Review Test 1 Flashcards

(274 cards)

1
Q

Define microbiology.

A

a specialized area of biology that deals with living things too small to be seen without magnification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The study of bacteria:

A

bacteriology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The study of viruses:

A

virology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The study of fungi:

A

mycology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The study of algae:

A

phycology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The study of protozoa:

A

protozoology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The study of helmiths:

A

parasitology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is microbiology used in the health service industry?

A

physicians and nurses diagnose and treat people with infectious disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is immunology?

A

study the immune chemicals and cells that are produced in response to infection by microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What us public health/epidemiology?

A

monitor and control the spread of infectious diseases in the community. WHO CDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is food/dairy microbiology?

A

practical roles of microbes in food or dairy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is biotechnical and industrial microbiology?

A

use microbes metabolism to produce a product such as alcohols or acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is genetic engineering/recombinant DNA?

A

Deliberately alter genetic makeup of a microbe to produce a human hormone or drug vaccine. (human insulin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is bioremediation?

A

the use of microbes to help clean up toxic products in the environment. (euglena mutabilis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What metric unit is used to measure bacteria?

A

micrometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What metric unit is used to measure viruses?

A

nanometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is spontaneous generation?

A

living things will suddenly appear from nonliving matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is biogenesis?

A

living things arise from other living things of the same kind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who disproved spontaneous generation?

A

Louis Pateur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What were Louis Pasteur’s contributions to microbiology?

A

disproved spontaneous generation
invented pasteurization
created the germ theory of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is germ theory of disease?

A

a specific microorganism will cause a specific disease. the microrganism is called the caustic agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who was Anthony Leeuwenhoek?

A
Father of bacteriology and protozoology
invented microscope 300X
did tooth scrapings
observed pond water
saw animacules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What were Robert Koch’s contributions to microbiology?

A

Verified the germ theory of disease by finding the caustive agent for anthrax
Purposed Koch’s postulates
Developed lab techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the caustive agent for anthrax?

