S1 L1.1: Subjective Assessment Flashcards

(199 cards)

1
Q

T/F: PPTA still has no special interest group for cardiopulmonary PTs

A

False
Currently, there is currently a subgroup specialization for Cardiopulmonary PTs in PPTA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Elements of Patient Management

The process of obtaining a history, performing a systems review, and selecting and administering tests and measures to gather data about the patient/client.

a. Examination
b. Evaluation
c. Diagnosis
d. Prognosis ( c Plan of Care)
e. Intervention
f. Outcomes

A

a. Examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Elements of Patient Management

Determination of the level of optimal improvement that may be attained through intervention and the amount of time required to reach that level.

a. Examination
b. Evaluation
c. Diagnosis
d. Prognosis ( c Plan of Care)
e. Intervention
f. Outcomes

A

d. Prognosis (c Plan of Care)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Elements of Patient Management

Results of patient/client management, which include the impact of physical therapy interventions to the patient.

a. Examination
b. Evaluation
c. Diagnosis
d. Prognosis ( c Plan of Care)
e. Intervention
f. Outcomes

A

f. Outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Elements of Patient Management

Both the process and the end result of evaluating examination data, which the physical therapist organizaes into defined clusters, syndromes, or categories to help determine the prognosis and the most appropriate intervention strategies.

a. Examination
b. Evaluation
c. Diagnosis
d. Prognosis ( c Plan of Care)
e. Intervention
f. Outcomes

A

c. Diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Elements of Patient Management

Purposeful and skilled interaction of the physical therapist with the pt/client using various physical therapy methods and techniques to produce changes in the condition that are consistent with the diagnosis and prognosis.

a. Examination
b. Evaluation
c. Diagnosis
d. Prognosis ( c Plan of Care)
e. Intervention
f. Outcomes

A

e. Intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Elements of Patient Management

A dynamic process in which the physical therapist makes clinical judgements based on data gatehred during the examination.

a. Examination
b. Evaluation
c. Diagnosis
d. Prognosis ( c Plan of Care)
e. Intervention
f. Outcomes

A

b. Evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Elements of Patient Management

The _____ is a comprehensive screening and specific testing process that leads to a diagnostic classification.

A

Initial Examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Elements of Patient Management

T/F: Examination includes subjective and objective assessment

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Elements of Patient Management

The _ specifies the interventions to be used and their timing and frequency.

A

Plan of Care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Elements of Patient Management

a. Decision to reexamine
b. Process of reexamination

  1. May also identify the need for consultation with or referral to another provider
  2. Based on new clinical findings or on lack of patient progress
A
  1. B (Process of Reexamination)
  2. A (Decision to Reexamine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

4 Sources of History Taking

A
  1. Patient/Family/Caregiver Interview
  2. History & Data Forms
  3. Medical Chart Review
  4. Information from Other Health Care Providers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do you do if the patient is not viable to answer the question during the interview?

a. Wait until the patient can answer
b. Interview the family/caregiver
c. Proceed with the other patient examinations

A

b. Interview the family/caregiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Questions to probe when a pt has Hypertension in their medical history?

A
  1. Clinically diagnosed?
  2. Controlled/uncontrolled type?
  3. Given medications and respective intake
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Questions to probe when a pt has Diabetes in their medical history?

A
  1. Clinically diagnosed?
  2. Type 1 or 2?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Questions to probe when a pt has Asthma in their medical history?

A
  1. Was it aquired since birth or when only triggered?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Chief Complaint

This is aso known as “Air Hunger” and is considered as one of the most common symptoms of cardiac and pulmonary diseases.

A

Dyspnea

(Shorttness of Breath)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Chief Complaint

Which of the ff are TRUE regarding Dyspnea:
a. Occurs when the body’s requirement for breathing is less than the body’s capacity to provide it
b. Gas exchange is compromised
c. Unconsious breathing.

