therapy?
Oxygen is titrated based on SpO2 levels, starting with an appropriate flow rate and adjusting as needed based on the patient's response.
172
How is oxygen weaning typically performed?
Oxygen weaning is done gradually, usually once per shift, after addressing the underlying issue. Patient response is closely monitored, and adjustments are made as necessary.
173
What is the primary goal of oxygen therapy administration?
The primary goal is to correct hypoxemia effectively while ensuring patient safety and comfort.
174
Why is regular assessment, monitoring, and communication essential during oxygen therapy?
Regular assessment, monitoring, and communication with the healthcare team are crucial for identifying any changes in the patient's condition, ensuring the effectiveness of therapy, and promoting patient safety.
175
What is the maximum flow rate for nasal prongs in oxygen therapy?
a) 6-10LPM
b) Up to 4LPM
c) >10LPM
d) Variable
b) Up to 4LPM
176
What is the acceptable flow rate for simple face masks in oxygen therapy?
a) 6-10LPM
b) Up to 4LPM
c) >10LPM
d) Variable
a) 6-10LPM
177
What is the acceptable flow rate for nebulisers in oxygen therapy?
a) 6-10LPM
b) Up to 4LPM
c) >10LPM
d) Variable
d) Variable
178
What is the acceptable flow rate for non-rebreathers in oxygen therapy?
a) 6-10LPM
b) Up to 4LPM
c) >10LPM
d) Variable
c) >10LPM
179
Which delivery device is suitable for mild to moderate hypoxemia?
a) Nebulizer
b) Non-rebreather mask
c) Simple face mask
d) Nasal prongs
c) Simple face mask
180
What is the primary purpose of nebulizers in oxygen therapy?
a) Administering humidified oxygen
b) Delivering aerosolized medications to the lungs
c) Assisting in CO2 removal
d) Maintaining SpO2 levels
b) Delivering aerosolized medications to the lungs
181
True or False: Registered Nurses/Midwives require a medical order to initiate oxygen therapy.
False
182
True or False: Oxygen therapy is indicated for correcting hyperoxemia
False
183
True or False: Nasal prongs are typically used for severe hypoxemia
False
184
True or False: Oxygen weaning is performed abruptly without monitoring patient response
False
185
True or False: Simple face masks are suitable for use during meals
False
186
Oxygen therapy aims to correct low ________________ levels.
oxygen saturation (SpO2)
187
Nebulizers deliver aerosolized ________________ directly to the lungs.
medications
188
Non-Rebreather Masks typically require flow rates of more than ________________.
10LPM
189
Regular assessment and management of pressure areas are essential, especially around the nose, ears, and ________________.
face
190
Oxygen therapy is typically a temporary measure aimed at correcting hypoxemia while addressing the underlying ________________.
condition
191
Why do Non-Rebreather Masks typically require flow rates of more than 10lpm?
Non-Rebreather Masks typically require flow rates of more than 10LPM because at higher flow rates, the oxygen reservoir bag remains inflated during the entire respiratory cycle, ensuring a continuous supply of oxygen to the patient. This prevents the rebreathing of exhaled carbon dioxide and helps maintain a high concentration of oxygen in the mask, especially crucial for patients with moderate to severe hypoxemia or in emergency situations.
192
What is the primary goal of chest physiotherapy?
Answer: The primary goal of chest physiotherapy is to maintain adequate oxygenation by enhancing ventilation and reducing the risk of lung infections.
193
How does mucus accumulation in the airways affect respiratory function?
Answer: Mucus accumulation in the airways reduces their diameter, increases airway resistance, and fosters the growth of microorganisms, thereby impairing respiratory function.
194
Name some conditions in which chest physiotherapy is commonly used.
Answer: Chest physiotherapy is commonly used in conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and post-surgery to enhance respiratory function.
195
What are the benefits of chest physiotherapy in terms of mucus clearance?
Answer: Chest physiotherapy promotes better airflow and increases the efficiency of oxygen exchange in the lungs by helping to clear the airways of mucus.
196
Describe the huff coughing technique.
Answer: The huff coughing technique involves a series of coughs performed while saying the word "huff." It prevents the glottis from closing during the cough, allowing for easier removal of mucus.
197
What is airway suctioning, and why is it performed?
Answer: Airway suctioning is a critical procedure aimed at removing excess secretions or foreign materials from the airway to ensure unobstructed breathing. It is performed to facilitate ventilation, aid in diagnostics, and prevent respiratory infections.
198
What are the two primary types of airway suctioning?
Answer: The two primary types of airway suctioning are oropharyngeal suctioning, which is performed through the mouth, and nasopharyngeal suctioning, which is performed through the nose.
199
What are the main rationales behind airway suctioning?
Answer: The main rationales include removal of airway obstruction, facilitation of ventilation, diagnostic purposes, and prevention of infection.
200
Describe the procedure for airway suctioning.
Answer: The procedure typically involves using a catheter or suctioning device inserted through the nose or mouth and advanced into the trachea or bronchi to remove secretions.
201
When is sterile technique recommended during airway suctioning?
Answer: While suctioning of the upper airways may not always require sterile technique, it is recommended to maintain sterile practices to prevent infections.
202
What are some indications for airway suctioning?
Answer: Indications include inability to expectorate secretions effectively, predisposition to infections due to accumulated secretions, impact on gas exchange, and monitoring for complications.
203
What device is commonly used for oropharyngeal air suctioning?
Answer: The Yankauer suctioning device is commonly used for oropharyngeal air suctioning.
204
What are some potential risks associated with airway suctioning?
Answer: Risks include hypoxia, trauma to the airway, and arrhythmias.
205
How does airway suctioning aid in preventing respiratory infections?
Answer: By removing accumulated secretions in the airway, suctioning helps prevent respiratory tract infections.
206
What are some common signs indicating the need for airway suctioning?
Answer: Common signs include audible secretions, difficulty breathing, and increased respiratory effort.