A

Bacillus anthracis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are Koch's postulates?
The microbe must be present in every case of the disease but absent from healthy organisms. The suspected microbe must be isolated and grown in a pure culture in the lab. The same disease must result when isolated microbe is innoculated into a healthy host. The same microbe must be isolated again from the diseased host.
26
What is taxonomy?
a formal system for organizing, classifying, and naming living things.
27
What is the order of the taxa?
``` Domain Kingdom Phylum Class Order Genus Species ```
28
What contribution did Aristotle make to our taxonomy?
Animalia | Plantae
29
What contribution to our taxa did Carolus Linnaeus make?
genus | species
30
What contribution to taxonomy did Ernest Haeckle make?
animalia plantae protista
31
What contribution to taxonomy did Robert Whittaker make?
``` 5 Kingdoms: monera fungi protista animalia plantae ```
32
What contribution to taxonomy did Carl Woese and George Fox make?
``` Three domains: Bacteria Archaea Eukarya studied rRNA ```
33
What is the binomial system?
genus | species
34
Which domains contain prokaryotic organisms?
domain bacteria | domain archaea
35
Which domain has eukaryotic cells?
domain eukarya
36
What are the five I's?
``` innoculation incubation isolation inspection information gathering identification ```
37
What is innoculation?
introduce bacteria into a sterile broth or solid media with the use of a loop or needle
38
What is incubation?
the placement of an innoculated specimen in a specific temperature to allow growth
39
What is isolation?
isolate a single colony on a petri plate to obtain a pure culture
40
What is inspection?
observe the cultures for macroscopic growth of the bacteria, observe microscopically for results of stains
41
What is information gathering?
testing of cultures for biochemical and enzyme characteristics
42
What is identification?
Use Bergey's manual to identify the genus and species of the microorganism.
43
What is Bergey's manual used for?
provides keys and charts to aid in identifying a microorganism
44
What is a pure culture?
one microbe growing in a sample
45
What is a mixed culture?
more than one microbe growing in a sample
46
What is a colony?
a cluster of cells growing in a culture medium
47
What are the three ways to classify culture media?
physical chemical functional
48
What are the physical forms of culture media?
liquid semisolid solid
49
What are the functional types of culture media?
general purpose enriched media selective media differential media
50
What is general purpose media?
designed to grow a broad spectrum of microbes
51
What is enriched media?
designed to support the growth of fastidious media (picky)
52
What is selective media?
designed to allow growth of one type of bacteria while inhibiting others.
53
What is differential media?
designed to grow several types of organisms but causes their appearance to change.
54
What is agar?
a complex polysaccharide isolated from the red algaea gelidium
55
Who's lab was agar first introduced into and who suggested agar as a possible substitute?
Robert Koch's lab | Fanny and Walter Hesse
56
What is the charge of a cell wall?
negative
57
Negative stains:
use an acidic stain the stain is repelled from the cell wall microbe is clear and background is colored
58
What is an example of a negative stain?
india ink
59
Positive stains:
use a basic dye | microbe is colored, background is clear
60
Two types of positive stains:
simple | differential
61
simple stains:
use a single dye | distinguishes shape arrangement and size
62
differential stains:
use two different colored dyes | distingushes cell types and cell parts
63
What is an example of a simple stain?
methelyne blue | crystal violet
64
What are some examples of differential stains?
gram acid fast endospore stains
65
what is a primary stain?
the first dye you use
66
what is a counter stain?
the second dye you use
67
Who is Hans Christian Gram?
he developed the Gram stain
68
Gram positive cells will stain:
purple
69
Gram negative cells will stain:
pink
70
prokaryotic cells:
have no nucleus one one piece of chromosomal DNA no organelles includes all bacteria
71
eukaryotic cells
have a nucleus many pieces of chromosomal DNA organelles
72
What are the three bacterial shapes?
coccus bacillus spiral or curved
73
what is the atypical shape?
pleomorphic rods
74
coccus are shaped:
round or oval
75
bacillus are shaped:
rod shaped
76
vibrio are shaped:
like a comma
77
spirillum are shaped:
rigid spiral or helix shape cells do not bend amphitricious
78
spirochette are shaped:
flexible spring shape | endoflagella
79
what is the shape of pleomorphic rods?
cells vary in size and shape
80
single coccus:
one round cell
81
diplococcus:
two round cells
82
streptococcus:
chain of round cells
83
staphylococcus:
irregular cluster of round cells
84
tetrad:
packet of four round cells
85
sarcina:
cube of eight or sixteen round cells
86
single bacillus:
one oblong cell
87
diplobacillus:
two oblong cells
88
streptobacillus:
chain of oblong cells
89
palsade:
match sticks or picket fence of oblong cells
90
what is motile?
bacteria will flip, rotate, or go straight | "run and tumble"
91
What is nonmotile bacteria?
will only exhibit brownian movement (vibrate)
92
what protein is found in flagella?
flagellin
93
atricous:
no flagella
94
monotricious
one flagella
95
lophotricious
a tuft of flagella