A

Only B is correct.
The body’s requirement for breathing exceeds the body’s capacity to provide it thus having the pt be conscious of their breathing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Chief Complaint

T/F: An affectation in the phrenic nerve can cause Dyspnea

A

True.
Phrenic Nerve innervates the diaphragm (C3-C5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Chief Complaint

Possible locations that can cause abnormalities in the ventilatory system?

A
  1. Thoracic Cage
  2. Lungs
  3. Heart
  4. Kidneys
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Chief Complaint

Dyspnea should be assessed based on _ of the appearance and progression

A

Time course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Chief Complaint

a. Acute Dyspnea
b. Dyspnea on Exertion (DOE)
c. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea (PND)
d. Functional Dyspnea

Dyspnea during functional (extreme) exercises (aggravating factor and subsides during rest

A

Dyspnea on Exertion (DOE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Chief Complaint

a. Acute Dyspnea
b. Dyspnea on Exertion (DOE)
c. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea (PND)
d. Functional Dyspnea

Inability to breath/SOB when pt is sleeping. Onset of dyspnea 2-3 hours after the onset of sleep

A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Chief Complaint

What position relieves Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea?

A

Upright position (Which is why pt often wakes up in the middle of the night.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
# Chief Complaint Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea (PND) is d/t _
Pulmonary Congestion
26
# Chief Complaint a. Acute Dyspnea b. Dyspnea on Exertion (DOE) c. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea (PND) d. Functional Dyspnea Associated chest pain (which can be d/t spontaneous pneumothorax or embolism), chest trauma, decompensating left ventricle, possible heart failure. SOB is even present during rest.
Acute Dyspnea
27
# Chief Complaint a. Acute Dyspnea b. Dyspnea on Exertion (DOE) c. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea (PND) d. Functional Dyspnea Present at rest but absent during exertion/exercise. It is short-term and more common in women.
Functional Dyspnea
28
# Chief Complaint Assessed based on Body Position; a. Orthopnea b. Platypnea c. Trepopnea SOB in one lateral position (in side lying position). This is common for pt c unilateral lung problem and mitra stenosis.
c. Trepopnea
29
# Chief Complaint Assessed based on Body Position; a. Orthopnea b. Platypnea c. Trepopnea SOB in recumbent (supine) position and is relieved when backrest is elevated.
a. Orthopnea | Congestive heart failure, Chronic pulmonary diseases
30
# Chief Complaint Document; "I cannot sleep well lying flat on bed but I can sleep well if I have 3 pillows."
3-pillow orthopnea
31
# Chief Complaint Assessed based on Body Position; a. Orthopnea b. Platypnea c. Trepopnea SOB when assuming sitting from supine. Happens with pts with pulmonary fibrosis, hypoxemia, and ventilation-perfusion mismatch (less O2/Hemoglobin=mismatch)
b. Platypnea
32
DYSPNEA SCALE (Grade 0-4) Walks slower than people of the same age on level ground d/t SOB or has to stop for breath when walking at own pace on level ground
GRADE 2
33
DYSPNEA SCALE (0-4) Too breathless to leave the house or during dressing or undressing
GRADE 4
34
DYSPNEA SCALE (0-4) Not troubled by breathlessness except with strenuous exercise
GRADE 0
35
DYSPNEA SCALE (0-4) Stops for breath after walking 100m or after few mins on level ground
GRADE 3
36
DYSPNEA SCALE (0-4) Troubled by SOB when hurrying on level ground or walking up a slight hill
GRADE 1
37
Another way to measure the SOB where O2 and HR are directly proportional with one another (6-20)
Borg RPE
38
As PTs settle at the yellow score (__) while avoid red scale (__) when doing exercises.
1. 12-16 2. 17-20
39
2nd most common symptom/CC
