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(RKA) Operational Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

Name the (7) ways to disconnect the Auto-Pilot using only knobs, buttons, or switches.

A

Auto-Pilot button on AFCS
AP/Trim disconnect on yoke (LRB)
Stabilizer trim switch on yoke
Secondary trim switch (CTR Console)
TO/GA button on throttle
Auto-Pilot Circuit Breaker
Pitch/Roll Disconnect handle

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2
Q

Minimum time for the INTERIOR switch to be in the ON position?

A

Leave the INTERIOR switch ON a minimum of (3) minutes to allow the Clarity System to complete its power-up sequence.

Turning the INTERIOR switch off in less than three minutes will cause many problems within the Clarity system.

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3
Q

What do you have to do to check the NWS Accumulator if you previously purged it?

A

Set the parking brake in order to fill the accumulator.

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4
Q

What are the G Load Factor limits on the Latitude?
(AFM 2-310-3)

A

Negative 1G to Positive 2.75G’s
Max Zero G…20 seconds

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5
Q

Can we side slip the Latitude?
(AFM 2-210-1)

A

To preclude low oil pressure, intentional uncoordinated flight of greater than one slip/skid indicator bar width for longer than 20 seconds is prohibited.

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6
Q

What is the glide ratio for the Latitude?
(Online Search)

A

2.25 miles per 1000ft of altitude loss.
12:1 to 14:1 Glide Ratio

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7
Q

What are the indicators of an approaching stall?

A

Auto-Throttle low speed protection
Stick Shaker
PLI
AOA
Airspeed Tape on PFD’s

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8
Q

AOA breakdown

A

1.0: Deep Stall
(Stall begins at red line on AOA)
0.6: Vref
0.2 - 0.6: Safe flight region

0.2= 20% of available lift is being produced and 1.0= 100% of available lift is being produced.

Yellow and Red sections of speed tape correlate to the AOA indicator.

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9
Q

What winds do I use in APG for Runway Analysis?
(PDCS-5a pg.15)

A

Use calm winds for performance planning if there is a head wind. Use peak gust for cross or tailwind performance.

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10
Q

How far out does the EOP corridor stretch?
(Need reference) Referenced by Tech Ops in the Jan 2025 Latitude FPD Monthly Update.

A

30 nm track distance

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11
Q

What is the minimum switchology to have all the exterior lights on?

A

Taxi
Pulse
Anti-collision
Pax Safety

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12
Q

When does the Horizontal Stabilizer Auto trim?

A

When the flaps are moved from 2 to FULL, and from FULL to 2.

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13
Q

At Cruise, the altimeters must be within how many feet of each other?

A

200 feet

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14
Q

When using the “Fly Runway Heading” EOP, do we fly runway heading or track?
(PDCS-2 pg. 5; AOM 9.2.2.6)

A

During all-engines operating, do NOT fly track. Fly ATC assigned heading and accept the wind drift.

During engine-out procedures, use track to avoid being blown out of the EOP Corridor.

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15
Q

What do I have available when I connect the LEFT Battery?

A

NWS Bleed Button
Door lift motor
Baggage compartment light
Hell-hole light

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16
Q

What do I have available when I connect the RIGHT Battery?

A

Entry lights
Lav service lights and re-fill

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17
Q

What does 0.6 AOA Represent?

A

Vref

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18
Q

What does the hollow green circle on the speed tape represent?

A

Minimum Approach Speed
(Vapp)

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19
Q

At what speed does the Mach Trim activate?

A

Mach 0.77

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20
Q

How many bottles are in the nose bay?

A

Four:
[if you count the NWS accumulator as a bottle]

L-E-O-N

Landing gear blow down
EMER Brake pneumatic back up
Oxygen bottle
Nose wheel steering accumulator

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21
Q

Which bottle should have the needle in the red to indicate good?

A

The green bottle, i.e. the Oxygen bottle.

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22
Q

What is the brand name for the windshield coating (rain-X)?

A

Surface Shield

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23
Q

When to abort an engine start?

A

No oil pressure within 20 seconds
No N1 by 40% N2
No stabilized ground idle (57% N1) by 90 seconds.

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24
Q

What are the lower than standard IFR take off Minimums for Part 91/91K?