96
amphitricious
flagella at both ends
97
petricious
flagella placed all over the cell
98
in a straight run which direction does the flagella spin?
flagella spins counterclockwise
99
in a tumble, which way does the flagella spin?
clockwise
100
what is periplasmic flagella?
2 or more flagella that lie in the periplasmic space between the cell wall and outer membrane
101
What is the movement of periplasmic flagella?
corkscrew motion
102
what are fimbriae?
many short hairs used for attachment to the environment
103
What are pili?
A single, long, hollow appendage used for attachment to another bacteria during conjugation
104
what is a postive chemotaxi?
bacteria swims towards attactants like food molecules. Causes fewer tumbles
105
what is a negative chemotaxis?
bacteria swims away from repellants like poisons | causes more tumbles
106
What is the composition of the cell envelope?
cell wall | cell membrane
107
What is the function of the glycocalyx?
to allow bacterial cell to adhere to the environment
108
Do all cells have a glycocalyx?
no
109
What is the slime layer of the glycocalyx?
a loose structure that easily washes off
110
What is the capsule layer of the glycocalyx?
firmer structure that is bonded to the cell
111
what is the function of the cell wall?
determines shape and prevents lysis due to changing osmotic pressures
112
All bacteria have a cell wall except:
mycoplasma
113
What is the major molecule in the cell wall?
peptidoglycan
114
What is the structure of the cell wall in gram positive bacteria?
thick peptidoglycan layer teichoic acid no outer membrane
115
What is the structure of the cell wall in gram negative bacteria
thin peptidoglycan layer no teichoic acid has an outer membrane external to the cell wall
116
What composes the cell membrane?
phospholipid bilayer embedded with proteins
117
what is the function of the cell membrane?
decides what goes in and comes out of the cell. serves as DNA anchor during bionary fusion contains enzymes for cell wall synthesis forms mesosomes anchors bacterial flagella
118
what are mesosomes?
finger-like pockets in the cytoplasm that increase surface area
119
Do all bacterial cells have a cell membrane?
yes
120
what is cytoplasm?
dense, gelatinous solution of sugars, amino acids and salts
121
where do all chemical reactions occur?
cytoplasm
122
what is a chromosome?
single, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule that contains all of the genetic information required by the cell
123
what is a plasmid?
free small circular double stranded DNA very important to bacterial resistance used in genetic engineering
124
how do prokaryotic ribosomes differ from eukaryotic?
prokaryotic are smaller
125
what is the size of prokaryotic ribosomes?
70S =50S +30S
126
what is the size of a eukaryotic ribosome?
80S= 60S + 40S
127
what is poly B hydroxybutyrate
carbohydrate store
128
what is polysaccharide granules
starch or glycogen store
129
what is metachromatic granules?
phosphate stores
130
what is magnetosome?
iron stores
131
what are gas vesicles?
various gases for bouyancy
132
What are inclusions and granules?
intracellular storage bodies. the cell can use them when the environmental sources are depleted
133
What are endospores?
inert resting cells produced by some G+ genera
134
what species produces endospores?
bacillus and clostridium
135
what environment would cause sporulation?
extrreme environments where nutrients are scarce
136
what environment would cause germination
one where nutrients are abundant
137
What are the six factors that effect microbes existence whether in the labratory or in their habitat:
``` nutrients osmotic pressure temperature pH gas other organisms or microbes ```
138
what is nutrition?
a process by which nutrients are aquired from the environment and used in cellular activites such as metabolism and growth
139
what is a macronutrient?
they are required in large quantities and play principal roles in cell structure and metabolism
140
what is a micronutrient?
they are required in smaller amounts and are needed for enzyme function and maintenence of protein structure
141
what are some examples of a macronutrient?
``` carbon hydrogen oxygen nitrogen phosphorus sulfer CHNOPS ```
142
what are some examples of micronutrients?
``` calcium sodium potassium zinc copper nickel ```
143
photoautotroph:
carbon source: CO2 | energy source: sunlight
144
Examples of photoautotroph:
cyanobacteria sulfer bacteria algae plants
145
chemoautotroph
carbon source: C02 | energy source: inorganic
146
examples of chemoautotroph
methanogens
147
photoheterotroph:
carbon source: organic | energy source: sunlight
148
examples of photoheterotroph:
green and purple photosynthetic bacteria
149
chemoheterotroph:
carbon source: organic | energy source: organic
150
examples of chemoheterotroph:
fungi protozoa many bacteria animals
151
what are the two types of chemoheterotroph?
saprobes | symbiotic
152
what are saprobes:
free-living microbes that get organic recycled material from dead organisms
153
what are symbiotic chemoheterotrophs:
obtian organic material from living organisms
154
diffusion:
the net movement of solute molecules from their area of higher concentration to lower concentration
155
osmosis:
the net movement of water molecules from their area of higher concentration to lower concentration
156
facilitated difusion:
the movement of larger molecules from an area of higher oncentration to lower concentration with the use of a transport protein