Chest Pain
40
T/F: Not all chest pain is related to angina
TRUE Differential diagnosis should be precise and done well to make sure it is not just traumatic pain on the chest instead of an actual angina
41
For CP pts, there is a greater chance that the chest pain is brought by ___ which may lead to ____ which may lead to ____.
Ischemia > Chest Pain > Myocardial Ischemia > Myocardial Infarction
42
TYPES OF CHEST PAIN a. Ischemic Chest Pain b. Stable Angina c. Unstable Angina d. Prinzmetal Angina e. Microvascular Angina Less serious type of angina where the heart must work harder during physical exertion but lasts a short time ( >5mins). May feel like gas or indigestion.
b. Stable Angina
43
TYPES OF CHEST PAIN a. Ischemic Chest Pain b. Stable Angina c. Unstable Angina d. Prinzmetal Angina e. Microvascular Angina Due to coronary microvascular disease at the distal segments or spasms on the walls of small arteries
e. Microvascular Angina
44
TYPES OF CHEST PAIN a. Ischemic Chest Pain b. Stable Angina c. Unstable Angina d. Prinzmetal Angina e. Microvascular Angina A diffuse retrosternal pain that immediately needs to be resolved. It presents (+) Levine Sign and discomfort or heaviness in the shoulder, jaw, arm, elbow, and upper back
a. Ischemic Chest Pain
45
TYPES OF CHEST PAIN a. Ischemic Chest Pain b. Stable Angina c. Unstable Angina d. Prinzmetal Angina e. Microvascular Angina A more serious type of angina that occurs during acute coronary syndrome. This causes a blot clot on heart artery which may lead to a heart attack
c. Unstable Angina
46
TYPES OF CHEST PAIN a. Ischemic Chest Pain b. Stable Angina c. Unstable Angina d. Prinzmetal Angina e. Microvascular Angina Occurs at rest and observed on younger pts.It is caused by spasms in the coronary arteries.
d. Prinzmetal Angina
47
What is the positive presentation of the Levine Sign
Fist close to the heart because of chest pain
48
TYPES OF CHEST PAIN a. Ischemic Chest Pain b. Stable Angina c. Unstable Angina d. Prinzmetal Angina e. Microvascular Angina Sx can be associated with dyspnea, sweating, indigestion, dizziness, syncope, and anxiety
a. Ischemic Chest Pain
49
What occurs when oxygenation is problematic to a patient
The body will not be able to supply an adequate amount of oxygen anymore
50
T/F: The heart muscle does not require its own supply of oxygen.
False. It requires it own supply of oxygen. Once deprived, it willnow result in angina.
51
What can relieve a stable angina? a. Rest b. Nitroglycerin c. Both d. None
c. Both
52
How can chest pain be relieved with the use of nitroglycerin?
Placed under the tongue (sublingual)
53
How can you determine that the type of angina is stable using nitroglycerin?
When the reaction to the medication is immediate.
54
T/F: Smoking is a very strong risk factor in triggering a stable angina
True. It can also be triggered by emotional stress, extremes of temp, and a heavy meal
55
Which of the ff is an indication of an unstable angina? 1. Occurs when a awake 2. Lasts longer than a stable angina 3. Rests and medicine (nitrates) relieve the pain 4. Pain usually lasts for 30mins
2 and 4 1. It occurs when resting or sleeping 3. Rests and medicine do not relieve pain
56
This artery is the blood vessel that supplies O2 and nutrients to the heart muscle
Coronary Artery
57
What occurs when there are spasms in the coronary artery?
It impedes the delivery of O2 and nutrients to the heart muscle
58
Diff Diagnosis of Chest Pain a. Pleuritic Chest Pain b. Pulmonary Hypertension c. Pericardial Chest Pain d. Esophageal Chest Pain e. Chest Wall Pain Substernal pain radiating on one or both arms and is relieved by sublingual nitroglycerin and antacids
d. Esophageal Chest Pain
59
Diff Diagnosis of Chest Pain a. Pleuritic Chest Pain b. Pulmonary Hypertension c. Pericardial Chest Pain d. Esophageal Chest Pain e. Chest Wall Pain Pain close to thoracic cage (superficial) and worsens sharply with inspiration, coughing, or laughing (Pain comes from the pleura and felt during the inflation of lungs)