A

Day:
- W/ RCLM: RVR 600 or 1/8 sm
- W/O RCLM: Visibility 1 sm

Night:
- W/ RCLM & MIRL/HIRL : RVR 600 or 1/8 sm
- W/O RCLM or MIRL/HIRL: Visibility 1 sm

25
What are the lower than standard IFR take off Minimums for Part 135?
As published or Part 135 Lower than standard Takeoff Minima (RVR) never lower than 500/500/500.
26
What are the RVR reporting requirements?
- If an RVR is reporting, it is controlling. - Below 1600 RVR at least two operative RVR are required. - All RVR reports are controlling except when (4) are available in which case the far-end is only advisory.
27
What are the VFR departure takeoff minimums?
Weather: 3000' ceiling and 3 mi vis Routing: Remain within 50 nm until receiving a clearance and then proceed as cleared.
28
When do I need a destination alternate for Part 91K?
One of the following items apply: 1) No IAP 2) No approved weather source 3) Forecast Freezing precip (or > intensity) - FRZA FZDZ FZFG 4) Destination is in Canada 5) Forecast is less than 2000' & 3 sm visibility
29
When do I need a destination alternate for Part 135?
One of the following items apply: 1) No IAP 2) No approved weather source 3) Forecast Freezing precip (or > intensity) - FRZA FZDZ FZFG 4) Destination is in Canada 5) Has a published CIRCLING approach and one of the following: - Ceiling is < the lowest circling HAA +1500' OR - Visibility is < 3sm or the lowest applicable minima for the approach to be used + 2sm, whichever is greater. 6) Has only STRAIGHT-IN approach and one of the following: - Ceiling is lower than 2000' or lowest published HAT + 1500', whichever is greater. OR Visibility is less than 3sm or lowest applicable minima for approach to be used + 2sm, whichever is greater.
30
Alternate airport requirements Part 91?
Use published alternate minima.
31
Alternate airport requirements Part 91k/135?
[1 NAVAID / 2 NAVAID RULE] 1 operational straight-in or circling approach: - Add 400' to applicable HAA/HAT - Add 1sm to approach minimum At least 2 operational navigational facilities, each providing a straight-in or circling approach to different suitable runways: - Add 200' to the higher applicable approaches' HAT - Add 1/2sm to the higher minimum of the two approaches.
32
When do I need to calculate a landing performance assessment? (FOM 2.13.21)
1) If any relevant factor has degraded from those shown in the flight release package, including weather, runway surface conditions, or other changes to aircraft status that negatively affect landing performance, recalculate and add 15% [En Route: LPA (LD*115%) 2) If landing on a runway other than shown on the flight release.
33
What to do in the event of a bird strike? (FOM 3.3.8)
If there is NO visible damage or the strike occurred away from engine ingestion path, clean area, if required, and continue normal operations. If there IS visible damage or unable to determine whether engine ingestion or other damage occurred, submit a maintenance discrepancy.
34
When do I need to call CANPASS?
Not later than 2 hours prior to arrival and not earlier than 48 hours prior.
35
What are the different Emergency Safe Altitudes (ESA)?
*VFR Pattern Altitude (VMC only) *Published Missed Approach Altitude *Minimum Safe Altitude depicted on a relevant chart *ATC Assigned Altitude
36
What are the different Flap Retraction Altitudes (FRA)
2-engine operating (AEO): 400' (Normal Takeoff) 1000' AFE (Missed Approach) Single engine operating (OEI): FRA from APG Genesis (Takeoff) One of the (4) MSA’s (Missed Approach) *VFR Pattern Altitude (VMC only) *Published Missed Approach Altitude *Minimum Safe Altitude depicted on a relevant chart *ATC Assigned Altitude
37
What are the approved weather sources?
ATIS / AWOS / ASOS FSS 800-WXBrief Pilot Weather Reports (PIREP) Aircraft Weather Report (AIREP) NWS Offices NATO Military Wx reporting services ICAO member state reporting services
38
What is the maximum Time / Distance limit from an adequate airport for Non-ETOPS operations in the Latitude. (AFM Advisory Sec VII 7-210-1)
180 minutes / 992 nm Limit based on the STBY Instrument battery and MDR Sec baggage fire bottle limits.
39
What is required for RVSM Operations?
The following equipment must be operational upon entering RVSM airspace: Pilot & Copilot Primary Altimeters Autopilot Altitude Alerter Transponder