157
isotonic:
the environment is equal in concentration to the cell's internal environment. No net movement of water into or out of the cell
158
hypotonic:
the solute concentration of the external environment is lower than the cell's internal environment; net movement of water into the cell
159
hypertonic
the environment has a higher solute concentration that the cytoplasm; net movement of water out of the cell
160
endocytosis:
things move inside the cell
161
exocytosis:
things move out of the cell | 2 types: phagocytosis and pinocytosis
162
pinocytosis
cell drinking
163
phagocytosis
cell eating
164
How have organisms adapted to living in hypotonic environments?
amobeas and paramecium have contractile vacuoles that constantly fill with water and expel it to the exterior of the cell
165
How have organisms adapted to living in hypertonic environments?
they increase the solute concentration by storing salt
166
What kind of environment do most bacteria live in?
hypotonic
167
What would happen to a bacterial cell living in a hypertonic environment?
lysis
168
What is optimum growth temperature?
promotes the fastest rate of growth and environment
169
halophiles:
live in high salt environments
170
psychrophiles
live in -15C to 20C
171
mesophiles
live in 10C to 50C
172
thermophiles
live in 45C to 80C
173
hyperthermophiles
live in 67C to 105C up to 250C
174
neutrophiles
pH 6-8
175
acidophiles
pH 0-2
176
alkalinophiles
pH 8-11
177
mutualistic:
both members benefit; normal flora
178
commensalism:
one member benefits, the other is not harmed; nomal flora
179
parasitic:
one member benefits, the host is harmed; pathogens
180
synergism:
members cooperate and share nutrients
181
antagonism:
some members are inhibited or destroyed by others
182
what are symbiotic relationships:
mutualistic commensalism parasitic
183
what are nonsymbiotic relationships?
synergism | antagonism
184
what is generation time?
period of time for one cell to become two cells
185
what are the four phases of the bacterial growth curve?
lag phase exponential phase stationary phase death phase
186
lag phase
no rise in number of cells
187
exponential phase
cells divide at maximum rate
188
stationary phase
growth equals death
189
death phase
cell death is greater than cell growth
190
Bacteria reproduce only byasexual reproduction called
bionary fission
191
what is bionary fission?
a. early phase of cycle b. parent cell enlarges, cell wall notch develops that becomes septum, chromosome attaches to the cell membrane and replicates c. septum grows inward and chromosomes are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell. cell enlarges d. septum synthesized completely through cell center e. two seperate daughter cells
192
aerobe:
must have oxygen for growth
193
microaerophile
requires less oxygen that is found in air
194
facilitative anaerobe
grows with or without oxygen
195
strict anaerobe
does not use oxygen for growth; dies in presence of oxygen
196
Is Staphylococcus auerus gram positive or negative?
gram positive
197
what is the arrangement of staphylococcus aureus
clusters
198
What toxins are found in staphlyococcus aeurus?
entertoxins exfoliative toxin toxic shock toxin
199
what is the transmission of staphylococcus aureus?
it can invade through skin wounds, follicles, skin glands
200
what diseases come from staphylococcus aureus?
staphylococcal food poisoning staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome toxic shock syndrome
201
what vaccines are used for staphylococcus aureus?
staphvax
202
How do you treat staphylococccus?
susceptibility test
203
what does entertoxin damage?
intestinal lining (food poisoning)
204
what doese exfoliative toxin damage?
seperates the epidermal layer from the dermis (SSSS)
205
what does toxic shock toxin damage?
several organs
206
what is folliculitis?
a mild infection of hair follicles or glands (pimples) (staph)
207
what is a boil or furnacle?
infection of a single follicle progresses into a large, red, tender abscess or pustule (staph)
208
what is a carbuncle?
cluster of furnucles usually found on the back of the neck (staph)
209
what is impetigo?
infection of the skin with bubble like epidermal swellings. most common in newborns (staph)
210
what is a wound?
any potential cut, scrape or bug bite
211
what is staphylococcal food poisoning?
food intoxication | aquired by contaminated food
212
what is staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?
a disease aquired in a newborn by infection of umbilical stump or eyes.
213
When was toxic shock syndrome first identified?
1978 in women using tampons
214
what are some special characteristics of streptococcus?
``` facultative anaerobes do not form catalase requires enriched media small non-pigmented colonies sensitive to drying, heat and disinfectants ```
215
is streptococcus gram positive or negative?
gram positive
216
What is the arrangement of streptococcus?
in pairs or chains of varying length
217
What is group A streptococcus?
streptococcus pyogenes
218
What is the transmissson of streptococcus pyrogenes?
contact, droplets food or fomites
219
What are some localized diseases caused by streptolococcal pyrogenes?
pyoderma erysipelas necrotizing fasciitis streptococcal pharyngitis
220
What is pyoderma?
streptococcal impetigo | highly contagious rash aquired by contact with blisters or crusts (contaminated fingers)
221
What is erysipelas?