a. Pleuritic Chest Pain
60
Diff Diagnosis of Chest Pain a. Pleuritic Chest Pain b. Pulmonary Hypertension c. Pericardial Chest Pain d. Esophageal Chest Pain e. Chest Wall Pain Midline pain felt from each heartbeat (pericardium) and is aggravated by deep inspiration, coughing, swallowing, or lying down. The pain is relieved by sitting up, leaning forward or lying on right side
c. Pericardial Chest Pain
61
Diff Diagnosis of Chest Pain a. Pleuritic Chest Pain b. Pulmonary Hypertension c. Pericardial Chest Pain d. Esophageal Chest Pain e. Chest Wall Pain This may mimic angina pectoris and occurs during exertion. This is associated with dyspnea and not relieved by nitrates.
b. Pulmonary Hypertension
62
T/F: Not all chest pain that does not react to nitrates is unstable angina
True. Look at other symptoms of unstable angina
63
T/F: Pulmonary Hypertension is similar to stable angina
False. It is similar to both stable and unstable angina
64
Diff Diagnosis of Chest Pain a. Pleuritic Chest Pain b. Pulmonary Hypertension c. Pericardial Chest Pain d. Esophageal Chest Pain e. Chest Wall Pain This is an intermittent type with variable intensity. It may have a traumatic history on the chest wall
e. Chest Wall Pain
65
Syndrome that has chest wall pain that presents with local tenderness and costochondral of the 2nd-4th costochondral junction
Tietze Syndrome
66
This syndrome is a tumor on superior sulcus that compresses brachial plexus. It also presents with radiating pain in the shoulder, scapular or medial aspect of arm and hand
Pancoast Syndrome
67
Angina Rating Scale (1-4) Moderately severe, very uncomfortable
Grade 3
68
Angina Rating Scale (1-4) Moderate, bothersome
Grade 2
69
Angina Rating Scale (1-4) Most severe or intense pain ever experienced
Grade 4
70
Angina Rating Scale (1-4) Mild, barely noticeable
Grade 1
71
Type of cough that expels sputum
Productive cough
72
No sputum is expelled but may sometimes contain saliva
Non-productive
73
T/F: Cough may only be due to acute infections of the lungs
False. It may be due to acute or chronic infection of the lungs.
74
# Acute Infection of the Lungs Cough associated with sore throat, runny nose & eyes
Tracheobronchitis
75
# Acute Infection of the Lungs Cough preceded by Sx of upper respiratory infection; dry cough → productive
Lobar Pneumonia
76
# Acute Infection of the Lungs Starts as acute bronchitis; dry or productive cough
Bronchopneumonia
77
# Acute Infection of the Lungs Paroxysmal cough (sudden increase or occurrence of symptoms)
Viral Pneumonia
78
# Acute Infection of the Lungs Chronic productive cough; mucoid sputum → purulent (greenish or yellowsih sputum)
Exacerbation of Chronic Bronchitis
79
# Chronic Infections of the Lungs Chronic productive cough for more than 3 consecutive months for 2 successive years; mucoid → mucopurulent sputum
Chronic Bronchitis
80
# Chronic Infections of the Lungs Cough copious; foul smell; purulent
Bronchiectasis
81
# Chronic Infections of Lungs Persistent cough for weeks to months; often with blood-tinged sputum
Tuebrculosis
82
Non-productive to productive cough for weeks or months; recurrent small hemoptysis
Tumoris
83
Upper airway: cough with sign of asphyxiation (nasamid) Lower airway: non-productive cough, persistent, associated with localizing wheeze
Foreign Bodies
84
Cough most marked in morning; slightly productive is due to?
Smoking
85
Often initiated by postural changes & relieved by assuming an upright position; non-productive; nocturnal and episodic
Cardiac
86
T/F: If wheezing is associated with dyspnea, then the condition may be a pulmonary or cardiac disease.
True
87
Manifestation of a narrowed airway and thickened bronchial walls d/t pulmonary edema
Wheezing in cardiac patients | Whistling or sumisipol
88
Wheezing or Stridor? Laryngotracheal narrowing
Stridor
89
Wheezing or Stidor? Thickened bronchial walls d/t pulmonary edema
Wheezing | Not in the larynx and trachea
90