40
Which QRC’s designate the LP?
Engine starter does not disengage Start malfunction on ground Battery O’Temp (Technically, since the PF is the LP on the ground): Evacuation
41
How to activate the Back Course (BC) Approach as you capture the final approach course
Once wings level: Center the HDG bug Select heading Select BC
42
How do you exit a HOLD?
- Suspend - Direct To a different fix - Delete the HOLD - Select the hold fix and select “Exit Hold” in the pop-up menu.
43
EICAS message BATT LOW TAKEOFF? (AOM 2.17.1.2 NOTE)
Indicates at least (1) battery is charging at 20 amps or more. When throttles are advanced, this message changes from white to amber and a single chime aural is heard.
44
Crosswind limit for ILS CAT I Reduced Minima Takeoff? (FOM 2.13.13)
Most restrictive of the following: 15 KIAS, or AOM crosswind or MEL limitation
45
Noise Abatement Takeoff (AOM 2.18.2)
SPD - FMS APU - OFF Flaps - 1 Static Takeoff 400’ - Flaps Up VS - 1500 fpm Airspeed - 160 kts 3000’ or 5nm - resume normal departure PERF SETUP: Active Perf>Climb Speed - 160 kts Below 3000’ (AGL) Within 5nm of departure airport
46
What is the maximum altitude to attempt an engine inflight restart?
30,000 ft
47
What is the Inverse C symbol in the CIRCLE-TO-LAND minima box? (TERPS 8260.3B CHANGE 21)
Expanded Circling Maneuvering Airspace Radius Circling MDA Circling Radius (NM) in feet MSL CAT B CAT C 1000 or less 1.7 2.7 1001 - 3000 1.8 2.8 [w/out symbol] 1.5 1.7
48
How do you calculate a Visual Descent Point [VDP]? (FOM 2.13.3.2)
VDP = HAT / (VDA x 100) Example: 500 / (3.0 deg x 100) = 500 / (300) =1.667 VDP = 1.7 NM
49
When does the AOA indicator appear in AUTO mode?
When landing gear is down and locked, or the flaps position is 3-deg or greater.
50
When does the Pitch Limit Indicator (PLI) appear?
When the angle of attack is within six degrees of a stall condition.
51
When does the beacon come on?
During engine start, or When turned on through the GTC
52
What is the Amber ENGINE CNTRL FAULT CAS message inflight a possible indication of?
Inflight, it could mean that the RAT probes are icing up. If you have entered icing conditions without the Anti-Icing on, the RAT probes will start to freeze up and set off this CAS message.
53
What are the different ways to switch to GREEN Needles **[Need confirmation on these]**
1. APPR Mode armed (ILS) 2. While in HDG mode, manually via GTC's 1 & 4 3. Vectors to final (something about switching to APPR which switches to green needles, then back to NAV) ??
54
How many batteries MUST be connected to operate the Main Cabin Door?
Zero. No batteries are required to operate the door, but it would be nice to have the Left Battery connected!
55
What two things can prevent the LAV from flushing?
INTERIOR turned off LAV service door open
56
International Altimeter Codes
QN**E**= Enroute QN**H**= Home (Local alt. Above MSL) Q**FE**= Field Elevation (0’ Fixed Point Elevation)
57
What are the restrictions to using DAAP? (FOM 2.4.8.5.3)
May NOT use DAAP under any of the following conditions: - Neither pilot has 75 hours or more in type. - Planned landing runway is contaminated. Planned landing runway crosswind forecast to be >15kt. Braking action advisories are in effect for planned landing runway. (EXCEPTION: Braking action reported as good or better by a comparable size or larger aircraft) - Any of these aircraft systems deferred: - Anti-Skid braking system - Thrust reversers - Lift-dumping devices (spoilers, speed brakes) - Wing flaps or slats - ETA between official SR/SS unless the following are operative: - Lo/Md/Hi Runway Edge Lights - VASI or Electronic GS with a GP between 2.5 and 3.5 degrees. - The aircraft is expected to have any residual ice on any aerodynamic surface during landing unless the AFM has an adjustment for it and it is applied.
58
For night takeoffs and landings, the runway must have: (FOM 2.1.14)
Operable runway edge lighting.
59
Climb Gradient is based on how many engines operating? iPreflight Genesis: - Missed Approach - Balked Landing SIDs IAPs
iPreflight Genesis: - Missed Approach: OEI - Balked Landing: AEO SIDs: AEO IAPs: OEI

Latitude Study Guide (34 decks)

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