highly contagious rash that enters through a break in the skin
222
what is necrotizing fasciitis?
flash eating disease aquired by a cut, scrape or insect bite. Effects connective tissue of the dermis
223
what is streptococcal pharyngytis?
strep throat | aquired by droplets
224
what are some systemic diseases caused by streptolococcal pyrogenes?
scarlet fever pneumonia toxic shock syndrome
225
what is scarlet fever?
occurs after strep throat due to pyrogenic toxin or erythrogenic toxin. bright red rash that lasts ten days
226
what is pneumonia?
caused by strep usually a secondary infection to influenza or other respiratory disease (strep)
227
what is toxic shock syndrome (strep)?
more severe than S. aureus TSS
228
what are some long term complications of streptococcus pyrogenes?
rheumatic fever | acute glomerulonephritis
229
what is rheumatic fever?
inflammatory condition of joints, heart and subcutaneous tissues. due to cross reacting antibodies that attack connective tissue (follows strep throat) (strep)
230
what is acute glomerulonephritis?
disease of kidney and tubular epithelia | due to immune complex deposittion in the kidney
231
what is treatment for streptococcus pyrogenes?
penecillin V | vaccine in the works
232
what is streptococcus pneumoniae?
major virulence factor: capsule most people carry it as normal flora affects people living in close quarters aquired by droplets or endogenous
233
what is pneumonia?
occurs when cells are aspirated into the lungs of susceptible individuals pneumococci multiply and induce an overwhelming inflammatory response s. pneumoniae s. pyrogenes
234
what is otitis media?
middle ear infections in children s. pneumonia
235
what is bacterial meningitis?
bacteria progress via bloodstream via CSF. Inflames the meninges, excess CSF creates pressure on the brain and spinal cord. permanent damage or death may occur s. pneumoniae
236
what is the treatment for streptococcus pneumoniae?
penicillin G or V
237
what vaccines are used for streptococcus pneumoniae?
pneumovax | prevnar
238
What group is streptococcus pneumoniae?
group A
239
What group is streptococcus agalactiae?
group B
240
what is streptococcus agalactiae?
regulary resides in vagina, pharynx and large intestine
241
How are pregnant women treated for streptococcus agalactiae?
screened during 3rd trimester; treated with IV antibiotics
242
How is steptococcus agalactiae treated?
penicillin
243
What bacteria belongs in the viridians group?
streptococcus mutans | streptococcus salivarus
244
What are streptococcus mutans and streptococcus salivarus?
bacteria that affects the gums and teeth.
245
How do you treat streptococcus mutans and streptococcus salivarus?
persons with preexisting heart conditions should receive antibiotics before dental surgeries
246
what diseases are caused by streptococcus salivarus and streptococcus mutans?
dental caries | endocarditis
247
What is enterococcus faecalis?
normal colonist of the large intestine; causes nosocomial infections
248
what is the treatment of enterococcus?
combo of drugs: VRE vancomycin resistant enterococcus
249
What are some characteristics of Family neisseriaceae?
gram negative bean shaped diplococci resides in mucous membrane
250
what are the two pathogens in family neisseriaceae?
neisseria gonorrhoeae | neisseria meningitidis
251
what are some characteristics of genus neisseria?
gram negative bean shaped diplococci capsules on pathogens aerobic or microaerobic produce catalase and cytochrome oxidase
252
neisseria gonorrheae causes
genital gonorrhea in males genitourinary gonorrhea in female extragenital gonococcal eye infections in newborn
253
what are some characteristics of genital gonorrhea in males?
painful urination scarring and infertility possible 10% are asymptomatic
254
what are some characteristics of genitourinary gonorrhea in women?
painful urination, discharge 50% of women are asymptomatic can continue to pelvic inflammatory disease
255
what are some characteristics of extragenital gonorrhea?
different sexual practices can cause infections outside of the reproductive system (throat/anus)
256
what is gynococcal eye infections of the newborn?
born to infected mother can cause blindness treated with silver nitrate or antibiotics
257
how do you treat neisseriae gonorrhea?
penicillin | tetracycline
258
Neisseria meningitidis causes
meningitis
259
How is meningitis aquired?
droplets; usually people living in close quarters
260
How does menngitis begin?
bacteria enters the bloodstream, crosses the blood-brain barrier, permeates the meninges and grows in the CSF
261
What is meningcoccemia?
serious complecation that occurs when endotoxin causes hemorrhage and shock. Can be fatal
262
What is the treatment for meningococcemia?
penicillin
263
what are the two most common causes for meningitis?
steptococcus pneumoniae | nesseria meningitidis
264
Louis jablot:
believed even microbes have parents
265
Francesco Redi
spontaneous generation (meat in a jar)
266
VBNC
viable but nonculturable
267
biofilms
microbes cling together in complex masses
268
What binds biofilms?
glycocalyx
269
Biofilms are sometimes
impervious to disinfectants and antibiotics
270
Culture Club/Boy George
I'll tumble for ya | "run and tumble"
271
Queen and David Bowie
"Under pressure" | Osmotic Pressure
272
Snow Patrol
Chasing Cars | psychrophiles
273
PPNG:
pennicillinase producing neisseriae gonorrheae
274
TRNG
tetracycline producing neisseria gonorrhea