This chief complaint is the awareness by patient of heart rhythm abnormalities such as pounding, fluttering, racing heartbeat. It can be triggered by stress, exercise, or medications
Palpitation
91
What are the different causes of palpitation?
1. Lack of sleep 2. Caffeinated drinks 3. Medication that is related to heart rhythm 4. Alcoholic drinks 5. Stress and some diseases
92
This chief complaint may be d/t reduced cardiopulmonary endurance and/or physical inactivity, antihypertensive medication, hypokalemia, and other mental health problems (depression, anixiety, emotional stress)
Fatigue
93
What does hypokalemia do to the body
Potassium is depleted -> absence of potassium - muscles will be weak
94
This type of edema is d/t congestive heart failure
Pedal/bipedal edema
95
How does edema form d/t congestion on the heart?
Congestion on the heart → blood can no longer go back → accumulation of blood that retains in the LE/UE → forming edema
96
Accumulation of fluid inside the abdominal area
Ascites
97
T/F: Weight gain is an earlier indication of fluid retention d/t CHF
True. I.e. ascites- increased abdominal girth
98
What can be other causes of edema?
Lymphatic obstruction, localized trauma (e.g. on the hand)
99
# HPI Patterns of Sx that must be taken note of:
1. Sudden/gradual onset 2. Constant/intermittent sx 3. Sx during at rest/exertion 4. Sx reaction to medication 5. Time of day the sx is present
100
What is the primary goal of PTs for pts within the ICU?
Achieve hemodynamic stability tability and optimal oxygen transport for each patient who is critically ill → optimal function
101
Since PTs also treat pts in the ICU, implication must be considered like:
1. Monitoring the patient (ECG, arterial and venous lines, ICP) 2. Making sure drainage (thoracostomy) is upright and is lower than point of insertion 3. Careful that attached IV lines might get disloge 4. Assess fluid and electrolyte imbalance 5. Check for sx of acid-base imbalances
102
Fluid & Electrolyte Imbalance: Head and Neck
Fluid Excess: Distended neck veins; facial edema Fluid Loss: Thirst, dry mucous membranes
103
Fluid & Electrolyte Imbalance: Extermities
Fluid Excess: Dependent “pitting” edema Fluid Loss: Muscle weakness, tingling, tetany
104
Fluid & Electrolyte Imbalance: Respiration
Fluid Excess: Dyspnea, orthopnea, productive cough, moist breath sounds Fluid Loss: Changes in rate and depth of breathing
105
Fluid & Electrolyte Imbalance: Circulation
Fluid Excess: Htn, visible jugular pulse at 45° sitting angle, atrial dysrhythmias Fluid Loss: Irregular pulse rate, dysrhythmia, postural hypotension, sinus tachycardia
106
Fluid & Electrolyte Imbalance: Skin
Fluid Excess: Warm, moist, taut, cool feeling when edematous Fluid Loss: Dry, decreased turgor (skin elasticity)
107
Fluid & Electrolyte Imbalance: Abdomen
Fluid Excess: Increased girth, fluid wave Fluid Loss: Abdominal cramps
108
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Respiratory Disturbances) Hypercapnia
Acidosis
109
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Respiratory Disturbances) Lightheadedness
Alkalosis
110
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Respiratory Disturbances) Convulsions
Alkalosis
111
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Respiratory Disturbances) Comatose
Acidosis
112
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Respiratory Disturbances) Headache
Acidosis
113
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Respiratory Disturbances) Numbness of digits
Alkalosis
114
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Respiratory Disturbances) Tetany
Alkalosis
115
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Respiratory Disturbances) Drowsiness
Acidosis
116
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Respiratory Disturbances) Hypocapnia
Alkalosis
117
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Respiratory Disturbances) Tetany
Alkalosis
118
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Respiratory Disturbances) DTR
Acidosis
119
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Respiratory Disturbances) Hypoventilation
Acidosis
120
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Respiratory Disturbances) Comatose
Acidosis
121
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Respiratory Disturbances) Hyperkalemia
Acidosis
122
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Respiratory Disturbances) Hypokalemia
Alkalosis
123
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Respiratory Disturbances) Visual Disturbances
Acidosis
124
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Hypokalemia
Alkalosis
125
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Bicarbondate deficit
Acidosis
126
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Hyperventilation
Acidosis
127
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Convolusions
Alkalosis
128
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Headache
Acidosis
129
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Tetany
Aklalosis
130
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Muscle Twitching
Aklalosis
131
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Numbness of digits
Alkalosis
132
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Mental dullness
Acidosis
133
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Dizziness
Alkalosis
134
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Deep Respirations
Acidosis
135
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Mental confusion
Alkalosis
136
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Depressed respirations
Alkalosis
137
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Stupor
Acidosis
138
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Comatose
Acidosis
139
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Bicarbonate excess
Alkalosis
140
Acidosis or Alkalosis (Metabolic Disturbances) Hyperkalemia
Acidosis
141
T/F: Cardiopulmonary system works alone. Once it becomes problematic, it is the only system affected.
False It works with the renal system and kidney. Once the cardiopulmonary system is problematic, the kidney will adapt and compensate and vice versa.
142
PT Implication: What to do when sx arise during the PT session?
1. Stop the PT session first 2. Check Blood Gasses 3. Assess Arousal and Brain Activity
143
Blood Gasses: measures function and non-functional hemoglobin; measured by extracting blood and analyzing it
Arterial Blood Oxygen Saturation
144
Blood Gasses: only measures functional hemoglobin; measured with the pulse oximeter
Peripheral Oxygen Saturation
145
What scale can be used to assess arousal and brain activity
Glasgow Coma Scale
146
Other scale used to assess the arousal state
Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale
147
May also provide information about cerebral functioning
Electroencephalogram
148
PT Implication: Thorasis Surgery a. Muscle is cut b. Tissue is cut 1. result to pain 2. result to weakness
1. b 2. a
149
In CABG, why must not be the arms be raised beyond 90deg?
To give time for the wound to heal so it won't open | Results to LOM
150
This type of thoracotomy may possibly cut these muscles: pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, serratus anterior, intercostals
Anterolateral Thoracotomy
151
This apporach is when only a few muscles will be cut
Muscle Sparing approach
152
This type of thoracotomy uses the muscle-sparing approach (only intercostals) where the muscles that are possibly cut arelatissimus dorsi, serratus anterior, lower trapezius, intercostals, and sometimes could reach the rhomboids and middle trapezius
Posterolateral thoracotomy
153
Thoracotomy that cuts pectoralis major or linea alba of rectus abdominis
Median Sternotomy
154
A process of inserting a tube after surgery for drainage to evacuate excessive air and fluid
Thoracostomy
155
a. Vasodilators b. NSAIDS + ACE inhibitors c. NSAIDS + Digitalis d. Diuretics e. Beta-blockers f. Alpha-1 Blockers g. ACE Inhibitors h. Calcium Channel Blockers Monitored during physical exertion for elevated BP
b. NSAIDS + Ace Inhibitors
156
a. Vasodilators b. NSAIDS + ACE inhibitors c. NSAIDS + Digitalis d. Diuretics e. Beta-blockers f. Alpha-1 Blockers g. ACE Inhibitors h. Calcium Channel Blockers close monitoring of RPE and bradycardia; cautious when using HR in monitoring pt
e. Beta-blockers
157
a. Vasodilators b. NSAIDS + ACE inhibitors c. NSAIDS + Digitalis d. Diuretics e. Beta-blockers f. Alpha-1 Blockers g. ACE Inhibitors h. Calcium Channel Blockers hypotension, reflex tachycardia (medicines that end in "zosin")
f. Alpha-1 Blockers
158
a. Vasodilators b. NSAIDS + ACE inhibitors c. NSAIDS + Digitalis d. Diuretics e. Beta-blockers f. Alpha-1 Blockers g. ACE Inhibitors h. Calcium Channel Blockers muscle weakness & spasms, dizziness, headache, incoordination, nausea
d. Diuretics
159
a. Vasodilators b. NSAIDS + ACE inhibitors c. NSAIDS + Digitalis d. Diuretics e. Beta-blockers f. Alpha-1 Blockers g. ACE Inhibitors h. Calcium Channel Blockers rash, persistent dry cough (Medicines that end in “pril”)
g. ACE Inhibitors
160
a. Vasodilators b. NSAIDS + ACE inhibitors c. NSAIDS + Digitalis d. Diuretics e. Beta-blockers f. Alpha-1 Blockers g. ACE Inhibitors h. Calcium Channel Blockers fatigue, confusion, arrhythmias
c. NSAIDS + Digitalis
161
a. Vasodilators b. NSAIDS + ACE inhibitors c. NSAIDS + Digitalis d. Diuretics e. Beta-blockers f. Alpha-1 Blockers g. ACE Inhibitors h. Calcium Channel Blockers swelling on feet and ankles, hypotension, headache, nausea (Due to excessive vasodilation)
h. Calcium Channel Blockers
162
a. Vasodilators b. NSAIDS + ACE inhibitors c. NSAIDS + Digitalis d. Diuretics e. Beta-blockers f. Alpha-1 Blockers g. ACE Inhibitors h. Calcium Channel Blockers may produce hypotension, dizziness and syncope (loss of consciousness)
a. Vasodilators
163
a. Nitrates b. Anticoagulants c. Thrombolytic Drugs d. Beta-2 receptor agonists e. Theophylline and Aminophylline f. Corticosteriods Clearance if DVT resolves (If a clot is present, these drugs are used).
c. Thrombolytic Drugs
164
a. Nitrates b. Anticoagulants c. Thromolytic Drugs d. Beta-2 receptor agonists e. Theophylline and Aminophylline f. Corticosteriods Can also lead to osteoporosis, growth degradation, cushing's syndrome
f. Corticosteriods
165
a. Nitrates b. Anticoagulants c. Thromolytic Drugs d. Beta-2 receptor agonists e. Theophylline and Aminophylline f. Corticosteriods headache, dizziness, tachycardia, OH
a. Nitrates
166
a. Nitrates b. Anticoagulants c. Thromolytic Drugs d. Beta-2 receptor agonists e. Theophylline and Aminophylline f. Corticosteriods for asthma attacks (albuterol, formoterol, salmeterol, etc)
d. Beta-2 receptor agonists
167
a. Nitrates b. Anticoagulants c. Thromolytic Drugs d. Beta-2 receptor agonists e. Theophylline and Aminophylline f. Corticosteriods hematoma, nose-bleeding (heparin or warfarin, prevent clot formation)
b. Anticoagulants
168
a. Nitrates b. Anticoagulants c. Thromolytic Drugs d. Beta-2 receptor agonists e. Theophylline and Aminophylline f. Corticosteriods Monitoring because of toxic effects. Advanced asthma but has toxic effects on body
e. Theophylline and Aminophylline
169
Chest X-Rays: a. Air b. Fats c. Muscle, other soft tissues d. Bone/metals Light Gray
c. Muscle, other soft tissues
170
Chest X-Rays: a. Air b. Fats c. Muscle, other soft tissues d. Bone/metals Dark
a. Air
171
Chest X-Rays: a. Air b. Fats c. Muscle, other soft tissues d. Bone/metals White
d. Bone/metals
172
Chest X-Rays: a. Air b. Fats c. Muscle, other soft tissues d. Bone/metals Dark Gray
b. Fats
173
T/F: Advnace CT Scans and MRI's were discovered in the 1980's-1990's
False 1970's-1980's
174
Provide excellent images of heart, lungs and vascular tissues; more precise; ionizing effect (drawback)
Computed Tomography (CT Scan)
175
Higher-quality views of soft tissues. It is more expensive and non-ionizing (takes an hour to complete)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
176
Checks the heart’s rhythm and its electrical activity (Usually use 12 leads)
Electrocardiogram (ECG / EKG)
177
Laboratory procedure that includes RBC count, variety of RBC indices, differential WBC count, hematocrit (Hct), hemoglobin (Hgb), and platelet count.
Complete Blood Count (CBC)
178
What needs to be assessed under the Lvl of Physical Activity (3)
1. Including exercises and sport activities 2. Current vs. prior lifestyle 3. Active vs. sedentary lifestyle
179
Need to be taken into account under Functional Status (2)
1. Work/School (Current vs. Prior) 2. Occupational History
180
Formula in getting the BMC Public Health Classification (Pack-years)
(No. of packs a day) x (Current age - Age first started smoking)
181
A.F. is a 55 yrs old smoker who smokes 1 pack a day. He started smoking at the age of 25. Document the pack years.
Lifestyle > pt is a moderate smoker c Hx of 30 pack-years
182
BMC Public Health Classification a. Non-smoker b. Light smoker c. Moderate smoker d. Heavy smoker 21-40 pack years
c. Moderate smoker
183
BMC Public Health Classification a. Non-smoker b. Light smoker c. Moderate smoker d. Heavy smoker 0 pack years
a. Non-smoker
184
BMC Public Health Classification a. Non-smoker b. Light smoker c. Moderate smoker d. Heavy smoker >40 pack years
d. Heavy smoker
185
BMC Public Health Classification a. Non-smoker b. Light smoker c. Moderate smoker d. Heavy smoker 1-20 pack years
b. Light smoker
186
Categories of Alcoholic Beverage a. Social b. Conformity c. Enhancement d. Coping e. Alcohol Abuser f. Alcoholic Drink to fit in, not necessarily because they would normally drink in the situation
b. Conformity
187
Categories of Alcoholic Beverage a. Social b. Conformity c. Enhancement d. Coping e. Alcohol Abuser f. Alcoholic Extreme consumption (Considered as a psychological disorder)
e. Alcohol Abuser
188
Categories of Alcoholic Beverage a. Social b. Conformity c. Enhancement d. Coping e. Alcohol Abuser f. Alcoholic Drink to celebrate; pastime
a. Social
189
Categories of Alcoholic Beverage a. Social b. Conformity c. Enhancement d. Coping e. Alcohol Abuser f. Alcoholic Drink because it is exciting; likely to actively seek to get drunk
c. Enhancement
190
Categories of Alcoholic Beverage a. Social b. Conformity c. Enhancement d. Coping e. Alcohol Abuser f. Alcoholic Addiction to alcohol - Excessive alcohol consumption is related to heart diseases, heart failure, atrial fibrillation, even hemorrhagic stroke
f. Alcoholic
191
Categories of Alcoholic Beverage a. Social b. Conformity c. Enhancement d. Coping e. Alcohol Abuser f. Alcoholic Drink to forget about their worries, may lead to worse long-term consequences
d. Coping
192
Type of Alcoholic Beverage Drinker: ● 1 drink/day (women); 1-2 drinks/day (men) ● Beer: 12 fluid ounces (355 milliliters) ● Wine: 5 fluid ounces (148 milliliters) ● Distilled spirits (80 proof): 1.5 fluid ounces (44 milliliters)
Moderate Drinker
193
Type of Alcoholic Beverage Drinker: High-risk drinking; >3 drinks on any day or >7 drinks/week (>65 y/o), and >4 four drinks on any day or >14 drinks/week for men (65 y/o)
Heavy Drinker
194
Type of Alcoholic Beverage Drinker: 4 drinks within 2 hours for women and 5 drinks within 2 hours for men
Binge Drinker
195
Drug Abuse: What can opoid use cause?
arrhythmias, stroke, endocarditis
196
Drug Abuse: What can Methamphetamine (shabu) cause?
congestive heart failure, arrhythmia, and damage to heart muscles and blood vessels via inflammation
197
Nutritional Intake through providing food through tube in nose, stomach, or intestine
Enteral
198
Nutritional Intake through providing food intravenously; bypassing eating and digestion
Parenteral
199
Which of the ff statements are true about the Pt's Goal? a. Allows the clinician to align the care provided with what is most important to the patient b. Establishes the most medically appropriate, realistic, and agreed goal of patient care c. Both d. None
c. Both